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Event Management Quiz

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The practice of measuring an event’s success concerning its objectives is known as evaluation.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Exclusive sponsorship is divided into product categories.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The sponsorship process consists of three different stages which are planning, selling, and evaluating.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Sponsorship packages can be developed to meet the needs of different types of sponsors.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Identify benefits for sponsor is part from the ........................ phase.

a)

Planning

b)

Maintaining

c)

Servicing

d)

Selling

6.

This type of sponsorship usually has sole use of the platform component for promotional purposes.

a)

Subsidiary sponsorship

b)

Exclusive sponsorship

c)

Official supplier

d)

Primary sponsorship

7.

A good sponsorship proposal should ..................................

a)

Include other benefits that are not relevant to the sponsor.

b)

Endeavour to secure lots of sponsor.

c)

Demonstrating an understanding of the sponsor'’ company objectives.

d)

Not taking the sponsors needs into consideration.

8.

.............................. between sponsorship and other marketing communication variables employed before, during, and after the sponsorship campaign.

a)

Return on investment

b)

Two-way communication

c)

Public relation

d)

Cross-impact and leverage

9.

The development of the event concept is to .......................

a)

Provide a good understanding of event operations.

b)

Be shown measurably.

c)

Provide a collection of processes, best practices, terminologies, and guidelines for event projects.

d)

Give a picture of the restriction of what can be achieved.

10.

“This chart lists the tasks to be performed on the vertical axis, and time intervals on the horizontal axis. The width of the horizontal bars in the graph shows the duration of each activity”. This statement refers to ..........................

a)

Maps and model

b)

Gantt chart

c)

PERT chart

d)

Work breakdown structure

11.

Event organizer use the PERT Chart to ........................

a)

List down the things to be checked or done.

b)

Describe systems using an example of how information has changed within them over time.

c)

Provide a network diagram to present a project timeline.

d)

Provide a timeline of smaller tasks with dates to show durations and completion times.

12.

Potential damage and pollution are examples of environmental constraints the event organizer faces.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Constraints are the limitations or problems which allow us to achieve our objective successfully.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

In managing an event, SMART objectives referred to specific, measurable, achievable, realistic and time-related.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

When selecting an event venue, consideration must be given to these aspects, EXCEPT ........................

a)

Size of the event

b)

Transport and parking

c)

Staff and volunteer management

d)

Proximity to accommodations and attractions

16.

In staging management, a theme can be reinforced through creative elements such as ..........................

a)

Color

b)

Fantasy

c)

Humor

d)

All the above

17.

A rehearsal is a preparatory event that is performed before the actual performance actually takes place. Which of the following is important about conducting a rehearsal?

a)

Ensure all details of the performance are adequately prepared and coordinated

b)

Ensuring that each element has followed the event timeline

c)

To minimize risk

d)

To calculate the capacity of the field of play

18.

Staging an event can be perceived as the heart of event management, where the “show” happens.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Event staging is the process where the event manager places emphasis on policy, procedure, and contingency planning for the actual day of the event.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The event site selection in staging management must consider all stakeholders’ needs, including emergency services, catering staff, entertainers, participants, and clients.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

“Legally and morally responsible for the overall governance of the event”. The above statement refers to the general description of responsibility and accountability for ..................................

a)

Event Manager

b)

Board of Director

c)

Administration Manager

d)

Sponsorship Coordinator

22.

Good supervision in staffing and volunteer management involves 3 steps, EXCEPT ..................

a)

Establishing clear expectations

b)

Evaluate performance against standards

c)

Correct performance that is not reaching the standards

d)

Delegated responsibilities according to gender preferences

23.

The event manager is responsible for the overall management and administration of the event. Among the tasks required to be carried out are ...........................

a)

Develop an operational plan based on the strategic plan prepared by the board of directors

b)

Develop a strategic plan with vision, goals, and outcomes

c)

Identify what personnel are needed and what skills they require

d)

Negotiate the sponsorship deal and the relationship with the sponsor

24.

Board of Directors (executive committee) activities and tasks include these, EXCEPT ..........................

a)

Forecast problems and solutions

b)

Establish appropriate beliefs and mission by-laws for the event

c)

Hire and recruit the event manager

d)

Oversee the recruitment, selection, and training of the divisional managers

25.

Falling to staff adequately and being reluctant to ask others for help, leaving an inordinate work load for themselves, was a common mistake made by event directors.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

There are 8 guides on staffing plans, with the first being the plan for supervision of staff.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

To hire the employees needed in your staffing plans, you must develop a plan and time line for hiring the employees required.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Define clearly the roles, responsibilities, and authority of each coordinator and committee, among the tasks and activities for the volunteer coordinator.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Operational monitoring and controls include ...................................

a)

the necessity for delegations of responsibility in carrying out procedures

b)

the effects of control systems on customers

c)

the importance of financial controls

d)

All the above

30.

Which of the following are the key element to consider in management planning control?

a)

Spectator behavior

b)

Layout of the venue

c)

Number of employees

d)

Number of people

31.

Which of the following is the correct process in a spectator management plan?

a)

Estimate, establish, identify, develop, and check

b)

Establish, estimate, identify, develop, and check

c)

Estimate, establish, identify, develop, and check

d)

Identify, estimate, establish, develop, and check

32.

Risk management can be defined as ............................

a)

Maximizing the possible occurrence of an injury, damage or loss.

b)

Creating the possible occurrence of an injury, damage or loss.

c)

Evaluating the possible occurrence of an injury, damage or loss.

d)

Minimizing the possible occurrence of an injury, damage or loss.

33.

The Murphy’s Law of identification of risk emphasize .............................

a)

If it moves, it will fall off with something

b)

If it’s alive & under 10 years old, it will be curious & adventurous

c)

If it moves, it will jump off with something

d)

If it’s alive & under 21 years old, it will be curious & adventurous

34.

There are four (4) strategies to control the risk. Which of the following is correct?

a)

Retain, reduce, transfer, and eliminate.

b)

Reduce, retain, transfer, and eliminate.

c)

Transfer, retain, reduce, and eliminate.

d)

Eliminate, reduce, transfer, and retain.

35.

Which of the government regulation and policies is correct?

a)

Garis Panduan Perancangan Bangunan

b)

OSHAR Act 514 (1994)

c)

Serenity Building Law (1984)

d)

PBuilding and Country Planning act 1976 – Act 172

36.

The mission of Event First Aid & Safety Services is to provide ........................................

a)

The quality of first aid training and providing top quality on-site Event Medical Services for your special event

b)

The quality of emergency personal and training providing top quality on-site Event Medical Services for your special event

c)

The quality of CPR training and first aid training providing top quality on-site Event Profit Services for your special event

d)

The quality of CPR training and first aid training providing top quality on-site Event Revenue Services for your special event

37.

In emergency planning, disaster response plays an important role to ...................................

a)

Deal with emergency evacuation, quarantine, mass decontamination and support society after natural or human-made disasters have occurred.

b)

Interact with emergency evacuation, quarantine, mass decontamination and support society after natural or human-made disasters have occurred.

c)

Diminish with emergency evacuation, quarantine, mass decontamination and support society after natural or human-made disasters have occurred.

d)

Corrupt with emergency evacuation, quarantine, mass decontamination and support society after natural or human-made disasters have occurred.

38.

The seriousness of the injury, damage or loss can be categorized as ........................................

a)

Severity

b)

Serenity

c)

Serial

d)

Scenery

39.

Which of the following is the process of developing a spectator management plan?

a)

I Accreditation plans for restricted access by specific staff.

b)

II Emergency response plan (ERP)

c)

III Evacuation Plan and initiate training for

d)

IV First aid requirement provision

40.

Choose the correct areas below in identifying risk management.

a)

Equipment, Activity, Personnel, Activity, Participants

b)

Facilities, Equipment, Personnel, Activity, Participants

c)

Reservation, Equipment, Personnel, Activity, Participant

d)

Facilities, Equipment, Revenue, Activity, Participant

41.

Event marketing process is the process to enhance the profile of the event to meet the needs of the event audience and generate revenue.

4 lines
42.

Which of the following is not an element of the marketing mix?

a)

Place

b)

Promotion

c)

Preparatio

d)

Product

43.

____________ is the science and art of exploring, creating, and delivering value to satisfy the needs of a target market.

a)

Volunteering

b)

Marketing

c)

Staffing

d)

Bidding

44.

Which of the following statements below refers to the marketing mix?

a)

i.Being able to communicate what your brand and product does and present it in the most effective way.

b)

ii.A lower price makes a product accessible to more customers, while a higher price appeals to customers seeking exclusivity.

c)

iii.Prepare financial statements and a budget for approval.

d)

iv.Distribution is a key element of placement.

45.

The final stage in the event marketing process is___________.

a)

Analyzing customers in group.

b)

Examine the process of customer decision making

c)

Establish price and ticket program

d)

Assess marketing effort

46.

Choose the FALSE statement about the definition of marketing.

a)

Identify with the organizing agencies reputation for quality, such as different levels of service provided by other ushers or different responses from two or more customers

b)

The function is to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors

c)

Create goods that suit the needs and develop a communication plan that reflects the events purpose and objectives.

d)

The key to achieving organizational goals consists of determining the needs and wants of target markets.

47.

Flyers and brochures distributed door-to-door and through retail outlets and various public agencies are examples of which types of promotional activities?

a)

Publicity

b)

Public relatio

c)

Personal contact

d)

Special method

48.

Public Relations Plans consists of public relation with parents, media and the coach.

4 lines
49.

There are three nature of event marketing which is tangible, intangible, and variability.

4 lines
50.

Customers feel the benefits and the enjoyment, but they cannot touch the event is an example of the tangibility of service marketing.

4 lines
51.

Sponsorship packages can be developed to meet the needs of different types of sponsor.

4 lines
52.

Exclusive sponsorship is divided into product categories.

4 lines
53.

The sponsorship process consists of three different stages which is planning, selling, and evaluating.

4 lines
54.

Subsidiary sponsorship is tough to maintain because they can often leave a sponsorship program without causing major issues.

4 lines
55.

Identify benefits for sponsor is part from the _____________ phase.

a)

maintaining

b)

selling

c)

planning

d)

servicing

56.

This type of sponsorship usually has sole use of the platform component for promotional purposes.

a)

Exclusive Sponsorshi

b)

Official supplier

c)

Primary Sponsorshi

d)

Subsidiary Sponsorshi

57.

A good sponsorship proposal should_____________.

a)

endeavor to secure lots of sponsor

b)

not taking the sponsors needs into consideration.

c)

demonstrating an understanding of the sponsors company objectives.

d)

include other benefits that are not relevant to the sponsor.

58.

________________ between sponsorship and other marketing communication variables employed before, during, and after the sponsorship campaig

a)

Public relations

b)

Return on investment

c)

Two way communication

d)

Cross impact and leverage

59.

Philip Kotler defines marketing as a key to achieve the needs and wants of the target markets and to bring the satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors.

4 lines
60.

Customers feel the benefits and the enjoyment, but they cannot touch the event is an example of the tangibility of service marketing.

4 lines
61.

There are three nature of event marketing which is tangible, intangible, and variability.

4 lines
62.

Public Relations Plans consists of public relation with parents, media and the coach.

4 lines
63.

Flyers and brochures distributed door-to-door and through retail outlets and various public agencies are examples of which types of promotional activities?

a)

Public relatio

b)

Personal contact

c)

Publicity

d)

Special method

64.

Choose the FALSE statement about the definition of marketing.

a)

The function is to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors.

b)

Identify with the organizing agencies reputation for quality, such as different levels of service provided by other ushers or different responses from two or more customers.

c)

Create goods that suit the needs and develop a communication plan that reflects the events purpose and objectives.

d)

The key to achieving organizational goals consists of determining the needs and wants of target markets.

65.

The final stage in the event marketing process is___________.

a)

assess marketing efforts.

b)

analyzing customers in groups.

c)

examine the process of consumer decision-making.

d)

establish price and ticket program.

66.

The feasibility of an event helps to identify the risk of failure in planning an event.

4 lines
67.

Financial risk can be identified by having a higher profit than the organization expected.

4 lines
68.

Event _____________ means knowing the likeliness of an event to occur successfully.

a)

planning

b)

management

c)

financial

d)

feasibility

69.

Mismanagement in event feasibility is a risk that can _________.

a)

lead to the prevention of achieving the event objectives.

b)

reach of the contract between event organizer and client

c)

risk of injury to both athletes and spectators.

d)

lead to cash flow problem.

70.

Which of the following statements below referring to marketing mix?

a)

i.Being able to communicate what your brand and product does and present it in the most effective way.

b)

ii.A lower price makes a product accessible to more customers, while a higher price appeals to customers seeking exclusivity.

c)

iii.Prepare financial statements and a budget for approval.

d)

iv.Distribution is a key element of placement.