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INTRO_PRC-NOTES PART II

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
This type of motility test uses a special slide with concave depression covered with petroleum jelly. In this case, specimen is applied on the coverslip and then observed under the microscope.
a)
Hanging drop method
b)
Semi-solid medium
2.
Listeria monocytogenes demonstrate a tumbling motility in this motility test method.
a)
Hanging drop method
b)
Semi-solid medium
3.
Listeria monocytogenes demonstrate a umbrella or inverted Christmas tree appearance in this motility test method.
a)
Hanging drop method
b)
Semi-solid medium
4.
Positive results in this test shows web like structure.
a)
Hanging drop method
b)
Semi-solid medium
5.
All of the following are flagellar stains EXCEPT;
a)
Leifson Stain
b)
Schaeffer and Fulton stain
c)
Gray Stain
d)
Fisher and Conn stain
6.
most commonly used stain on spores
a)
Schaeffer and Fulton Stain
b)
India Ink
c)
Fisher and Conn Stain
d)
Leifson stain
7.
used to stain capsules
a)
Schaeffer and Fulton Stain
b)
India Ink
c)
Fisher and Conn Stain
d)
Leifson stain
8.
From inorganic substances
a)
Lithotrophs
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Photoautotrophs
d)
Chemotrophs
9.
From organic substances like water, minerals, and salt
a)
Lithotrophs
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Photoautotrophs
d)
Chemotrophs
10.
(Energy source: Light): Photosynthetic bacteria, cyanobacteria
a)
Lithotrophs
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Photoautotrophs
d)
Chemotrophs
11.
Organisms that use energy produced by oxidation of organic or inorganic compounds
a)
Lithotrophs
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Photoautotrophs
d)
Chemotrophs
12.
Reduce inorganic molecules
a)
Lithotrophs
b)
Heterotrophs
c)
Photoautotrophs
d)
Chemotrophs
13.
use CO2 as the sole source of Carbon by reducing it
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Photoautotrophs
c)
Heterotrophs
14.
Use reduced, preformed, organic molecules from other bacteria
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Photoautotrophs
c)
Heterotrophs
15.
(Energy source: Light): Purple non-sulfur bacteria, Green non-sulfur bacteria
a)
Photoheterotrophs
b)
Chemotrophs
16.
Organisms that use energy produced by oxidation of organic or inorganic compounds
a)
Photoheterotrophs
b)
Chemotrophs
17.
Require organic substances (CHO, CHON, Lipids) for growth and multiplication; all bacteria that inhabit the human body fall into this group
a)
Lithotrophs
b)
Organotrophs
18.
Is an organism that require oxygen and grow well in room air.
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
19.
• Air contains 15-21% oxygen and 1% CO2.
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
20.
• Bordetella, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Pseudomonas
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
21.
Organism that strictly does not require the presence of Oxygen; die in the presence of Oxygen
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
22.
• Clostridium, Bacteriodes
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
23.
• The most clinically significant organism.
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
24.
• Organism that grows either in the presence or absence of oxygen – aerobes which can grow anaerobically.
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
25.
• Organism that do not require oxygen but grow better in the presence of oxygen.
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
26.
• Routinely cultured in an aerobic atmosphere - because aerobic culture is easier and less expensive than anaerobic culture
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
27.
• contain protective enzymes against the toxic effect of oxygen: oSuperoxide Dismutase (SOD) oCatalase
a)
Obligate/Strict Aerobe
b)
Obligate Anaerobe
c)
Facultative Anaerobe
28.
• Organism that can survive in the presence of oxygen but will not be able to perform metabolic processes unless placed in an anaerobic environment
a)
Aerotolerant
b)
Microaerophile
c)
Capnophilic
29.
• Examples: Cutibacterium, Lactobacillus, Clostridium perfringens
a)
Aerotolerant
b)
Microaerophile
c)
Capnophilic
30.
Organism that requires 2-10% oxygen for growth.
a)
Aerotolerant
b)
Microaerophile
c)
Capnophilic
31.
Examples: Campylobacter, Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum, Helicobacter pylori
a)
Aerotolerant
b)
Microaerophile
c)
Capnophilic
32.
Require 5-10% CO2
a)
Aerotolerant
b)
Microaerophile
c)
Capnophilic
33.
Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
a)
Aerotolerant
b)
Microaerophile
c)
Capnophilic
34.
Requires 21% O2 and .03% CO2
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
35.
Neisseria spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
36.
Branhamella spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
37.
Brucella spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
38.
Bordetella spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
39.
Pseudomonas spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
40.
Mycobacteria spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
41.
Requires 0% O2, 5 to 10% Nitrogen with 80-90% concentration and 5 to 10% CO2. This organism also do not have catalase and superoxide dismutase.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
42.
Bacteroides spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
43.
Clostridium spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
44.
Can grow and perform metabolic activities in the presence and absence of oxygen. Also, this organism contain superoxide dismutase and catalase
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
45.
Staphylococcus spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
46.
Streptococcus spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
47.
Enterobacteriaceae
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Obligate anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
48.
Can survive in the presence of oxygen.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
49.
Lactobacillus acidophilus
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
50.
Cutibacterium spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
51.
Requires 5 to 10% O2 and 8 to 10% CO2
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
52.
Requires 15% oxygen and 5 to 10% CO2
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
53.
Neisseria spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
54.
HACEK group.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
55.
Campylobacter spp.
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
56.
Helicobacter pylori
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
57.
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
58.
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
a)
Obligate aerobes
b)
Aerotolerant anaerobes
c)
Facultative anaerobes
d)
Microaerophile
e)
Capnophile
59.
§ Grows well at 0°C to a maximum of 20°C.
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
60.
Can withstand temperature <10% degree Celsius
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
61.
§ Examples: Listeria monocytogenes, Yersinia enterocolitica, Pseudomonas syringae
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
62.
§ Grows between 20°-45°C.
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
63.
most pathogenic bacteria are..
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
64.
§ The commonly encountered pathogenic bacteria in the clinical laboratory.
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
65.
50 to 55 degree Celsius or more..
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
66.
moderate temperature
a)
20 to 42 degree Celsius
b)
30 to 37 degree Celsius
c)
35 to 37 degree Celsius
67.
ideal temperature for the growth of bacteria
a)
20 to 42 degree Celsius
b)
30 to 37 degree Celsius
c)
35 to 37 degree Celsius
68.
most pathogenic organisms temp.
a)
20 to 42 degree Celsius
b)
30 to 37 degree Celsius
c)
35 to 37 degree Celsius
69.
§ Grows between 50° to 60°C
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
70.
§ Examples: Geobacillus stearothermophilus, Sulfolobus, Pyrococcus, Pyrodictium, Thermus aquaticus, Alicyclobacillus
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
d)
Extremophile
71.
Prokaryotes that are able to live at unusual conditions like absence of oxygen, increased temperature and below earth’s surface
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
d)
Extremophile
72.
Bacillus infernus – Strict Anaerobe
a)
Psycrophilic/cryophilic
b)
Mesophilic
c)
Thermophilic
d)
Extremophile
73.
Ideal pH for the growth of bacteria
a)
6.5 to 7.5
b)
<3
c)
5 to 10
d)
<6
74.
pH of acidophile
a)
6.5 to 7.5
b)
<3
c)
5 to 10
d)
<6
75.
pH of alkalophile
a)
6.5 to 7.5
b)
<3
c)
5 to 10
d)
<6
76.
pH that helps maintain growth of Lactobacillus acidophilus
a)
6.5 to 7.5
b)
<3
c)
5 to 10
d)
<6
77.
little or no multiplication
a)
Lag phase
b)
Log or exponential phase
c)
Stationary or plateu phase
d)
Death or decline phase
78.
period of adjustment
a)
Lag phase
b)
Log or exponential phase
c)
Stationary or plateu phase
d)
Death or decline phase
79.
organisms grow at maximum rate
a)
Lag phase
b)
Log or exponential phase
c)
Stationary or plateu phase
d)
Death or decline phase
80.
target of antibiotics
a)
Lag phase
b)
Log or exponential phase
c)
Stationary or plateu phase
d)
Death or decline phase
81.
growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated
a)
Lag phase
b)
Log or exponential phase
c)
Stationary or plateu phase
d)
Death or decline phase
82.
viable count decrease. more death than living organisms.
a)
Lag phase
b)
Log or exponential phase
c)
Stationary or plateu phase
d)
Death or decline phase
83.
Most effective method of sterilization
a)
Moist heat
b)
Autoclave
c)
Fractional
d)
Tyndallization
e)
Inspissation
84.
alternate heating (kills vegetative cells), incubation (spores germinate), heating (kills remaining vegetative cells and spores)
a)
Moist heat
b)
Autoclave
c)
Fractional
d)
Tyndallization
e)
Inspissation
85.
autoclave sterilization temp. to eliminate spores (doesn't kill prions)
a)
121 degree Celsius 15 psi for 15 minutes
b)
132 degree Celsius 15 psi for 30 mins
c)
100 degree Celsius for 30 mins for 30 mins for 3 successive days
d)
75 to 80 degree Celsius for 2 hours for 3 successive days
86.
autoclave sterilization temp which eliminates prions as well.
a)
121 degree Celsius 15 psi for 15 minutes
b)
132 degree Celsius 15 psi for 30 mins
c)
100 degree Celsius for 30 mins for 30 mins for 3 successive days
d)
75 to 80 degree Celsius for 2 hours for 3 successive days
87.
tyndallization temp.
a)
121 degree Celsius 15 psi for 15 minutes
b)
132 degree Celsius 15 psi for 30 mins
c)
100 degree Celsius for 30 mins for 30 mins for 3 successive days
d)
75 to 80 degree Celsius for 2 hours for 3 successive days
88.
inspissation temp.
a)
121 degree Celsius 15 psi for 15 minutes
b)
132 degree Celsius 15 psi for 30 mins
c)
100 degree Celsius for 30 mins for 30 mins for 3 successive days
d)
75 to 80 degree Celsius for 2 hours for 3 successive days
89.
Kills by oxidation
a)
Dry Heat
b)
Flame
c)
Oven
d)
Incineration
e)
Moist heat
90.
to sterilize inoculating loops and needles
a)
Dry Heat
b)
Flame
c)
Oven
d)
Incineration
e)
Moist heat
91.
for glasswares, certain metals, oils, petroleum, or powders.
a)
Dry Heat
b)
Flame
c)
Oven
d)
Incineration
e)
Moist heat
92.
Most common method of treating infectious waste
a)
Dry Heat
b)
Flame
c)
Oven
d)
Incineration
e)
Moist heat
93.
980 to 1,200 degree Celsius
a)
Dry Heat
b)
Flame
c)
Oven
d)
Incineration
e)
Moist heat
94.
100 to 180 degree Celsius for 1 hour and 30 minutes up to 2 hours.
a)
Dry Heat
b)
Flame
c)
Oven
d)
Incineration
e)
Moist heat
95.
accomplished using HEPA to remove organisms larger than 0.3 um from isolation rooms, operating rooms, and biologic safety cabinets
a)
Filtration
b)
Ionizing radiation
96.
Plastic, syringes, catheter, or gloves. Short wavelength, high energy. Uses gamma rays
a)
Filtration
b)
Ionizing radiation
c)
Non ionizing radiation
97.
Most common chemical sterilant
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde vapour and vapour phase hydrogen peroxide
c)
Glutaraldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid
98.
Uses the principle of cold sterilization and is used for materials which cannot be autoclaved. (strict requirements of concentration)
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde vapour and vapour phase hydrogen peroxide
c)
Glutaraldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid
99.
sterilizes HEPA filters in BSCs; may be disinfectant or sterilant
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde vapour and vapour phase hydrogen peroxide
c)
Glutaraldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid
100.
sterilizes HEPA filters in BSCs; may be disinfectant or sterilant
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde vapour and vapour phase hydrogen peroxide
c)
Glutaraldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid
101.
Uses principle of cold sterilization; sporicidal in 3 to 10 hours and used in medical equipment such as bronchoscopes because it does not corrode rubber, lenses, or metal
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde vapour and vapour phase hydrogen peroxide
c)
Glutaraldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid
102.
Uses principle of cold sterilization; effective in the presence of organic material. Used in surface sterilization of surgical instruments
a)
Ethylene oxide
b)
Formaldehyde vapour and vapour phase hydrogen peroxide
c)
Glutaraldehyde
d)
Peracetic acid
103.
Dry heat indicator
a)
Bacillus pumilis
b)
Bacillus subtilis var. globigii
c)
Bacillus subtilis var. niger
d)
Bacillus stearothermophilus
104.
ETO QC
a)
Bacillus pumilis
b)
Bacillus subtilis var. globigii
c)
Bacillus subtilis var. niger
d)
Bacillus stearothermophilus
105.
Ionizing radiation QC
a)
Bacillus pumilis
b)
Bacillus subtilis var. globigii
c)
Bacillus subtilis var. niger
d)
Bacillus stearothermophilus
106.
Autoclave QC
a)
Bacillus pumilis
b)
Bacillus subtilis var. globigii
c)
Bacillus subtilis var. niger
d)
Bacillus stearothermophilus
107.
100 degree Celsius for 10 to 15 mins
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Batch method
d)
Flash method
e)
Non-ionizing radiatiion
108.
used mostly in the food industry, eliminates food-borne pathogens and organisms responsible for food spoilage.
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Batch method
d)
Flash method
e)
Non-ionizing radiatiion
109.
68 C 30 mins
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Batch method
d)
Flash method
e)
Non-ionizing radiatiion
110.
72 C 15 seconds
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Batch method
d)
Flash method
e)
Non-ionizing radiatiion
111.
long wavelength and low energy. Do not penetrate well and organisms must have direct surface exposure, such as the working surface of a BSC for this form of disinfection to work.
a)
Boiling
b)
Pasteurization
c)
Batch method
d)
Flash method
e)
Non-ionizing radiatiion
112.
Batch method
a)
65 degree Celsius for 30 mins
b)
72 degree Celsius for 15 seconds
113.
Flash method
a)
65 degree Celsius for 30 mins
b)
72 degree Celsius for 15 seconds
114.
used in non-living things
a)
Disinfectant
b)
Antiseptic
115.
used in living things
a)
Disinfectant
b)
Antiseptic
116.
nonsporicidal and evaporates quickly. ideal concentration is 70%.
a)
Alcohol
b)
Aldehyde
c)
Halogen
d)
Heavy metals
117.
95% concentration of this substance is highly volatile. therefore, 70% concentration of this substance along with 30% water is recommended to break hydrogen bonds.
a)
Alcohol
b)
Aldehyde
c)
Halogen
d)
Heavy metals
118.
toxic to humans
a)
Alcohol
b)
Aldehyde
c)
Halogen
d)
Heavy metals
119.
iodine and chlorine
a)
Alcohol
b)
Aldehyde
c)
Halogen
d)
Heavy metals
120.
copper, silver,, and mercury
a)
Alcohol
b)
Aldehyde
c)
Halogen
d)
Heavy metals
121.
toxic to the environment and not recommended for use
a)
copper
b)
silver
c)
mercury
d)
erythromycin
122.
part of the prophylaxis for opthalmia neonatorum caused by Neisseria; obsolete already
a)
copper
b)
silver
c)
mercury
d)
erythromycin
123.
used for treating opthalmia neonatorum in the present.
a)
copper
b)
silver
c)
mercury
d)
erythromycin
124.
70% alcohol followed by an __ is the most common compound used for skin disinfection before drawing blood specimens for culture and surgery
a)
Alcohol
b)
chlorine
c)
iodophor
d)
Heavy metals
125.
most often used in the form of sodium chloride or household bleach
a)
Alcohol
b)
chlorine
c)
iodophor
d)
Heavy metals
126.
formaldehyde concentration
a)
8%
b)
2%
127.
glutaraldehyde concentration
a)
8%
b)
2%
128.
benzalkonium chloride (zephiran); low toxicitym, used to disinfect bench tops or other surfaces in the laboratory. inactivated by inorganic matter.
a)
QUATS
b)
Phenolics
129.
standard of disinfection
a)
QUATS
b)
Phenolics
130.
disinfectant is better than phenol
a)
Phenol coefficient
b)
PC > 1
c)
PC <1
d)
PC =1
131.
phenol is better than disinfectant
a)
Phenol coefficient
b)
PC > 1
c)
PC <1
d)
PC =1
132.
same efficacy
a)
Phenol coefficient
b)
PC > 1
c)
PC <1
d)
PC =1
133.
expression of the bactericidal power of a particular substance as compared to pure phenol; lowest concentration that inhibit bacterial growth
a)
Phenol coefficient
b)
PC > 1
c)
PC <1
d)
PC =1
134.
Micrococcus
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
135.
Staphylococcus
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
136.
Streptococcus
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
137.
Peptococcus
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
138.
Sarcina
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
139.
Neisseria
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
140.
Branhamella
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
141.
Moraxella
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
142.
Veilonella
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
143.
Corynebacterium
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
144.
Listeria
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
145.
Mycobacteria
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
146.
Enterobacteriaceae
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
147.
Fusobacterium
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
148.
Bacteroides
a)
Cocci
b)
Bacilli
149.
Micrococcus
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
150.
Streptococcus
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
151.
Staphylococcus
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
152.
Peptococcus
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
153.
Sarcina
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
154.
Neisseria
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
155.
Branhamella
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
156.
Moraxella
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
157.
Veilonella
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
158.
Corynebacterium
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
159.
Listeria
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
160.
Bacillus
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
161.
Actinomyces
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
162.
Clostridium
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
163.
Propionibacterium
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
164.
Mycobacterium
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
165.
ENterobacteriaceae
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
166.
Fusobacterium
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
167.
Bacteroides
a)
Gram-positive
b)
Gram-negative
168.
Micrococcus
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
169.
Staphylococcus
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
170.
Streptococcus
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
171.
Peptococcus
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
172.
Sarcina
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
173.
Neisseria
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
174.
Branhamella
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
175.
Veilonella
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
176.
Bacillus
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
177.
Corynebacterium
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
178.
Listeria
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
179.
Mycobacteria
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
180.
Actinomyces
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
181.
Clostridium
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
182.
Nocardia
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
183.
Fusobacterium
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
184.
Bacteroides
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
185.
Enterobacteriaceae
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic