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Basic Nursing Book Ch. 26 and 88 Digestive System and Disorder

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CHAPTER 26:

The nurse is reviewing with a client the digestive pathway. The nurse asks the client to place the steps in the correct sequence. Which is correct?

  1. 1. The physical breakdown of food is accomplished by the process of mastication.
    2. The chemical breakdown of food occurs by the release of various enzymes.

    3. The process of churning the food takes place in the pylorus of the stomach.
    4. Absorption of the dissolved molecules occurs in the small intestine. The molecules are then taken into circulation.
    5. Dilution of the food entering the digestive tract is accomplished by water and various enzymes.

a)

1, 3, 2, 5, 4

b)

2, 4, 3, 5, 1

c)

3, 5, 2, 1, 4

d)

4, 2, 5, 1, 3

2.

What is the function of the salivary gland?

a)

It senses the temperature and texture of food and accordingly releases needed saliva.

b)

Its secretions are mixed with gastric juices and churned until it is in a semiliquid form called chyme.

c)

It stimulates contractions that results in continuation of the act of swallowing and pushes the food into the esophagus.

d)

Secretion helps in moistening the food, making it easier to swallow and preventing oral infections.

3.

What are functions of the incisor teeth? Select all that apply.

a)

Cut food

b)

Tear food

c)

Grind food

d)

Crush food

e)

Hold food

4.

Which statement describes the process of deglutition?

a)

Alternate contraction and relaxation of muscles that sends food down through the digestive tube

b)

Act of chewing

c)

Process of transferring broken-down food elements into the circulation for transport

d)

Process of swallowing

5.

Which client diagnosis will result in altered mastication?

a)

Broken jaw

b)

Gastric ulcer

c)

Strep throat

d)

Nut allergy

6.

Which statement about intrinsic factor is accurate?

a)

Stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

b)

Stimulates the pancreas to secrete enzymes and the gallbladder to release bile

c)

Produced by the parietal cells in the gastric mucosa

d)

Secreted by the duodenum and jejunum in response to the presence of fat in the duodenum

7.

What information about the process of digestion is important for the nurse to provide about gastrin? Select all that apply.

a)

Stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

b)

Stimulates the pancreas to secrete enzymes and the gallbladder to release bile

c)

Produced by the parietal cells in the gastric mucosa

d)

Secreted by the jejunum in response to the presence of fat in the duodenum

e)

It is required for the effective absorption of vitamin B12

8.

The client demonstrates understanding when stating that carbohydrates are broken down into what substances? Select all that apply.

a)

Glycerol

b)

Amino acid

c)

Glucose

d)

Galactose

e)

Fructose

9.

Damage to what structure of the tooth requires either a root canal procedure or removal of the tooth?

a)

Crown

b)

Pulp

c)

Dentin

d)

Root

10.

Which enzymes are responsible for facilitating the formation of proteins into amino acids? Select all that apply.

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin

c)

Maltase

d)

Lactose

e)

Chymotrypsin

11.

Which is vital to the body's proper metabolism?

a)

Stomach

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Pancreas

d)

Liver

12.

What statement concerning catabolism is correct?

a)

Sum total of all the changes, both physical and chemical, that occur within the body

b)

Amount of energy used by the body at rest

c)

Breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules

d)

Involves the synthesis of simpler substances to form new, organized substances

13.

What is a function of the pancreas?

a)

Secretes the hormones insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin into the bloodstream

b)

Stores fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, K) and iron

c)

Forms vitamin A; stores vitamin B complex

d)

Stores glucose as glycogen

14.

Which part of the colon absorbs about 80% of the body's water to help prevent dehydration?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Distal colon

c)

Proximal colon

d)

Large intestine

15.

What is an effect of aging on the digestive system?

a)

Food tends to stay in the stomach for a shorter period of time

b)

Nutrient absorption is increased due to reduction in the size of villi

c)

Older adults tend to have an inadequate fluid intake

d)

Peristalsis speeds up with age

16.

What physiological mechanism may lead to the development of heartburn?

a)

Inadequate closure of lower esophageal sphincter

b)

Improper relaxation of the internal anal sphincter

c)

Impaired closure of the ileocecal valve

d)

Partial relaxation of the pyloric sphincter

17.

What factor is known to decrease one's ability to taste?

a)

The client's stomach may be irritated.

b)

The client has a short frenulum.

c)

The client may be experiencing achalasia.

d)

The client may be a smoker.

18.

What response by the client indicates understanding of the cause of pernicious anemia?

a)

Lack of vitamin K causes pernicious anemia.

b)

Lack of vitamin B₁2 causes pernicious anemia.

c)

Lack of amino acids causes pernicious anemia.

d)

Lack of starch molecules causes pernicious anemia.

19.

The nurse is caring for a 3-month-old baby who has been diagnosed with pyloric stenosis. For which sign should a nurse assess?

a)

Projectile vomiting

b)

Milk regurgitation

c)

Swallowing problems

d)

Diarrhea

20.

What action occurs when bile is released by the gallbladder?

a)

Breakdown of protein

b)

Formation of urea

c)

Emulsification of fat

d)

Synthesis of immunoglobulin

21.

CHAPTER 88:

Which structures are considered accessory organs of digestion? Select all that apply.

a)

A.) Mouth B.) Anus

b)

Liver

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Stomach

e)

Pancreas

22.

For which client would a nurse who is an enterostomal therapist be consulted?

a)

A client with enterocolitis

b)

A client with a peptic ulcer

c)

A client with an ileostomy

d)

A client with pancreatitis

23.

The nurse is scheduling blood tests for a client suspected of having pancreatitis. Which test detects inflammation or disease of the pancreas, or obstruction of surrounding ducts?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triglyceride levels

d)

Serum amylase

24.

The nurse is preparing a client who is experiencing rectal bleeding for an occult blood test. Which test is the most inexpensive and simplest test used to detect occult blood in the stool?

a)

Hematest

b)

Culture and sensitivity study

c)

HemoQuant stool test

d)

Albumin test

25.

A client presents at the ER with signs and symptoms of gallstones. What test would be the preferred diagnostic tool to confirm this condition?

a)

Angiography

b)

Ultrasound

c)

Computed tomography

d)

Nuclear uptake scan

26.

A client has been prescribed polyethylene glycol 3350 and electrolytes oral solution before a barium study. What instruction should the nurse provide to this client regarding its method of use?

a)

Mix the solution thoroughly before drinking.

b)

Drink the solution in the evening and again in the morning.

c)

Drink the solution along with a glass of warm milk.

d)

Eat high-fiber foods the evening before the procedure.

27.

A client is scheduled for a cholecystogram to confirm the presence of gallstones. Which would the nurse instruct the client to do to prepare for this procedure?

a)

Eat foods rich in fat the night before the x-ray study.

b)

Take a radiopaque dye via an enema.

c)

Eat nothing for 12 hours after taking radiopaque dye.

d)

Continue smoking and chewing gum before the test, if desired.

28.

A nurse is preparing a client with severe gastrointestinal reflux disease (GERD) for a test to determine the extent of damage caused by the disorder. Which test should be ordered for this client?

a)

Cholecystogram

b)

Lower GI series

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

29.

A client is to undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. Before the procedure, what client education should the nurse provide?

a)

Procedure will be done under general anesthesia.

b)

Fullness and pressure may be felt in the stomach.

c)

Endoscopic tube may hinder normal breathing.

d)

Procedure will take 2 to 3 hours.

30.

The physician has ordered an endoscopic procedure for a client to directly visualize the stomach and duodenum for tumors. The nurse knows that which test should most likely be scheduled?

a)

Gastroscopy

b)

Esophagoscopy

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Sigmoidoscopy

31.

The nurse is preparing a client who is undergoing endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) to facilitate the passage of stones in the common bile duct. Which teaching point should the nurse provide this client?

a)

The procedure will be performed under general anesthesia.

b)

Oxygen will be given because the endoscope will hinder breathing.

c)

Avoid aspirin, ibuprofen, or anticoagulants 5 to 7 days before the test.

d)

The procedure will take 1 to 2 hours to perform.

32.

The nurse is caring for a client following a liver biopsy. Which postoperative intervention is recommended?

a)

Position the client on the left side.

b)

Apply pressure to the biopsied side for 4 to 6 hours.

c)

Take vital signs hourly for 24 hours.

d)

Observe the client for signs of dehydration.

33.

The nurse is caring for a client with a Levin GI suction tube. Which nursing care guideline is recommended for this type of tube?

a)

Irrigate tube frequently with small amounts of saline or air to keep it patent.

b)

Clear the air port with air to keep it open and keep the distal tip from the wall of the stomach.

c)

Provide nasotracheal suctioning because swallowing is impossible.

d)

Use a humidifier to keep the skin and secretions moist.

34.

The nurse is removing a nasogastric tube at the bedside of a client. Which steps are recommended for this procedure? Select all that apply.

a)

Clamp the tube before removal.

b)

Pull the tube harder if resistance is encountered.

c)

Ask the client to hold his or her breath when pulling out the tube.

d)

Pull out the tube slowly, and then quickly, when the client coughs.

e)

Place the tube in a towel and discard in appropriate receptacle.

35.

The nurse is providing nutrition for a postoperative client who has a normally functioning GI tract. Which would be the best form of nutrition for this client?

a)

Total parenteral nutrition

b)

Hyperalimentation

c)

Parenteral nutrition

d)

Enteral nutrition

36.

A client is undergoing bariatric surgery in the morning. The nurse reinforces the explanation that the procedure will design a smaller stomach to form a gastric pouch, and the pouch will then be connected directly to the jejunum (bypassing the rest of the stomach and the duodenum). The nurse is preparing the client for what type of bariatric surgery?

a)

Laparoscopic gastric band

b)

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass

c)

Vertical sleeve gastrectomy

d)

Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch

37.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Crohn disease who had surgery to create a continent bowel diversion. Which describes this type of surgery?

a)

The client's own tissues are formed into internal receptacles for stool.

b)

An opening is made into the colon and intestines are brought outside the body.

c)

An opening is made in the ileum and intestines are brought outside the body.

d)

A loop of intestine is brought through a stoma to allow for feces drainage.

38.

A client has undergone a colostomy and is wearing an ostomy pouch at the beltline. What information should the nurse include in the client education?

a)

Avoid lifting heavy weights for about 2 months.

b)

Avoid lifting weights heavier than 10 pounds.

c)

Avoid swimming and taking a shower.

d)

Avoid drinking Gatorade and broth.

39.

Which client would the nurse monitor for stomatitis?

a)

A client diagnosed with diabetes

b)

A client diagnosed with kidney failure

c)

A client undergoing a bone marrow transplant

d)

A client diagnosed with emphysema

40.

What nursing care measure should the nurse provide for a client who has developed oral canker sores?

a)

Add iodized salt to the client's diet.

b)

Ask the client to apply a silver nitrate stick, as ordered.

c)

Ask the client to chew a few peanuts several times a day.

d)

Provide nasogastric tube feedings to let the mouth rest.

41.

The nurse is providing teaching for a client diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which guideline is recommended to help relieve the symptoms of this disorder? Select all that apply.

a)

Elevate the head of the bed.

b)

Avoid lying down for at least 2 hours after meals.

c)

Eat fewer, but larger meals.

d)

Stop smoking

e)

Do not wear tight belts or waistbands.

42.

What should the nurse include in the diet of a client diagnosed with a peptic ulcer?

a)

Fresh fruits

b)

Milk

c)

Popcorn

d)

Coffee

43.

A client has been diagnosed with a functional obstruction of the intestine. Which type of obstructions is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Volvulus

b)

Paralytic ileus

c)

Stenosis

d)

Intussusception

44.

Which disorder is the most common functional disorder of the GI tract, causing increased motility of the small or large intestine?

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Irritable bowel syndrome

d)

Ulcerative colitis

45.

A client with a family history of ulcerative colitis is to undergo a screening test for early detection of colon cancer. In what group is colon cancer more common?

a)

Clients who have frequent diarrhea

b)

Clients between the age of 30 and 35

c)

Clients who consume a low-calorie diet

d)

Clients who show monilial patches on the tongue

46.

A morbidly obese client is diagnosed with hepatitis. What intervention should the nurse implement when caring for the client?

a)

Encourage intake of large amounts of water

b)

Suggest high-intensity exercise on alternate days

c)

Keep the head of the bed parallel to the floor

d)

Have the client wear rubber-soled shoes

47.

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. What sign and symptom noticed during nursing assessment indicates a potential hemorrhagic complication?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Hard and tender abdomen

d)

Coffee ground vomitus

48.

A nurse is caring for a client being treated for spastic colitis. What sign and symptom should be reported to the physician for further evaluation?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Flatulence

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Fever

49.

A nurse is caring for a female client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. What would the nurse observe during the nursing assessment of the client?

a)

Menorrhagia

b)

Rapid pulse

c)

Alopecia

d)

Hypertension