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Basic and General Insurance

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is insurance? _________

a)

Transfer of the possibility of loss (risk) to an insurance company.

b)

A way to increase your income quickly.

c)

A method to avoid paying taxes.

d)

A process to guarantee profits in business.

2.

What is a risk? _________.

a)

The uncertainty of financial loss.

b)

A guaranteed way to make profit.

c)

A type of insurance policy.

d)

A fixed interest rate.

3.

What are the two types of loss? _________

a)

Pure and Speculative

b)

Direct and Indirect

c)

Physical and Emotional

d)

Temporary and Permanent

4.

Which risk is insurable? Pure Why? _________

a)

Loss must be financial and uncertain. No financial gain can occur.

b)

Loss must be certain and profitable.

c)

Risk must be speculative and controllable.

d)

Only risks with guaranteed outcomes are insurable.

5.

What causes a loss? _________.

a)

Peril; such as fire, accident or flood.

b)

Profit from investments.

c)

Increase in property value.

d)

Government regulations.

6.

What causes a peril? ________. What is a hazard? _________.

a)

A hazard. Increases the likelihood of a loss; such as smoking.

b)

A peril. Reduces the risk of loss; such as insurance.

c)

A hazard. Eliminates all risks; such as safety measures.

d)

A peril. Prevents losses from occurring; such as fire alarms.

7.

What are the 6 elements that make pure risk insurable?

a)

Loss must be due to chance, Loss must be definite and measurable, Loss must be statistically predictable, Loss cannot be catastrophic, Loss exposure must be large and insurance must not be mandatory.

b)

Loss must be intentional, Loss must be immeasurable, Loss must be unpredictable, Loss can be catastrophic, Loss exposure must be small and insurance must be mandatory.

c)

Loss must be due to certainty, Loss must be indefinite and immeasurable, Loss must be unpredictable, Loss can be catastrophic, Loss exposure must be small and insurance must be optional.

d)

Loss must be due to chance, Loss must be indefinite and immeasurable, Loss must be unpredictable, Loss can be catastrophic, Loss exposure must be small and insurance must be mandatory.

8.

What is meant by loss cannot be catastrophic? _________

a)

Certain types of perils are unpredictable and thus uninsurable; such as war, nuclear risk and floods.

b)

It refers to losses that are always covered by insurance.

c)

It means all losses are predictable and insurable.

d)

It describes losses that are always minor and insignificant.

9.

What is the concept called that predicts the appropriate number of deaths that should occur within a similar group of people (exposure) within a given period of time?

a)

Law of Large Numbers

b)

Central Limit Theorem

c)

Regression to the Mean

d)

Survivorship Bias

10.

What is adverse selection? _________

a)

People in bad health keep their policy in force longer than people in good health.

b)

Insurance companies always make a profit regardless of claims.

c)

Only healthy people apply for insurance coverage.

d)

Adverse selection is when premiums are always lower than claims paid.

11.

Why do people buy life insurance? _________

a)

Survivor Protection, Estate Creation, Viatical Settlements

b)

To avoid paying taxes, To increase debt, To reduce income

c)

For entertainment purposes, For travel discounts, For shopping rewards

d)

To avoid medical checkups, To get free vacations, To lower car insurance

12.

What is a viatical settlement? _________

a)

Allows someone living with a life threatening condition to sell their existing life insurance policy and use the proceeds when and where the need it most needed, before death. The policyowner sells it for a percentage of the face value.

b)

A type of annuity that guarantees income for life regardless of how long the annuitant lives.

c)

A loan taken against the cash value of a life insurance policy, to be repaid with interest.

d)

A settlement option where the beneficiary receives the death benefit in installments over a period of time.

13.

What would the beneficiary receive upon the death?

a)

Nothing

b)

A lifetime supply of groceries

c)

A vacation package

d)

A new car

14.

As an agent, you are the legal representative of the _________

a)

company

b)

employee

c)

customer

d)

government

15.

The person who pays for the policy of insurance is the _________.

a)

policyowner

b)

beneficiary

c)

agent

d)

underwriter

16.

The person covered by the insurance policy is the _________

a)

insured

b)

insurer

c)

agent

d)

beneficiary

17.

The insurance company is the _________

a)

insurer

b)

policyholder

c)

beneficiary

d)

agent

18.

To buy insurance, the policyowner must have ________ in the insured at the time of purchase but not at time of insured’s death.

a)

insurable interest

b)

beneficiary status

c)

financial obligation

d)

ownership rights

19.

The recognized areas of insurable interest are 1. ________, 2. ________, 3. ________, 4. ________, 5. ________.

a)

1. your own life, 2. family members, 3. business partners, 4. key employee, 5. financial obligation

b)

1. your own life, 2. friends, 3. business partners, 4. key employee, 5. property damage

c)

1. your own life, 2. family members, 3. business partners, 4. property, 5. accidental loss

d)

1. your own life, 2. family members, 3. business partners, 4. key employee, 5. travel insurance

20.

When determining life insurance needs using the Needs Approach, what is taken into consideration?

a)

Final Expenses, Housing Education, Monthly Income and Emergency Fund.

b)

Only the policyholder's age and gender.

c)

The current value of the policyholder's car.

d)

The hobbies and interests of the policyholder.

21.

What are the business uses of life insurance?

a)

Buy-Sell funding, Key Person and Executive Bonus.

b)

Retirement planning, Health insurance, and Auto insurance.

c)

Home loan repayment, Travel insurance, and Pet insurance.

d)

Vacation funding, Grocery shopping, and Movie tickets.

22.

A company with an employee who could not be replaced without considerable expense might consider buying a ________ on that individual.

a)

key employee life insurance policy

b)

group health insurance plan

c)

property insurance policy

d)

general liability insurance

23.

________ are owned by the policyowner and ________ are owned by the shareholder.

a)

Mutual Companies; Stock Companies

b)

Stock Companies; Mutual Companies

c)

Insurance Agents; Policyholders

d)

Underwriters; Brokers

24.

An ________ insurance company is admitted to do business in a state.

a)

authorized

b)

alien

c)

domestic

d)

foreign

25.

The three types of incorporation are: ________, ________, and ________.

a)

domestic (in the state), foreign (outside the state) and alien (outside the US)

b)

public, private, and nonprofit

c)

general, limited, and special

d)

corporate, partnership, and sole proprietorship

26.

The financial status of insurance companies is rated by: ________.

a)

AM Best, Fitch, Standard and Poors, Moody’s and Weiss.

b)

FDIC, SEC, FINRA, and OCC.

c)

IRS, Treasury, and Federal Reserve.

d)

World Bank, IMF, and WTO.

27.

What is a contract?

a)

An agreement between two or more parties.

b)

A type of currency used in trade.

c)

A document for recording weather data.

d)

A tool used for measuring distance.

28.

What are the 4 elements of a contract?

a)

Offer and Acceptance, 2) Consideration, 3) Legal Purpose, 4) Competent Parties.

b)

Offer and Acceptance, 2) Written Agreement, 3) Legal Purpose, 4) Witnesses.

c)

Offer and Acceptance, 2) Consideration, 3) Mutual Friends, 4) Competent Parties.

d)

Offer and Acceptance, 2) Consideration, 3) Legal Purpose, 4) Government Approval.

29.

The applicant’s consideration consists of _________. The insurance company’s consideration is the promise to pay contained in the policy.

a)

premium and statements on the application

b)

the insurance company’s assets

c)

the agent’s commission

d)

the policy’s expiration date

30.

Parties to a contract are required to be _________

a)

competent, of legal age, sane, and sober

b)

minors, insane, and intoxicated

c)

unaware of the contract terms

d)

not present at the time of agreement

31.

What does offer and counter-offer mean?

a)

Offer made by the applicant with application and acceptance of policy; counter-offer is the company offering an insurance policy with higher premiums due to the increase risk of the applicant.

b)

Offer is the payment of premiums; counter-offer is the rejection of the policy by the applicant.

c)

Offer is the cancellation of a policy; counter-offer is the refund of premiums.

d)

Offer is the claim made by the insured; counter-offer is the denial of the claim by the insurer.

32.

What are the Distinct Characteristics of a Legal Contract?

a)

Contract of Adhesion, Personal Contract, Unilateral Contract and Conditional Contract.

b)

Contract of Guarantee, Contract of Sale, Contract of Lease and Contract of Agency.

c)

Contract of Partnership, Contract of Employment, Contract of Bailment and Contract of Indemnity.

d)

Contract of Assignment, Contract of Novation, Contract of Subrogation and Contract of Rescission.

33.

Insurance contracts are ________ because only one party, the insurance company, makes any legally enforceable promises.

a)

unilateral

b)

bilateral

c)

reciprocal

d)

mutual

34.

What are the legal interpretations affecting contracts?

a)

Ambiguities in a Contract of Adhesion, Reasonable Expectations, Indemnity, Utmost Good Faith and Statements of the Insured.

b)

Contractual Capacity, Offer and Acceptance, Consideration, Legal Purpose.

c)

Breach of Contract, Damages, Specific Performance, Rescission.

d)

Assignment, Novation, Accord and Satisfaction, Waiver.

35.

What is reasonable expectation?

a)

Some coverage’s must be provided by the insurance company, even though they are not specifically stated in the policy.

b)

It is the amount of premium paid for an insurance policy.

c)

It refers to the maximum claim amount allowed by the insurer.

d)

It is the period during which the policyholder can cancel the policy without penalty.

36.

What is it called when both parties are trusted to reveal relevant facts?

a)

Utmost Good Faith

b)

Adverse Selection

c)

Moral Hazard

d)

Indemnity

37.

A warranty is the literal or absolute truth.

a)

warranty

b)

guarantee

c)

promise

d)

assumption

38.

Representations are statements made by an applicant that are true to the best of his/her knowledge. ________ is a false statement given to the insurer with the intent to defraud.

a)

Misrepresentation

b)

Disclosure

c)

Warranty

d)

Indemnity

39.

What is it called when an applicant fails to disclose known material facts?

a)

Concealment

b)

Disclosure

c)

Misrepresentation

d)

Notification

40.

What authority is granted in means of the agent’s contract?

a)

Expressed

b)

Implied

c)

Apparent

d)

Customary

41.

What is it called when someone deliberately conceals or misrepresents a material truth on an application?

a)

Fraud

b)

Negligence

c)

Omission

d)

Error

42.

Which kind of authority not expressly granted but which the agent is assumed to have authority in order to transact business?

a)

Implied

b)

Express

c)

Apparent

d)

Customary

43.

What kind of authority is the appearance of, the assumption of; because of the circumstances the principle created?

a)

Apparent (apparently there is a relationship between the agent and the insurance company). Business cards.

b)

Express (clearly stated in the contract).

c)

Implied (authority that is not expressly granted, but is assumed to be granted).

d)

Ostensible (authority that a third party is led to believe exists).

44.

What is a person called who hold a position of special trust and confidence?

a)

Fiduciary

b)

Beneficiary

c)

Agent

d)

Trustor

45.

Waiver is when you voluntarily give up your legal right. ________ is when you are denied the right to enforce a legal right that you have previously given up.

a)

Estoppel AKA The Loss of Defense

b)

Assignment

c)

Novation

d)

Consideration

46.

The basic source of information used in the company’s risk selection process is the ________.

a)

application

b)

balance sheet

c)

audit report

d)

insurance policy

47.

The agent (producer), applicant and the policyowner must sign the application. You can never use ________ to change an application. The agent is the ________.

a)

white out; field underwriter

b)

eraser; policyholder

c)

pencil; beneficiary

d)

marker; insurer

48.

Information received from the applicant’s private physician is known as an ________.

a)

attending physicians report

b)

insurance summary

c)

medical claim form

d)

patient authorization

49.

A ________ is completed by a paramedic or registered nurse for small amounts of insurance and for applicants with no prior medical concern.

a)

Paramedical report

b)

Attending physician's statement

c)

Underwriting summary

d)

Medical examiner's report

50.

The medical information bureau (MIB) receives and maintains medical information from insurance companies. Allows companies to compare information they have collected on potential insured. Protects the company from ________.

a)

adverse selection

b)

over-insurance

c)

policy lapse

d)

premium inflation

51.

Mutual Companies are owned by

a)

Stockholders

b)

Policyowners

c)

Insurers

d)

Board of Trustees

52.

If an emergency fund is set up in the needs approach. What should it be used for:

a)

Unexpected Expenses

b)

Mortgage

c)

School Expenses

d)

Debt

53.

When must insurable interest exist?

a)

Death of the insured

b)

Policy delivery date

c)

Policy issue date

d)

Date of the application

54.

Two business partners own life insurance on each other. If one partner dies, which of the following contracts will allow the surviving partner to use the death benefit to purchase the deceased’s business interests?

a)

Buy-Sell Agreement

b)

Key employee life insurance

c)

Survivorship life insurance

d)

Joint and Survivorship annuity

55.

Which is not an element of a legal contract?

a)

Offer and Acceptance

b)

Consideration

c)

Competent Parties

d)

Unilateral

56.

An insurance company doing business in this state must operate under

a)

An advisory board

b)

A resident board of directors

c)

A certificate of authority

d)

Articles of incorporation filed with the Secretary of State

57.

ABC Insurance Company is incorporated in Georgia but is doing business in Texas, it is

a)

A domestic insurer

b)

A foreign insurer

c)

An alien insurer

d)

An export insurer

58.

All the following would have an insurable interest in an insured EXCEPT:

a)

Your spouse

b)

Your child

c)

Your mother

d)

Your close friend

59.

An Agent’s actions or deeds show what kind of authority

a)

Expressed

b)

Agent

c)

Implied

d)

Apparent

60.

Investigative Consumer Reports are used to investigate an applicant in all the following areas EXCEPT:

a)

Hobbies

b)

Habits

c)

Employment

d)

Place of residency

61.

What is the period called during which a policyholder can still be covered even if the premium is not paid, as per the Grace Period provision?

a)

30/31 days

b)

7 days

c)

15 days

d)

60 days

62.

Which clause allows the policy owner to make the policy 'right' and adjust the face amount in case of misstatement?

a)

Misstatement of Age and Sex

b)

Incontestability Clause

c)

Suicide Clause

d)

Grace Period Clause

63.

How many days does a company promise to pay claims after the death of the insured, according to the Payment of Claims provision?

a)

Within 30 days

b)

Within 10 days

c)

Within 60 days

d)

Within 90 days

64.

Which of the following is NOT a required provision in a life insurance policy?

a)

Grace Period

b)

Reinstatement Clause

c)

Aviation Clause

d)

Incontestable Clause

65.

What is the time limit for a policyholder to contest the death benefit under the Incontestable Clause?

a)

2 years

b)

1 year

c)

5 years

d)

10 years

66.

Which rider provides coverage for additional insureds such as spouse or children?

a)

Riders covering additional insureds

b)

Waiver of premium rider

c)

Accidental death benefit rider

d)

Guaranteed insurability rider

67.

The Spendthrift Clause allows creditors of the insured to go after the beneficiary's death benefit.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Which clause allows the policy owner to assign ownership of the policy either permanently or temporarily?

a)

Assignment Clause

b)

Incontestability Clause

c)

Suicide Clause

d)

Reinstatement Clause

69.

What is the main purpose of the Medical Examination provision in a life insurance policy?

a)

To require a medical examination for the insured as part of the policy process.

b)

To provide a discount on premiums for healthy applicants.

c)

To waive all future premiums for the insured.

d)

To guarantee acceptance regardless of health status.

70.

Which option allows choices on how to distribute a sum of money from a life insurance policy?

a)

Options (such as Policy Loans, Nonforfeiture Options, Dividends and dividend options)

b)

Premium Payment Frequency

c)

Grace Period Provision

d)

Incontestability Clause

71.

What is the main purpose of an Accelerated (Living) Benefit Provisions Rider in a life insurance policy?

a)

To provide early payment if the insured is diagnosed with a specified catastrophic illness

b)

To increase the face value of the policy

c)

To waive premiums if the insured becomes disabled

d)

To add children to the policy

72.

Which rider allows for the addition of a spouse for a limited time and limited coverage, usually expiring when the spouse turns 65?

a)

Children’s Term Rider

b)

Spouse/Other Insured Term Rider

c)

Family Term Rider

d)

Accidental Death Rider

73.

The Children’s Term Rider allows for the addition of children for a limited time and limited amount, usually until age ___.

a)

18

b)

21

c)

25

d)

16

74.

Which rider incorporates spouse and children into one rider?

a)

Family Term Rider

b)

Waiver of Premium

c)

Guaranteed Insurability

d)

Return of Premium

75.

Accidental Death Rider usually pays double or triple indemnity if accidental death occurs as defined in the policy.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Guaranteed Insurability Rider allows for the purchase of additional insurance at specified times without evidence of insurability.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

The Return of Premium rider usually expires at a specific age, such as ___.

a)

60

b)

35

c)

45

d)

75

78.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Waiver of Premium rider?

a)

Waives premium if insured becomes totally disabled

b)

6 month waiting period before benefit begins

c)

Waives the cost of premiums to accumulate cash value

d)

Expires at age 65

79.

Disability Income Benefit rider pays a weekly or monthly income to the insured if they become disabled.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which of the following Settlement Options pays guaranteed installments as long as the recipient lives, and the principal is forfeited upon death?

a)

Cash Payment (Lump Sum)

b)

Life Income

c)

Interest Only

d)

Fix-period Installments

81.

Which Settlement Option is not taxable to the beneficiary?

a)

Cash Payment (Lump Sum)

b)

Life Income

c)

Interest Only

d)

Fixed-amount Installments

82.

The ________ option pays fixed amount until proceeds are exhausted.

a)

Fixed-amount Installments

b)

Life Income Option

c)

Interest-Only Option

d)

Joint and Survivor Option

83.

Which Dividend Option is NOT guaranteed and is a return of excess premiums?

a)

Paid-Up Insurance

b)

Mutual companies (Participating Policies)

c)

Cash

d)

One-year Term

84.

Loans from Cash Loans are subject to income tax.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Which Nonforfeiture Option reduces the paid-up face amount?

a)

Extended Term

b)

Reduced paid-up

c)

Cash

d)

Accumulation at interest

86.

The entire contract consists of the ______ and a copy of the application.

a)

policy

b)

endorsement

c)

premium

d)

beneficiary

87.

The free look provision allows the policyowner ______ days to look over the policy and return it if dissatisfied.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

20

d)

30

88.

Collateral assignment policy proceeds are assigned to a creditor to secure a loan. Once the debt is repaid, the policyowner regains the ______ benefits.

a)

policy

b)

tax

c)

interest

d)

premium

89.

Who is the first beneficiary in a life insurance policy?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Contingent

90.

The incontestability clause prevents the company from denying a claim due to statements on the application after the policy has been in force for how many years?

a)

Two years

b)

One year

c)

Five years

d)

Ten years

91.

The misstatement of age provision allows the insurance company to adjust the policy’s face amount at any time due to this error.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Medical Examinations (including HIV testing) may be requested by the insurer for ______ policies, age of applicant and information discovered during the underwriting process.

a)

large policies

b)

small policies

c)

expired policies

d)

group policies

93.

If the policy has cash value, the insured may make a ______ against the amount available.

a)

policy loan

b)

premium payment

c)

dividend withdrawal

d)

beneficiary change

94.

The waiver of premium rider waives the premium for the policy if the insured becomes totally disabled. Most companies impose a ______ waiting period.

a)

six-month

b)

one-month

c)

twelve-month

d)

two-year

95.

The waiver of premium rider expires at age ______.

a)

65

b)

55

c)

70

d)

60

96.

The accidental death rider will pay some multiple of the face amount if death is the result of an accident as defined in the policy. Death must usually occur within ___ of such accident. Deaths from self-inflicted injuries, war or certain hobbies are not covered.

a)

90-days

b)

30-days

c)

180-days

d)

1-year

97.

What is a children’s term rider?

a)

Children can be added to coverage for a limited time usually until age 18 and can convert coverage at the end of that period.

b)

It is a policy that only covers adults over the age of 21.

c)

It is a rider that increases the death benefit automatically every year.

d)

It is a type of insurance that only covers accidental injuries.

98.

What is the disadvantage of designating a trust as beneficiary?

a)

Cost to administer the trust.

b)

Immediate tax benefits are received.

c)

It guarantees higher returns.

d)

It eliminates all legal complexities.

99.

The Accidental Death and Dismemberment Rider (AD&D) pays the ___ for accidental death or loss of any two primary parts and the ___ for the loss of any one primary part.

a)

principal; capital

b)

capital; principal

c)

benefit; premium

d)

premium; benefit

100.

Accelerated death benefits or living riders allow for the early payment of a percentage of the death benefit due to insured having a terminal illness.

a)

The benefit payable at death will be reduced by that amount.

b)

The policy will be automatically renewed for free.

c)

The insured will receive double the death benefit.

d)

The premiums will be refunded in full.