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Project Management Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best distinguishes a project from a routine operation?

a)

It uses available resources

b)

It requires management

c)

It produces deliverables

d)

It is temporary and unique

2.

The principle of "progressive elaboration" in projects refers to:

a)

Scaling up the team size

b)

Reducing cost progressively

c)

Increasing resources at each phase

d)

Developing in steps as project understanding improves

3.

Which characteristic is NOT typically associated with a project?

a)

Ongoing process

b)

Defined objectives

c)

Resource constraints

d)

Specific timeline

4.

The primary purpose of a feasibility study is to:

a)

Hire the right team

b)

Allocate resources

c)

Decide if the project is viable and worthwhile

d)

Estimate the duration

5.

In project management, scope defines:

a)

The budget available

b)

The overall duration

c)

Boundaries and deliverables

d)

Resources to be hired

6.

Which SDLC phase includes justification for a project before formal approval?

a)

Construction

b)

Initiation

c)

Testing

d)

Design

7.

What is the primary output of the 'Requirements Elicitation' phase?

a)

Software code

b)

User interface design

c)

Functional and non-functional requirements

d)

Gantt chart

8.

Which of the following is a key activity in the SDLC 'Construction' phase?

a)

Brainstorming

b)

Writing code and building the system

c)

Gathering resources

d)

Stakeholder interviews

9.

Acceptance testing is primarily conducted by:

a)

Developers

b)

Managers

c)

End-users

d)

Database administrators

10.

The purpose of implementation in SDLC is to:

a)

Train developers

b)

Rewrite the code

c)

Make the system available to end-users

d)

Reassess feasibility

11.

Which document formally defines how a project will be executed and controlled?

a)

Project report

b)

SPMP

c)

Feasibility report

d)

Use-case document

12.

Which of the following is NOT part of the SPMP document?

a)

Testing scripts

b)

Risk management plan

c)

Work breakdown structure

d)

Cost planning

13.

The estimation of effort in project planning is based on:

a)

Stakeholder votes

b)

Duration only

c)

Historical data and techniques

d)

Testing documents

14.

PERT charts are mainly used for:

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Quality control

c)

Time scheduling and network representation

d)

Hardware setup

15.

Communication planning includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Timing of meetings

b)

Tools for communication

c)

Programming language choice

d)

Attendees of meetings

16.

A business case is primarily developed to:

a)

Replace design documents

b)

Justify starting a project

c)

Show employee efficiency

d)

Support training sessions

17.

Which metric evaluates financial profitability using time value of money?

a)

ROI

b)

Budget

c)

Payback period

d)

NPV

18.

If a project has a negative NPV, it indicates:

a)

Higher profit

b)

Acceptable risk

c)

Not financially beneficial

d)

Fast delivery

19.

The Payback Period indicates:

a)

Return over a lifetime

b)

Risk factors

c)

Time to recover initial investment

d)

Quality of output

20.

A longer payback period implies:

a)

Higher profitability

b)

Faster returns

c)

Higher project feasibility

d)

Slower recovery of costs

21.

Which implementation strategy has the highest risk but is quickest?

a)

Parallel running

b)

Phased take-on

c)

Direct changeover

d)

Pilot implementation

22.

Which strategy uses both old and new systems simultaneously?

a)

Direct changeover

b)

Parallel running

c)

Pilot changeover

d)

Incremental model

23.

Which method is most suitable for gradual implementation of complex systems?

a)

Pilot

b)

Parallel

c)

Phased take-on

d)

Direct

24.

A new system is tested in a single department before full rollout in which strategy?

a)

Phased

b)

Pilot

c)

Direct

d)

SDLC

25.

Pilot implementation helps to:

a)

Reduce overall system cost

b)

Replace waterfall model

c)

Validate system in limited scope

d)

Train all users at once

26.

Which model follows a strict sequential flow?

a)

Spiral

b)

Iterative

c)

Waterfall

d)

Agile

27.

The main drawback of the waterfall model is:

a)

Overlapping tasks

b)

Early feedback from users

c)

Issues found late in the cycle

d)

Costly at initial stages

28.

In the incremental model:

a)

The entire system is built and tested at once

b)

Code is never released until full completion

c)

Functional parts are built and released in parts

d)

Testing is skipped

29.

Which model allows repeated execution of design and implementation phases?

a)

Agile

b)

Iterative

c)

V-Model

d)

Spiral

30.

A hybrid of iterative and incremental model results in:

a)

Agile

b)

Continuous feedback loops

c)

Phase skipping

d)

Faster maintenance only

31.

Risk analysis is done in project planning to:

a)

Eliminate all risks

b)

Document the project cost

c)

Identify, estimate, and prepare for risks

d)

Develop software faster

32.

Which of the following would NOT be a project risk?

a)

Team unavailability

b)

Hardware failure

c)

Gantt chart design

d)

Schedule overrun

33.

Project assurance includes all except:

a)

Ensuring milestones are met

b)

Random stakeholder inputs

c)

Maintaining quality standards

d)

Verifying deliverables

34.

Which of the following is essential for tracking project progress?

a)

Net present value

b)

PERT and Gantt charts

c)

Pilot testing

d)

Coding speed

35.

Project monitoring and control is most closely linked to:

a)

Brainstorming sessions

b)

Design process

c)

Project tracking metrics

d)

Stakeholder meetings only

36.

Post-Implementation Review is done to:

a)

Plan the next project

b)

Evaluate success and gather lessons

c)

Design system architecture

d)

Conduct unit testing

37.

Which of the following is NOT a typical content in a post-implementation review?

a)

Objectives achieved

b)

Budget analysis

c)

Future recommendations

d)

Final design documentation

38.

When should a post-implementation review be conducted?

a)

Before feasibility

b)

During design

c)

After deployment

d)

During testing

39.

The primary outcome of post-implementation review is to:

a)

Decide team structure

b)

Validate code

c)

Improve future projects

d)

Remove developers

40.

In post-implementation review, a project is rated based on:

a)

How many users it has

b)

Budget, time, and objectives

c)

Marketing feedback

d)

SPMP document