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WorksheetsComputer and Software Engineering MCQS
Total questions: 107
Worksheet time: 54mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
An algorithm is best described as
a)
A sequence of SQL commands
b)
A process for automating hardware testing
c)
A finite set of well-defined instructions
d)
A programming language paradigm
2.
In Big O notation, which of these describes linear time complexity?
a)
O(1)
b)
O(n)
c)
O(log n)
d)
O(n²)
3.
Which data structure follows LIFO (last-in, first-out)?
a)
Queue
b)
Stack
c)
Graph
d)
Tree
4.
A queue differs from a stack because it
a)
Accesses elements in LIFO order
b)
Accesses elements in FIFO order
c)
Stores elements non-sequentially
d)
Requires dynamic memory
5.
Which sorting algorithm has average time complexity O(n log n)?
a)
Bubble sort
b)
Selection sort
c)
Merge sort
d)
Insertion sort
6.
What is the main advantage of a linked list over an array?
a)
Constant-time random access
b)
Dynamic size adjustment
c)
Guaranteed contiguous storage
d)
Built-in sorting
7.
In a binary tree, each node can have at most how many children?
a)
One
b)
Two
c)
Three
d)
Four
8.
Static memory allocation occurs
a)
At runtime
b)
During compilation
c)
Only in Java
d)
Only on GPUs
9.
What is the primary purpose of an operating system?
a)
To compile code
b)
To manage hardware and system resources
c)
To store user files in the cloud
d)
To encrypt network traffic
10.
Which OS component handles file management?
a)
Scheduler
b)
Memory manager
c)
File system
d)
Assembler
11.
A process differs from a thread because a process
a)
Shares the same memory space
b)
Is lighter weight
c)
Has its own memory space
d)
Cannot be scheduled by the OS
12.
Virtual memory allows a computer to
a)
Increase physical RAM
b)
Use disk storage as additional RAM
c)
Disable paging
d)
Encrypt memory
13.
In networking, latency measures
a)
Throughput over time
b)
Round-trip time of a packet
c)
Packet loss rate
d)
Maximum bandwidth
14.
The OSI model has how many layers?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
15.
Which protocol is connection-oriented?
a)
UDP
b)
TCP
c)
ICMP
d)
ARP
16.
A primary key in a database is used to
a)
Encrypt data
b)
Identify rows uniquely
c)
Define database schema
d)
Cache queries
17.
Which is a NoSQL database example?
a)
MySQL
b)
PostgreSQL
c)
MongoDB
d)
SQLite
18.
SQL is primarily used to
a)
Manage operating systems
b)
Query and manipulate relational databases
c)
Compile code
d)
Design user interfaces
19.
Recursion is best illustrated by
a)
A loop that iterates twice
b)
A function calling itself
c)
A switch-case statement
d)
A database join
20.
A finite automaton is
a)
A database index
b)
A theoretical machine for recognizing patterns
c)
A network topology
d)
A type of API
21.
The compiler’s main role is to
a)
Execute high-level code
b)
Translate source code into machine code
c)
Manage memory
d)
Handle network requests
22.
An interpreted language is executed
a)
After full compilation
b)
Line-by-line at runtime
c)
Only on GPUs
d)
Only in embedded systems
23.
Virtualization allows multiple OS instances to run on
a)
Separate physical machines only
b)
A single physical machine
c)
Different programming languages
d)
Dedicated GPUs only
24.
Which is a common network topology?
a)
Pentagon
b)
Star
c)
Ellipse
d)
Cylinder
25.
RAID primarily relates to
a)
CPU scheduling
b)
Disk storage redundancy
c)
Network routing
d)
Memory allocation
26.
In web development, frontend refers to
a)
Server-side logic
b)
Database schemas
c)
User interface
d)
Network protocols
27.
Cloud computing example
a)
GitHub
b)
Amazon S3
c)
Docker
d)
Kubernetes
28.
An IoT device example
a)
Microwave oven
b)
Smart thermostat
c)
LED bulb
d)
Electric kettle
29.
Moore’s law predicts
a)
Hardware prices halve annually
b)
Transistor count doubles approximately every two years
c)
Software bugs reduce by half each year
d)
Network speeds double every year
30.
Which is the first stage of the SDLC?
a)
Design
b)
Implementation
c)
Requirement analysis
d)
Testing
31.
Waterfall differs from Agile because it
a)
Is iterative
b)
Follows a strict sequential flow
c)
Requires pair programming
d)
Never uses documentation
32.
A requirement specification document details
a)
Low-level code
b)
Hardware configurations
c)
Stakeholder needs and system behavior
d)
Test scripts
33.
Unit testing is an example of
a)
Black-box testing
b)
Integration testing
c)
System testing
d)
White-box testing
34.
Version control systems help to
a)
Encrypt source code
b)
Track changes and facilitate collaboration
c)
Compile code faster
d)
Manage network traffic
35.
The Singleton is an example of
a)
Concurrency model
b)
Database index
c)
Design pattern
d)
Network protocol
36.
A software project manager typically
a)
Writes all code
b)
Sets project scope and manages resources
c)
Designs network topologies
d)
Defines transistor layouts
37.
Software quality assurance focuses on
a)
Hardware testing
b)
Process and product standards
c)
Graphic design
d)
Database normalization
38.
Software maintenance refers to
a)
Initial coding
b)
Ongoing updates and bug fixes
c)
Hardware upgrades
d)
Network configuration
39.
UML diagrams are used for
a)
Circuit design
b)
Software architecture and design
c)
Compiler construction
d)
Network routing
40.
Code refactoring is done to
a)
Add new features only
b)
Improve code structure without changing behavior
c)
Encrypt code
d)
Increase binary size
41.
A use case describes
a)
Hardware use
b)
User interactions with the system
c)
Compiler optimizations
d)
Network packets
42.
Pair programming involves
a)
Two developers sharing one workstation and collaborating on code
b)
One developer writing tests only
c)
Switching databases
d)
Continuous deployment
43.
Modularity in software design means
a)
Tight coupling
b)
Separation into independent components
c)
Single monolithic block
d)
Using global variables
44.
A Gantt chart visualizes
a)
Code execution paths
b)
Project schedule and milestones
c)
Database schemas
d)
Network traffic
45.
Lines of code is an example of
a)
Software metric
b)
Network protocol
c)
Database key
d)
OS component
46.
Functional requirements specify
a)
How the system performs tasks
b)
System performance levels
c)
Project budget
d)
Hardware specs
47.
Non-functional requirements specify
a)
User interface text
b)
Underlying algorithms
c)
Performance, security, usability
d)
Database queries
48.
User acceptance testing verifies
a)
Code syntax only
b)
End-user requirements are met
c)
Network throughput
d)
OS scheduling
49.
CI/CD stands for
a)
Compile/Install & Deploy
b)
Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment
c)
Control/Input & Code
d)
Client/Interface & Customer Delivery
50.
Black-box testing examines
a)
Internal code structure
b)
External functionality only
c)
Database schemas
d)
Network packets
51.
A software prototype is
a)
Final product
b)
Early model to validate concepts
c)
Database schema
d)
Network topology
52.
A feasibility study assesses
a)
Function point count
b)
Technical, economic, operational viability
c)
Code coverage
d)
Memory allocation
53.
Scope creep refers to
a)
Reducing project scope over time
b)
Uncontrolled changes beyond initial scope
c)
Version control issues
d)
Compiler errors
54.
Semantic versioning example
a)
1.2.3
b)
v1
c)
R2D2
d)
2025.06
55.
Test-driven development means
a)
Writing tests before code
b)
Skipping tests
c)
Writing docs first
d)
Deploying continuously
56.
Big O of binary search is
a)
O(n)
b)
O(log n)
c)
O(n²)
d)
O(1)
57.
Which is a stable sorting algorithm?
a)
Quick sort
b)
Heap sort
c)
Merge sort
d)
Shell sort
58.
In C, malloc provides
a)
Static memory
b)
Dynamic memory allocation
c)
Compile-time checks
d)
Hardware interrupts
59.
Which IP is used for local networks?
a)
192.168.x.x
b)
8.8.8.8
c)
127.0.0.1
d)
224.0.0.1
60.
OSI layer for routing
a)
Transport
b)
Network
c)
Session
d)
Physical
61.
Which TCP flag starts a connection?
a)
RST
b)
SYN
c)
FIN
d)
ACK
62.
A full backup captures
a)
Only changed files
b)
All files
c)
Only deleted files
d)
Only system files
63.
Which SQL command removes rows?
a)
SELECT
b)
INSERT
c)
DELETE
d)
GRANT
64.
Recursion base case prevents
a)
Infinite loops
b)
Compile errors
c)
Segmentation faults
d)
Network collisions
65.
A heap data structure is
a)
Balanced binary tree
b)
Complete binary tree
c)
Linked list
d)
Hash table
66.
Which data structure uses key-value pairs?
a)
Array
b)
Linked list
c)
Hash table
d)
Stack
67.
Dijkstra’s algorithm finds
a)
Minimum spanning tree
b)
Shortest paths
c)
Max flow
d)
Topological order
68.
A shell sort uses
a)
Buckets
b)
Gaps that shrink
c)
Pivot elements
d)
Recursion
69.
The main OS scheduler algorithm
a)
FIFO only
b)
Round-robin
c)
Quick sort
d)
Merge
70.
In packet switching, data is
a)
Sent in fixed circuits
b)
Sent in packets independently
c)
Encrypted only
d)
Buffered indefinitely
71.
Which database join returns only matching rows?
a)
LEFT JOIN
b)
RIGHT JOIN
c)
INNER JOIN
d)
FULL JOIN
72.
In relational DB, normalization reduces
a)
Redundancy
b)
Speed
c)
Security
d)
User input
73.
A compiler’s front end handles
a)
Code optimization
b)
Parsing and syntax analysis
c)
Machine code generation
d)
Linking
74.
Which agile ceremony reviews past iteration?
a)
Sprint planning
b)
Daily standup
c)
Sprint retrospective
d)
Backlog grooming
75.
Version control branching allows
a)
Single line of development
b)
Multiple lines of development
c)
Only bug fixes
d)
Only documentation
76.
Unit test frameworks include
a)
Docker
b)
JUnit
c)
Ansible
d)
Wireshark
77.
Which UML diagram shows class structure?
a)
Use case diagram
b)
Sequence diagram
c)
Class diagram
d)
Deployment diagram
78.
Refactoring method that extracts code into a new method is
a)
Extract Class
b)
Inline Variable
c)
Extract Method
d)
Move Method
79.
Software metrics field function points measure
a)
Hardware throughput
b)
User clicks
c)
Functional size
d)
Memory usage
80.
Which SDLC model is iterative?
a)
Waterfall
b)
V-model
c)
Spiral
d)
Big bang
81.
Pair programming benefits include
a)
Longer deadlines
b)
Improved code quality
c)
Increased bugs
d)
Isolated work
82.
Which SE activity defines system scope?
a)
Design
b)
Requirement analysis
c)
Deployment
d)
Maintenance
83.
CI tool example
a)
Jenkins
b)
MySQL
c)
Apache
d)
Nginx
84.
A project Gantt chart displays
a)
Code coverage
b)
Task timelines
c)
Network traffic
d)
OS memory usage
85.
Continuous deployment triggers on
a)
Manual approval only
b)
Successful build and test
c)
User login
d)
Database commit
86.
Which testing type uses actual source code?
a)
Black-box
b)
White-box
c)
Acceptance
d)
Usability
87.
Software feasibility study includes
a)
Color scheme
b)
Budget and schedule
c)
Syntax checking
d)
Linker flags
88.
Scope creep is controlled by
a)
Unclear requirements
b)
Change control process
c)
No testing
d)
Skipping reviews
89.
Semantic versioning major increments
a)
Backward-compatible fixes
b)
New incompatible API changes
c)
Typos
d)
Hardware upgrades
90.
A burndown chart tracks
a)
Defects
b)
Remaining work
c)
Memory leaks
d)
Network latency
91.
Test-driven development cycle starts with
a)
Coding
b)
Refactoring
c)
Test creation
d)
Documentation
92.
Agile manifesto values
a)
Processes over individuals
b)
Tools over collaboration
c)
Working software over documentation
d)
Contracts over collaboration
93.
Which design pattern decouples sender and receiver?
a)
Observer
b)
Builder
c)
Factory
d)
Decorator
94.
Software quality attributes include
a)
Latency only
b)
Reliability, maintainability, usability
c)
CPU speed
d)
Shader support
95.
Which UML diagram shows runtime behavior?
a)
Class diagram
b)
Activity diagram
c)
Component diagram
d)
Object diagram
96.
Risk in SE refers to
a)
Guaranteed failure
b)
Potential problems impacting objectives
c)
Hardware faults only
d)
User errors
97.
Configuration management tracks
a)
Network packets
b)
Software changes
c)
Operating system kernels
d)
Compiler optimizations
98.
Which SDLC phase writes user manuals?
a)
Implementation
b)
Maintenance
c)
Planning
d)
Requirements
99.
Regression testing ensures
a)
New bugs are introduced
b)
Existing functionality still works
c)
Database schema changes
d)
Network updates
100.
Which SE role defines project milestones?
a)
Developer
b)
Tester
c)
Project manager
d)
Database admin
101.
Use case diagrams identify
a)
Class methods
b)
User interactions
c)
Memory layout
d)
Network routes
102.
Which SE methodology uses sprints?
a)
Waterfall
b)
Lean
c)
Agile Scrum
d)
V-model
103.
Pair programming driver navigates code and
a)
Reviews design only
b)
Implements test cases
c)
Asks questions and reviews
d)
Manages servers
104.
Refactoring improves
a)
User requirements
b)
Compiler speed
c)
Code readability and structure
d)
Network throughput
105.
Which SE metric measures defects per KLOC?
a)
MTTF
b)
FTR
c)
DI
d)
Defect density
106.
CI/CD practice of merging all work daily is
a)
Trunk-based development
b)
Feature branching
c)
Gitflow
d)
Release branching
107.
Test-driven development red-green-refactor refers to
a)
Design-Implement-Test
b)
Fail-Pass-Refactor
c)
Compile-Run-Deploy
d)
Plan-Do-Check
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