WorksheetsMTQap_Qrationale
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following does NOT match?
(1) Spirochetes = Spiral
(2) Bacilli = Spherical
(3) Gram-positive = Blue to purple
(4) Gram-negative = Pink
a)
a. 1 only
b)
b. 2 only
c)
c. 3 only
d)
d. 4 only
2.
Staphylococcal leucocidin ____ is an exotoxin lethal to polymorphonuclear leukocytes. It has been implicated as contributing to the invasiveness of the organism by suppressing phagocytosis and has been associated with severe cutaneous infections and necrotizing pneumonia.
a)
a. Alpha hemolysin
b)
b. Beta hemolysin
c)
c. Delta hemolysin
d)
d. Panton - valentine leukocidin
3.
All statements are true regarding JEMBEC system, except:
a)
a. Can be used as a transport system for vaginal discharge
b)
b. Contains selective agar and a N2
c)
c. Can be used as a transport system for urethral discharge
d)
d. A and C
4.
Inhibitors contained in Salmonella-Shigella agar:
a)
a. Gentian violet
b)
b. Sodium azide
c)
c. Bile salts and brilliant green
d)
d. Potassium tellurite
5.
Phenylethyl alcohol is used to:
a)
a. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria
b)
b. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria
c)
c. Both A and B
d)
d. None of the above
6.
Which of the following is/are TRUE with Thayer-Martin agar?
I. Thayer-Martin agar is a selective media used for the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
II. It uses a combination of Vancomycin, Colistin, and Nystatin (VCN) ti select out N. gonorrhoeae
III. Modified Thayer Martin agar uses trimethoprim in addition.
IV. Thayer-Martin agar is a nonselective media used for the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
a)
a. I only
b)
b. I and II
c)
c. I, II, and III
d)
d. I, II, III, and IV
7.
Which media should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?
a)
a. CHocolate agar
b)
b. Blod agar
c)
c. Bordet-Gengou agar
d)
d. MacConkey Agar
8.
Hemolytic Streptococci require blood to support their growth. What type of media should be used to cultivate such bacteria?
a)
a. Differential media
b)
b. Enriched media
c)
c. General purpose media
d)
d. Selective media
9.
These media allow only the growth of desired organisms while inhibiting the others.
a)
a. Differential media
b)
b. Enrichment media
c)
c. General purpose media
d)
d. Selective media
10.
These media can be used to distinguish lactose-fermenting and non-lactose-fermenting bacteria in terms of color reaction.
a)
a. Differential media
b)
b. Enrichment media
c)
c. General purpose media
d)
d. Selective media
11.
These media can support the growth of microbes that do not have special growth requirements
a)
a. Differential media
b)
b. Enrichment media
c)
c. General purpose media
d)
d. Selective media
12.
Eosin methylene blue agar is considered a: A) differential media B) selective media
a)
a. if associated with A only
b)
b. If associated with B only
c)
c. If associated with both A and B
d)
d. If not associated with both A and B
13.
In the disk diffusion method, what is used to compare turbidity?
a)
a. 0.5 McFarland Standard
b)
b. 1.0 McFarland Standard
c)
c. 2.0 McFarland Standard
d)
d. 3.0 McFarland standard
14.
What is a potential error in disk diffusion testing if the inoculum is too light?
a)
a. False resistance
b)
b. False susceptibility
c)
c. Accurate results
d)
d. None of the choices
15.
In the E-Test, how is the MIC determined?
a)
a. Where the growth ellipse intersects the E-Test
b)
b. By measuring the zone of inhibition
c)
c. By comparing to a standard chart
d)
d. None of the choices
16.
Stain that is used to screen specimens for fungi by attaching to the chitin of the cell wall.
a)
a. Lactophenol blue
b)
b. 10% KOH
c)
c. India ink
d)
d. Calcufluor white
17.
Which antimicrobial agent targets cell wall synthesis?
a)
a. Beta-lactams
b)
b. Tetracyclines
c)
c. Quinolones
d)
d. None of the choices
18.
The gold standard for MRSA detection is the detection of the:
a)
a. Sphingomyelinase C by using PCR amplification
b)
b. Mec A gene by using PCR amplification
c)
c. Culture and Sensitivity testing
d)
d. D-zone test
e)
e. Gram stain followed by Culture and Sensitivity
19.
What is the treatment of choice for MRSA?
a)
a. Novobiocin
b)
b. Norfloxacin
c)
c. Vancomycin
d)
d. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
20.
The virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that causes the epidermal layer of the skin to slough off and it is known to cause Staphylococcal SSS or sometimes referred to as Ritter's disease
a)
a. TSST-1
b)
b. Enterotoxin
c)
c. Exfoliative toxin
d)
d. Cytolytic toxin
21.
All of the following are characteristic of Staphylococcus saprophyticus except:
a)
a. UTIs in young sexually active women
b)
b. Species adheres more effectively to the epithelial cells lining the urogenital tract than other Coagulase negative Staphylococcus spp.
c)
c. Present in urine culture with <10,000 CFU/mL and still be significant
d)
d. None of the choices
22.
Oxidation/Fermentation reactions produced in O/F glucose medium
a)
a. Is to differentiate Staphylococci to Streptococci
b)
b. Is to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus to Staphylococcus epidermidis
c)
c. Is to differentiate the virulence factors of Staphylococci
d)
d. Is to differentiate Staphylococcus to micrococcus
23.
The laboratory scientist should look for the clot formation of the plasma after ___ of incubation at ___ C for confirmation of Staphylococcus aureus
a)
a. 2 hours, 37 degree Celsius
b)
b. 4 hours, 37 degree Celsius
c)
c. 12 hours, Room temperature
d)
d. 4 hours, Room temperature
24.
All of the following are characteristic of Staphylococcus saprophyticus except:
a)
a. UTIs in young sexually active women
b)
b. Species adheres more effectively to the epithelial cells lining the urogenital tract than other Coagulase negative Staphylococcus spp.
c)
c. Present in urine culture with <10,000 CFU/mL and still be significant
d)
d. None of the choices
25.
Which of the following incorrectly describes Streptolysin O (SLO)?
a)
a. An oxygen labile hemolysin
b)
b. Is active only in an aerobic environment
c)
c. Able to lyse not only RBCs but also leukocytes, platelets, and other cells
d)
d. May be detected using the ASO test
e)
e. Highly immunogenic
26.
Which of the following virulence factors is correctly paired with its pathogenic capabilities?
a)
a. Hyaluronidase - solubilizes hyaluronic acid to separate the tissues and help spread the infection
b)
b. F protein - prevents phagocytosis
c)
c. Streptokinase - creates fibrin clots
d)
d. Streptolysin O - surface hemolysis
27.
Novobiocin is used to differentiate S. epidermidis from S. saprophyticus. Which of the following result is correctly matched?
a)
a. S. saprophyticus = resistant
b)
b. S. epidermidis = resistant
c)
c. Both organisms are susceptible
d)
d. None of the above
28.
All are true regarding Staphylococcus spp. except:
a)
a. Facultative anaerobe
b)
b. Modified oxidase positive
c)
c. Bacitracin resistant
d)
d. Lyostaphin sensitive
e)
e. Both C and D
29.
It resembles mariner's wheel and gives a "mickey mouse cap" appearance to the yeast cell.
a)
a. Sporothrix schenckii
b)
b. Paracoccidioides brasilliensis
c)
c. Penicillium marneffei
d)
d. Aspergillus fumigatus
30.
Which of the following organisms give a negative DNAse result?
a)
a. S. aureus
b)
b. S. epidermidis
c)
c. S. saprophyticus
d)
d. Both A and B
e)
e. Both B and C
31.
Which of the following clinical forms of Streptococcus pyogenes infections is being described?: This is an invasive infection characterized by rapidly progressing inflammation and localized death of living tissues of the skin, subcutaneous fat, and fascia.
a)
a. Erysipelas
b)
b. Cellulitis
c)
c. Impetigo
d)
d. Necrotizing fasciitis
e)
e. Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome
32.
Which of the following groups of streptococci is being described?: These streptococci are considered as normal flora of the upper respiratory tract and female genital tract. Most species are alpha-hemolytic, forming green halos around their colonies. These streptococci are fastidious, with some strains requiring CO2 for growth.
a)
a. Group C and G Streptococci
b)
b. Group B streptococci
c)
c. Viridans Streptococci
d)
d. Group D Streptococci
e)
e. Group A streptococci
33.
Which of the following incorrectly describes Enterococci?
a)
a. they exhibit a true positive catalase test reaction
b)
b. most species are non-hemolytic, some strains may show beta-hemolysis
c)
c. frequently causes nosocomial infections, with UTI being the most common
d)
d. able to hydrolyze PYR
34.
Which of the following biochemical test is being referred to?: THis has been historically used as an inexpensive test to presumptively identify Streptococcus pyogenes. A throat swab is inoculated on to an SBA containing SXT and the antibiotic disk is placed directly on to the agar. Beta-hemolytic colonies that grow in the presence of SXT but are susceptible to the antibiotic disk is presumptively identified as Streptococcus pyogenes
a)
a. Optochin susceptibility
b)
b. Bacitracin susceptibility
c)
c. CAMP test
d)
d. Hippurate hydrolysis
e)
e. PYR hydrolysis
35.
Which of the following biochemical test is being referred to?: This is used to presumptively identify group B streptococci. Utilizing Staphylococcus aureus, the unknown streptococcal isolate is inoculated perpendicularly to the S. aureus inoculum. The result is an arrowhead-shaped hemolysis.
a)
a. Optochin susceptibility
b)
b. Bacitracin susceptibility
c)
c. CAMP test
d)
d. Hippurate hydrolysis
e)
e. PYR hydrolysis
36.
An isolate from stool culture gives the following growth characteristics and biochemical reactions:
MacConkey: colorless colonies
HEA: Yellow-orange colonies
TSI: A/A, no gas, no H2S
Urea: Positive
These are consistent with which enteric pathogen?
a)
a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b)
b. Shigella sonnei
c)
c. Klebsiella oxytoca
d)
d. Escherichia coli
37.
A gram-negative rod is recovered from a urine sample from a nursing home patient and gave the following results:
Lactose: negative
Indole: positive
Urease: positive
Phenylalanine deaminase and ODC: positive
H2S: negative
The most probable identification is:
a)
a. Edwardsiella spp.
b)
b. Morganella spp.
c)
c. Erwinia spp.
d)
d. Shigella spp.
38.
Which of the following is incorrect for C. perfringens?
a)
a. Lecithinase positive
b)
b. Ferment glucose
c)
c. Motile
d)
d. Double zone of hemolysis on anaerobic BAP
e)
e. Both A and D
39.
Which of the following is NOT true for Yersinia pestis?
a)
a. Bipolar staining: safety pin appearance
b)
b. Stalactite pattern on culture broth
c)
c. Sucrose positive
d)
d. Ornithine negative
e)
e. Urease negative
40.
Which of the following viruses have helical capsid symmetry?
a)
a. Norwalk virus, Rotavirus, Hepatitis A virus
b)
b. Arenavirus, HIV, HSV
c)
c. Influenza virus, Parainfluenza virus, Hepatitis D virus
d)
d. Poliovirus, Hepatitis E virus, Rift Valley Fever Virus
41.
Which of the following are naked viruses?
a)
a. Poliovirus, Hepatitis E virus, Rotavirus
b)
b. Parvovirus B-19, Hepatitis B Virus, HSV 1
c)
c. HIV, Hepatitis A virus, Hepatitis B virus
d)
d. Adenovirus, Influenza virus, mumps
42.
What is the most likely pathogen related to rat-bite fever?
a)
a. Leptospira interrogans
b)
b. Borrelia hermsii
c)
c. Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
d. Spirillum minus
43.
Relapsing-fever in humans is caused by the infected body louse which acts as a vector and is transmitted to humans. Which of the following are the most likely spirochetes?
a)
a. Borrelia recurrentis
b)
b. leptospira interrogans
c)
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
d. Borrelia hermsii
44.
Tween 80 hydrolysis is the most useful for identification of:
a)
a. M. kansasii
b)
b. M. gordonae
c)
c. M. avium-intracellulare complex
d)
d. M. phlei
e)
e. All of the above
45.
Rough and buff colonies on LJ medium are characteristic of:
a)
a. M. chelonei
b)
b. M. bovis
c)
c. M. tuberculosis
d)
d. M. forfuitum
46.
What is the diagnostic stage of filarian worm?
a)
a. Microfilaria
b)
b. Filariform
c)
c. L1 larvae
d)
d. L3 larvae
47.
Vector for Wuchereria bancrofti?
a)
a. Anopheles
b)
b. Tabanid
c)
c. Mangofly
d)
d. Black fly
48.
Which part of nematodes digestive system is used for species identification?
a)
a. Mouth
b)
b. Buccal cavity
c)
c. Tail
d)
d. Esophagus
49.
The following are the characteristic morphology of an E. vermicularis ova, EXCEPT;
a)
a. 2 shell layer
b)
b. Elongated
c)
c. lopsided D
d)
e. Bipolar plugs
50.
Which of the following larval stages is/are present in Order PSeydohyllidaea?
a)
a. Cysticercoid
b)
b. Filariform
c)
c. Hydatid cyst
d)
d. Coracidium
51.
To prevent the contamination of microscopes and surrounding areas disenfect/clean used slides, prepared by student, with
a)
A. 70% ethanol and lens paper
b)
B. acetone and lens paper
c)
C. 5% methylene blue and lens paper
d)
D. water and lens paper
52.
Which of the following physical methods can effectively kill or inhibit microbial growth?
a)
A. UV light
b)
B. Carbon dioxide
c)
C. Nitrogen gas
d)
D.Sugar solution
53.
Which of the following chemical agents is commonly used for disinfection of surfaces and equipment in healthcare settings?
a)
A. Vinegar
b)
B. Sodium hypochlorite
c)
C. Lemon juice
d)
C. Olive oil
54.
Which of the following microbial forms is the most resistant to control measures such as heat and chemical disinfectants?
a)
A. Vegetative cells
b)
B. Spores
c)
C. Yeast cells
d)
D.Protozoa
55.
Which of the following methods is not a physical method of controlling microbial growth?
a)
A. Filtration
b)
B. Radiation
c)
C. Antiseptics
d)
D. Heat
56.
Which type of radiation can penetrate materials and is commonly used for sterilization in the medical and food industries?
a)
A. Infrared radiation
b)
B. Gamma radiation
c)
C. Ultraviolet radiation
d)
D. Radiofrequency radiation
57.
At what temperature does flash pasteurization typically occur?
a)
A. 0°C
b)
B. 37°C
c)
C. 72°C
d)
D. 100°C
58.
What temperature is typically used for dry heat sterilization, and for how long is it applied?
a)
A. 100°C for 15 minutes
b)
B. 121°C for 15 minutes
c)
C. 160°C for 2 hours
d)
D.75°C for 10 minutes
59.
When collecting a sputum specimen, which of the following is important to ensure an accurate sample?
a)
A. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container
b)
B. Mixing saliva with the sputum
c)
C. Collecting the specimen after eating a heavy meal
d)
D. Collecting the specimen at any time of the day
60.
Which of the following specimens is commonly collected to diagnose gastrointestinal infections?
a)
A. Blood
b)
B. Urine
c)
C. Nasal discharge
d)
D. Stool
61.
.What is the manner of orientation in SIM medium?
a)
A. Butt slant
b)
B. Butt
c)
C. Slant
d)
D. Liquid
62.
. Can be used to sterilize the loop
a)
A. Microincinerator
b)
B. Bunsen burner
c)
C Alcohol lamp
d)
D. All of the choices
63.
SIM stands for:
a)
A. Sulfide Indole Medium
b)
B. Sulfur Indole Motility
c)
C. Sulfide Indole Motility
d)
D. Sulfure Indole Medium
64.
Material should be used to inoculate unto plated medium:
a)
A. Inoculating needle
b)
B. Inoculating loop
c)
C. BOTH
d)
D. NEITHER
65.
Identify the next step in transferring inoculum to sterile medium: 1. Flame loop 2. Flame tube 3.Transfer from broth to plated medium 4.?
a)
A. Close the cap & put back in rack
b)
B. Flame loop
c)
C. Flame tube
d)
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
66.
Manner of inoculation in Slant medium:
a)
A. Stab
b)
B. Stab and Streak
c)
C. Swirl
d)
D. Streak
67.
What is the name of the procedure performed under sterile conditions to eliminate contamination in hopes to obtain a pure culture of one type of microorganism?
a)
A. sterilization technique
b)
B. disinfectant technique
c)
C. aseptic technique
d)
D. pathogen technique
68.
. ______________ is needed as a source of nutrient for the growth and reproduction of microbes.
a)
A. pathogens
b)
B. reagents
c)
C. bacteria
d)
D. media
69.
Which of the following domains are prokaryotic?
a)
A. Plantae
b)
B. Animalia
c)
C. Archaea
d)
D. Fungi
70.
. Which of the following domains are prokaryotic?
a)
A. Plantae
b)
B. Animalia
c)
C. Archaea
d)
D. Fungi
71.
What is the primary method of cell division in prokaryotes?
a)
A. Mitosis
b)
B. Binary fission
c)
C. Meiosis
d)
D. Budding
72.
Which type of ribosomes are found in prokaryotes?
a)
A) 70S
b)
B) 80S
c)
C) 90S
d)
D) 60S
73.
Which domain of prokaryotes includes organisms that are often extremophiles?
a)
A. Bacteria
b)
B. Archaea
c)
C. Plantae
d)
D. Protista
74.
. In eukaryotic cells, where does the majority of protein synthesis occur?
a)
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
b)
B. Mitochondria
c)
C. RER (Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum)
d)
D. Golgi apparatus
75.
Which of the following statements about eukaryotic cells is true?
a)
A. They lack a nucleus.
b)
B. They use binary fission for cell division.
c)
C. They have membrane-bound organelles.
d)
D. They contain 70S ribosomes.
76.
What feature differentiates eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes from prokaryotic cytoplasmic membranes?
a)
A. Presence of a nucleoid
b)
B. Fluid phospholipid bilayer with carbohydrates and sterols
c)
C. Presence of 70S ribosomes
d)
D. Lack of cell walls
77.
Which type of cell has a true nucleus?
a)
A. Prokaryotes
b)
B. Eukaryotes
c)
C. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d)
D. Neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes
78.
Where is energy primarily produced in prokaryotic cells?
a)
A. Nucleus
b)
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
c)
C. Mitochondria
d)
D. RER (Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum)
79.
What does a simple stain primarily highlight in bacterial cells?
a)
A. Specific components
b)
B. Forms and shapes
c)
C. Lipopolysaccharides
d)
D. Cell wall thickness
80.
What is the purpose of a differential stain in microbiology?
a)
A. To color all bacterial cells the same color
b)
B. To visualize specific components of bacterial cells
c)
C. To determine bacterial cell size
d)
D. To count the number of bacteria
81.
In a Gram stain, what color does a Gram-positive bacterium appear after the primary stain and mordant steps?
a)
A. Pink
b)
B. Colorless
c)
C. Purple
d)
D. Green
82.
. What is the function of the decolorizer in the Gram staining procedure?
a)
A. To fix the crystal violet stain
b)
B. To wash out the primary stain from Gram-negative bacteria
c)
C. To enhance the color of Gram-positive bacteria
d)
D. To apply the counterstain
83.
What component is found in high amounts in Gram-negative bacteria but absent in Gram-positive bacteria?
a)
A. Peptidoglycan
b)
B. Lipoteichoic acid
c)
C. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
d)
D. Cytoplasmic membrane
84.
In which sterilization method is a temperature of 134°C used, typically for sterilizing heat-sensitive medical equipment?
a)
A. Dry heat sterilization
b)
B. Autoclaving
c)
C. Boiling water
d)
D. Pasteurization
85.
Which of the following bacteria is known to be Gram-positive despite being a bacillus?
a)
A. Mycobacterium
b)
B. Escherichia coli
c)
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d)
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
86.
Which of the following bacterial types is Gram-negative?
a)
A. Clostridia
b)
B. Corynebacteria
c)
C. Bacillus
d)
D. Neisseria
87.
What is a feature of cell-wall deficient bacteria that makes Gram staining ineffective?
a)
A. Presence of thick peptidoglycan
b)
B. Presence of sterols in the cell membrane
c)
C. High LPS content
d)
D. Absent outer membrane
88.
Which method involves the use of boiling water at 100°C for 15 minutes to disinfect, but not necessarily to sterilize?
a)
A. Autoclaving
b)
B. Pasteurization
c)
C. Boiling
d)
D. Dry heat sterilization
89.
In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, which reagent is used as the primary stain for acid-fast organisms?
a)
A. Crystal Violet
b)
B. Safranin
c)
C. Carbol fuchsin
d)
D. Methylene Blue
90.
What is the main component of the bacterial cell wall responsible for shape and protection?
a)
A. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
b)
B. Peptidoglycan
c)
C. Mycolic acid
d)
D. Lipoteichoic acid
91.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an acid-fast organism?
a)
A. Thick peptidoglycan layer
b)
B. Presence of mycolic acid
c)
C. High lipopolysaccharide content
d)
D. Thin peptidoglycan layer
92.
What is the characteristic appearance of bacteria in negative staining techniques?
a)
A. Dark-colored bacteria against a light background
b)
B. Light-colored bacteria against a dark background
c)
C. Pink-stained cells against a purple background
d)
D. Blue-stained cells with a purple halo
93.
What component of the cell wall is primarily responsible for pathogenicity in Streptococcus pyogenes?
a)
A. Lipoteichoic acid
b)
B. M protein
c)
C. Mycolic acid
d)
D. Peptidoglycan
94.
Which method is used to stain and visualize bacterial endospores?
a)
A. Leifson method
b)
B. Fulton-Schaeffer method
c)
C. Gram staining
d)
D. Ziehl-Neelsen method
95.
What is the main feature of mesosomes in bacterial cells?
a)
A. They are extensions of the cytoplasmic membrane.
b)
B. They are sites of DNA replication.
c)
C. They provide energy for motility.
d)
D. They are involved in cellular respiration.
96.
Which of the following is an example of a bacterium with a capsule?
a)
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
B. Escherichia coli
c)
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d)
D. Bacillus subtilis
97.
. What are Babes-Ernst bodies also known as in Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
a)
A. Metachromatic granules
b)
B. Halberstaedter-Prowazek bodies
c)
C. Levinthal-Cole-Lillie bodies
d)
D. Bipolar bodies
98.
Which bacteria are visualized using the “Levinthal-Cole-Lillie bodies” staining technique?
a)
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
B. Chlamydophila psittaci
c)
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d)
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
99.
What does the phenolic coefficient measure in relation to disinfectants?
a)
A. The solubility of the disinfectant in water
b)
B. The antimicrobial efficacy of the disinfectant compared to phenol
c)
C. The cost of the disinfectant
d)
D. The stability of the disinfectant over time
100.
If a disinfectant has a phenolic coefficient of 0.5, what does this indicate about its effectiveness?
a)
A. It is more effective than phenol.
b)
B. It has the same effectiveness as phenol.
c)
C. It is less effective than phenol.
d)
D. It is equally effective as 100% ethanol.
100 %
