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Worksheets

Practice

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the FIRST determining factor in the START Triage System?

a)

Airway

b)

Breathing

c)

Ability to walk from the immediate area

d)

Level of consciousness

2.

Which of the following would BEST represent the definition of triage?

a)

To Prioritize

b)

To Sort

c)

To Treat

d)

To Transport

3.

A Patient breathing at 10 times per minute that could not walk had an open airway, and had a delayed capillary refill time would fit what category of the START Triage system?

a)

Immediate

b)

Minor

c)

Delayed

d)

Expired

4.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

a)

Continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

b)

Demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport

c)

Ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint

d)

Reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be

5.

The rescuer knows the rescue breath for an infant victim is effective when

a)

The stomach rises visibly

b)

The chest rises visibly

c)

The Child Ventilation bag is completely compressed

d)

The rescuer can hear an air leak around the mask

6.

Which of the following BEST describes the term aphasia?

a)

The patient cannot speak

b)

The patient cannot swallow

c)

The patient is weak on one side

d)

The patient cannot feel one side

7.

Respiratory distress in the pediatric patient is BEST defined as which of the following:

a)

The complete cessation of breathing

b)

The mildest form of respiratory impairment

c)

Noticeable accessory muscle use on inspiration

d)

Respiratory impairment where the demands of the body for oxygen exceed the supply

8.

When should a newborn first be suctioned?

a)

Immediately after the umbilical cord is cut

b)

After the baby has completely delivered

c)

As soon as the newborn’s head is delivered

d)

After the 5-minute APGAR score calculation

9.

When assessing an 80-year old patient in shock, it is important to remember that

a)

It is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults

b)

Age related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion

c)

The patient’s cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decreased perfusion

d)

In older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock

10.

In relation to the chest, the back is:

a)

Ventral

b)

Inferior

c)

Anterior

d)

Posterior

11.

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

a)

Mastoid

b)

Maxilla

c)

Mandible

d)

Zygoma

12.

During the treatment of a patient you perform a treatment incorrectly. Which of the four parts of a negligence case are you potentially guilty?

a)

Duty to act

b)

The patient received an injury

c)

Your actions lead to an injury

d)

Failure to meet the standard of care

13.

Where should your hands be placed to perform chest compressions on an adult?

a)

On the lower half of the breastbone

b)

In the center of the breastbone

c)

On the upper portion of the abdomen

d)

In the upper half of the...

14.

When there are multiple agencies involved in commanding a disaster scene, this type of command is referred to as:

a)

Unified command

b)

Singular command

c)

Incident command

d)

Utilitarian command

15.

Which of the following is the BEST to utilize to preserve evidence?

a)

Inside a plastic bag

b)

Inside a brown paper bag

c)

Inside a powder-free latex glove

d)

Wrapped in sterile aluminum foil

16.

Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is CORRECT?

a)

It provides the EMT immunity from a lawsuit

b)

It guarantees that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued

c)

The law does not protect the EMTs who are off duty

d)

It will not protect the EMT in the case of gross negligence

17.

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient. Your FIRST priority is to:

a)

Notify medical control for advice

b)

Provide immediate patient care

c)

Wait for law enforcement to arrive

d)

Determine why the patient was injured

18.

Which of the following should you do NEXT after placing the esophageal tracheal dual lumen airway?

a)

Inflate cuff # 1

b)

Inflate cuff # 2

c)

Ventilate tube 1

d)

Ventilate tube 2

19.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in infants and children?

a)

Hemorrhagic shock

b)

Brady-dysrhythmias

c)

Respiratory compromise

d)

Myocardial infarction

20.

The goal of the primary assessment is to:

a)

Determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma

b)

Identify patients that require transport to a trauma center

c)

Determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment

d)

Identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions

21.

Death from a near drowning is defined as death occurring from submersion within how many hours?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

12

d)

24

22.

Which of the following BEST explains why we perform chin lifts when opening a patient's airway?

a)

It provides for oral inspection

b)

It indirectly lifts the epiglottis

c)

It indirectly lifts the tongue up

d)

It increases the glottic opening

23.

Which of the following is your number one priority for safety?

a)

Yourself

b)

Your crew

c)

The patient

d)

The bystanders

24.

Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it:

a)

Binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells

b)

Fills the lungs with secretions

c)

Causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide

d)

Destroys the number of circulating red blood cells

25.

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?

a)

Actual

b)

Implied

c)

Informed

d)

Expressed

26.

What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel?

a)

Controlling insurance cost

b)

Protecting patient privacy

c)

Preventing insurance fraud

d)

Ensuring access to insurance

27.

Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities?

a)

Spousal abuse

b)

Animal bites

c)

Cardiac arrest

d)

Gunshot wounds

28.

Which of the following is the MOST important aspect regarding patient refusals?

a)

It is critical to make sure the patient is fully informed

b)

Allowing a patient to refuse care rarely ever involves a lawsuit

c)

Medical control has the right to make patients receive treatment

d)

Law enforcement has the right to make patients receive treatment

29.

What position should you transport an 8 month pregnant hypotensive patient?

a)

Right lateral recumbent

b)

Left lateral recumbent

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg

30.

What care should you provide a patient who is adequately breathing but unresponsive?

a)

Continue assessment without any interventions

b)

Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask

c)

Provide low-concentration of oxygen

d)

Provide high-concentration of oxygen

31.

When should you apply manual stabilization of the cervical spine of an apparently unresponsive trauma patient?

a)

Prior to obtaining you general impression

b)

As you are assessing the patient's mental status

c)

After you have completed your circulatory assessment

d)

During the assessment of the patient's breathing status

32.

Which of the following unresponsive patients are breathing inadequately and in need of assisted breathing?

a)

A 27-year-old male breathing at 12 times per minute and very shallow

b)

A 4-year-old female breathing at 30 times per minute and normal volume

c)

A 6-month-old infant breathing at 30 times per minute and normal volume

d)

A 48-year-old female breathing at 28 times per minute and normal volume

33.

When auscultating breathing during the initial assessment what are you listening for?

a)

Crepitus and pleural rub

b)

Lung sounds to assess volume

c)

Lung sounds for equality and moisture

d)

Assessing the airway and inappropriate noises

34.

Where should you palpate for a pulse in an unconscious adult trauma patient during your initial assessment?

a)

Radial

b)

Carotid

c)

Brachial

d)

Femoral

35.

Where do you initially assess the pulse of an unconscious infant?

a)

Radial

b)

Carotid

c)

Brachial

d)

Femoral

36.

Which of the following is the principal reason we perform a rapid trauma assessment?

a)

To identify internal injuries

b)

To quickly identify all injuries

c)

To quickly identify immediate life-threats

d)

To determine the patient's neurological status

37.

When assessing the abdomen during the rapid trauma assessment, we are looking for which of the following?

a)

Firmness

b)

Bowel sounds

c)

Rebound tenderness

d)

Paradoxical movement

38.

Which of the following would cause you to temporarily interrupt a rapid trauma assessment?

a)

An unstable pelvis

b)

Distended neck veins

c)

A sucking chest wound

d)

Bilateral deformed femur

39.

All of the following would be expected in a pediatric patient with an airway problem EXCEPT:

a)

See-sawing

b)

Retractions

c)

Nasal flaring

d)

Increasing heart rate

40.

Which of the following signs would indicate a lower airway respiratory problem?

a)

Stridor

b)

Snoring

c)

Crackles

d)

Gurgling

41.

Which of the following would be the appropriate care for a patient without adequate breathing?

a)

Ventilate with warm air

b)

Control any external bleeding

c)

Apply high-concentration oxygen

d)

Ventilate with 100% supplemental oxygen

42.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

a)

Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbed by the bloodstream

b)

Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream

c)

Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic

d)

Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route

43.

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:

a)

Remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise

b)

Attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations

c)

Leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction

d)

Remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations

44.

Which of the following would be the MOST likely position you would transport a patient experiencing breathing problems?

a)

Supine

b)

Fowlers

c)

Semi-Fowlers

d)

Left-lateral recumbent

45.

You have an adult patient complaining of difficulty breathing. He is breathing at 20 times per minute, with adequate volume. He is not using any accessory muscles to breathe and his lung sounds are clear and equal. His color is normal. How would describe this patient's respiratory rate?

a)

Adequate

b)

Inadequate

c)

Respiratory failure

d)

Respiratory distress

46.

Which of the following are contraindicated in infants?

a)

Nasal suctioning

b)

Oral pharyngeal airways

c)

High concentrations of oxygen

d)

Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilatory devices

47.

Which of the following patients showing severe signs of respiratory distress should you limit the amount of oxygen you provide?

a)

Asthma patient

b)

A patient with emphysema

c)

A patient with chronic bronchitis

d)

None of the above

48.

All of the following are general factors that may cause an alteration in a patient's behavior EXCEPT:

a)

Physical factors

b)

Chemical factors

c)

Reaction to stress

d)

Mental retardation

49.

You have an adult patient with an accidental petroleum poisoning. Which of the following is the MOST expected route for this poisoning?

a)

Inhaled

b)

Injected

c)

Ingested

d)

Absorbed

50.

You have a patient with a slow pulse, excessive salivation, sweating, vomiting, difficulty breathing and constricted pupils. Which of the following types of poisoning should you suspect?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Pesticide

c)

Catecholamine

d)

Acetaminophen

51.

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function?

a)

Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed

b)

Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced

c)

Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly

d)

Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light

52.

Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug?

a)

Tylenol

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Furosemide

d)

Nitroglycerin

53.

Shock is the result of:

a)

Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

b)

The body's maintenance of homeostasis

c)

Temporary dysfunction of a major organ

d)

Widespread constriction of the blood vessels

54.

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:

a)

Dilate

b)

Not react

c)

Become larger

d)

Become smaller

55.

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse greater than (a)   beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than (b)   beats/min

Choose from the below words

60, 100

50, 110

40, 120

30, 130

56.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:

a)

Ensure that his airway is patent

b)

Apply direct pressure to the wound

c)

Elevate his legs and keep him warm

d)

Administer 100% supplemental oxygen

57.

The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the:

a)

Percentage of red blood cells

b)

Effectiveness of oxygenation

c)

Saturation level of venous blood

d)

Amount of exhaled carbon dioxide

58.

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hypertension

59.

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called:

a)

Adsorption

b)

Absorption

c)

Suspension

d)

Digestion

60.

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?

a)

Evaluating the patient’s chest for cyanosis

b)

Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SPO2

c)

Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

d)

Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

61.

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Headache

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hypertension

62.

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the:

a)

Intranasal route

b)

Inhalation route

c)

Sublingual route

d)

Transdermal route

63.

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does this scenario describe?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Indirect contact

c)

Airborne transmission

d)

Vector-borne transmission

64.

The pressure exerted against the wall of an artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Systolic pressure

c)

Diastolic pressure

d)

Pulse pressure

65.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall?

a)

Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall

b)

A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing

c)

Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls

d)

One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other

66.

Which of the following statements regarding the parenteral medications is CORRECT?

a)

Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally

b)

Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications

c)

Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects

d)

Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system

67.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is CORRECT?

a)

Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbed by the bloodstream

b)

Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream

c)

Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic

d)

Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route

68.

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ____ artery.

a)

Radial

b)

Carotid

c)

Temporal

d)

Brachial

69.

The ____ of the heart is the inferior portion of the left ventricles.

a)

Apex

b)

Base

c)

Thorius

d)

Septum

70.

You should gently palpate a patient’s pelvis arch if:

a)

You note gross deformity to the pelvis arch

b)

The patient does not complain of pelvic pain

c)

The MOI suggests pelvic trauma

d)

The possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out

71.

The elbow is an example of a _____ joint

a)

Hinge

b)

Saddle

c)

Gliding

d)

Ball-and-socket

72.

Infants are often referred to as “Belly Breathers” because:

a)

Their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally

b)

Their intercostal muscles are not fully developed

c)

Their diaphragm does not function efficiently

d)

Their lungs are smaller than those of adults

73.

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is CORRECT?

a)

The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and controls its levels of water and salt

b)

Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and spleen

c)

Since the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of your blood volume passes through them each minute

d)

A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries

74.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

a)

Adequate amount of surfactants

b)

Water and blood within the alveoli

c)

Surfactant destroying organisms

d)

Pulmonary capillary construction

75.

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

a)

Ataxic respirations

b)

Agonal respirations

c)

Apneic Respirations

d)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

76.

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to _____ and carries oxygen

a)

Monocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Thrombocytes

77.

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:

a)

Continuously suctioning the patients with copious oral secretions

b)

Suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx

c)

Removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter

d)

Suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient if the patient is well oxygenated

78.

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is MOST correct?

a)

A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment

b)

Advice given to a patient who refused EMS treatment should not be documented

c)

A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport

d)

Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment

79.

CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) device is indicated for patients who:

a)

Have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately

b)

Are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation

c)

Have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands

d)

Are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume

80.

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume?

a)

Shallow breathing

b)

Deep respirations

c)

Irregular breathing

d)

Agonal respirations

81.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:

a)

The pressure in pulmonary surfaces cause a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus interrupting the exchange of gas in the lungs

b)

A decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels

c)

Blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state

d)

Any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane

82.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:

a)

Corner of the mouth to the earlobe

b)

Center of the mouth to the posterior ear

c)

Corner of the mouth to the superior ear

d)

Angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth

83.

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is generated when:

a)

The cells function without oxygen

b)

Circulating blood glucose levels fall

c)

The cells function with adequate oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high

84.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?

a)

Drug overdose

b)

Inadequate perfusion

c)

Acute anxiety

d)

Poisoning

85.

The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is:

a)

Fracturing the septum

b)

Damaging the cranium

c)

Penetrating the cranium

d)

Causing severe bleeding

86.

Ethnocentrism is defined as:

a)

Understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently

b)

Suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question

c)

Subconsciously forcing your own cultural values onto a patient because you feel that yours are more acceptable

d)

Considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture

87.

In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called:

a)

Perfusion

b)

Respiration

c)

Aerobic metabolism

d)

Anaerobic metabolism

88.

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?

a)

Oral

b)

Rectal

c)

Inhalation

d)

Sublingual

89.

How does positive pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?

a)

There is no effect on cardiac output because the positive pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing

b)

It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output

c)

It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output

d)

It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output

90.

A ___ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency

a)

Duplex

b)

Scanner

c)

Repeater

d)

Decoder

91.

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur the body reacts to a particular:

a)

Medication

b)

Assessment

c)

Disease

d)

Protocol

92.

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by:

a)

Heart rate only

b)

Stroke volume only

c)

Stroke volume and heart rate

d)

The patient's blood pressure

93.

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the patient’s needs is called:

a)

Respiration

b)

Perfusion

c)

Metabolism

d)

Cardiac Output

94.

Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the:

a)

Elasticity of the lungs decreases

b)

Elasticity of the lungs increases

c)

Surface area of the lungs increases

d)

Surface area of the lungs decreases

95.

Which of the following arteries does NOT carry highly oxygenated blood?

a)

Aorta

b)

Renal

c)

Femoral

d)

Pulmonary

96.

The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:

a)

The study of drugs that are produced illegally

b)

The study of how medications affect the brain

c)

The study of drugs and their actions on the body

d)

The study of drug excretion from the human body

97.

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities?

a)

Parietal

b)

Nervous

c)

Endocrine

d)

Musculoskeletal

98.

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?

a)

Expressed

b)

Implicit

c)

Verbal

d)

Written

99.

Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it:

a)

Binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells

b)

Fills the lungs with secretions

c)

Causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide

d)

Destroys the number of circulating red blood cells

100.

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:

a)

Rely solely on glucose, which is completely convert into adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

b)

Cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood

c)

Begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids

d)

Incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood

101.

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include:

a)

ATP and glucose

b)

Glucose and lactic acid

c)

Lactic acid and nitrogen

d)

Carbon dioxide and water

102.

Why does the incidences of diabetes mellitus increase with age?

a)

Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain and decreased blood sugar levels

b)

Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

c)

Increased physical activity, increased food intake and increased insulin production

d)

Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain and decreased blood sugar levels

103.

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the

a)

Sinoatrial node

b)

Bundle of His

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

Atrioventricular node

104.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing treating an injured person of this age, you must recall that:

a)

His ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output

b)

It is not uncommon to observer heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries

c)

Blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can correct easily

d)

Funcitonal blood volume in pateints of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells

105.

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the

a)

Venules

b)

Arteries

c)

Arterioles

d)

Capillaries

106.

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and deph of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

a)

Ataxic respirations

b)

Agonal respirations

c)

Apneic respirations

d)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

107.

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

a)

Muscle

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

Kidney

108.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the

a)

Corner of the mouth to the earlobe

b)

Center of the mouth to the posterior ear

c)

Cornder of hte mouth to the superior ear

d)

Angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth

109.

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it

a)

Can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is secured properly

b)

Is generally well tolerated in conscious patients iwth an intact gag reflect

c)

Effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest

d)

Can maintain a patent iarway in a semiconscious patient with an intact gag reflex

110.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets

c)

Whole blood

d)

Red blood cells

111.

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma particularly significant because:

a)

It typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults

b)

The most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory distress

c)

It often indicates the level of half of his or her blood volume

d)

Most children with hypotension die the prehospital setting

112.

When a child that has a heart rate greater than 60 per minute and pulse but is not breathing effectively, the rescuer should

a)

Give breath and chest compressions

b)

Give breaths without chest compressions

c)

Give chest compressions without breaths

d)

Connect the AED to the child and analyze

113.

The depth of chest compressions for an adult victim should be at least

a)

1 inch (2.5 cm)

b)

2 inches (5 cm)

c)

3 inches (7.5 cm)

d)

4 inches (10 cm)

114.

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur

a)

In patients who are intubated

b)

If you ventilate a patient too fast

c)

When you deliver minimal tidal volume

d)

When the airways is completely obstructed

115.

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month -old infant?

a)

90

b)

100

c)

110

d)

120

116.

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is MOST correct?

a)

AEDs should never be used in children younger than 6 years or less than 55 pounds

b)

AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if sever trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest

c)

AED use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer

d)

AEDs are not used on pediatric patients because they do not experience ventriuclar fibrillation

117.

You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by:

a)

Compressing quickly and releasing slowly

b)

Compressing the sternum between the nipples

c)

Placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid

d)

Depressing the stenum

118.

Which of the following is NOT an indicator to stop CPR?

a)

Pulse and respirations return

b)

You are physically exhausted

c)

A physician directs you to do so

d)

Care is transferred to a bystander

119.

Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should:

a)

Suction the airway

b)

Perform a blind finger sweep

c)

Perform 30 chest compressions

d)

Ventilate again with greater force

120.

In which of the following patients would the head-tilt chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?

a)

A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree

b)

A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

c)

A 45-year-old male who is unresponsive after falling 20 feet

d)

A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

121.

At the scene of an automobile wreck, a utility pole is broken and power lines are lying around the care. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should:

a)

Proceed with normal workplace procedures

b)

Remove the lines with a nonconductive object

c)

Advise the patients to carefully get out of the car

d)

Mark off a danger zone around the downed lines

122.

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

a)

Severe vomitting

b)

Liver laceration

c)

Excessive sweating

d)

Respiratory acidosis

123.

In an acute injury setting ,neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Diaphoresis

d)

Hypothermia

124.

The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person:

a)

Sleeps

b)

Coughs

c)

Takes a deep breath

d)

Holds his or her breath

125.

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure off 100/64 mm HG. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:

a)

Septic shock

b)

Pump failure

c)

A local infection

d)

Hypovolemic shock

126.

You have assessed an unresponsive middle-aged female and determined that she is in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should

a)

Apply the AED pad at least 3" away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns

b)

Continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medicaiton contained in the patch

c)

Move the patch to another area o the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads

d)

Remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication reside, and apply the AED pads

127.

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Rib fractures

b)

Liver laceration

c)

Gastric distention

d)

A fractured sternum

128.

All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock EXCEPT

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Heart Attack

c)

Severe infection

d)

Tachycardia

129.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?

a)

Liver laceration

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Simple pneumothorax

d)

Spinal cord injury

130.

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?

a)

Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against their will

b)

Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

c)

Transfer of patient care to a provider with a lower level of training

d)

Making a fourth answer up for this test because you can

131.

Which of the following clinical signs in unique to anaphylactic shock?

a)

Pallor

b)

Dizziness

c)

Wheezing

d)

Hypotension

132.

What are the letters used regarding the assessment of a patient's mental status?

a)

ABC

b)

AVPU

c)

OPQRST

d)

DCAP-BTLS

133.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct?

a)

Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen

b)

Sensitized people will experience severe reactions upon subsequenct exposure

c)

Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure

d)

Each subsequence exposure following sensitization often produces a more sever reaction

134.

Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is MOST correct?

a)

It is an uncommon dysrhythmia in patients with sudden cardiac arrest

b)

AEDs should not be used to defribilate patients in V-fib

c)

The only indication for immediate defibilation is V-fib

d)

Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persists