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Musculoskeletal Disorders n System Ch. 18 n 77 CH. 8 Skeletal

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CHAPTER 18:

What information should be included in a discussion about long bones? Select all that apply.

a)

They assume a cube shape

b)

Their length is greater than their width

c)

They afford the body additional strength

d)

They provide support for the body with support

e)

Their broad surfaces allow for muscles to attach

2.

A client has axial skeletal fractures. Which bones could possibly be broken in this client? Select all that apply.

a)

Skull

b)

Rib cage

c)

Extremities

d)

Appendages

e)

Vertebral column

3.

Which clients have issues related to red bone marrow? Select all that apply.

a)

Fractured both femurs in a skiing accident

b)

Experienced injury to several thoracic vertebrae

c)

Chronic kidney failure

d)

Hemophilia

e)

Cardiovascular disease

4.

What is the range of movement for a ginglymus joint?

a)

Allows movement in only one plane

b)

Slides against another bone

c)

Moves within a cup-shaped depression in the other bone

d)

Movement that can be shifted in several directions

5.

The medical history identifies that surgery has occurred in the lumbar vertebrae. The nurse should identify the location of a scar in which region?

a)

Neck

b)

Anterior chest

c)

Small of the back

d)

Pelvis

6.

Which information should the nurse include when discussing the spinal deformity called kyphosis? Select all that apply.

a)

Most common in women

b)

Most common during adolescence

c)

Often caused by osteoporosis

d)

Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

e)

Commonly referred to as a 'humpback'

7.

What information should the nurse include in a discussion that focuses on newborn fontanels? Select all that apply.

a)

They allow for newborn skull growth

b)

Initially they are made of membranous material

c)

They allow for the normal increase in brain size

d)

They present as firm areas of the newborn's skull when palpated

e)

They allow for the newborn's head to conform to the shape and size of the birth canal

8.

Which condition is a result of a dysfunction of smooth muscles?

a)

Facial palsy

b)

Clubbed foot

c)

Intestinal blockage

d)

Right-sided heart failure

9.

What is the function of skeletal muscles?

a)

Locomotion

b)

Motion inside body organs

c)

Propelling blood through the heart

d)

Movement through most body structures

10.

A muscle cannot respond to appropriate nerve stimuli. Which muscle characteristic is impaired?

a)

Contractility

b)

Extensibility

c)

Elasticity

d)

Irritability

11.

What occurs to a muscle during isometric exercising?

a)

Shorten and thicken the muscle, causing movement

b)

Involves a long period of less than maximum exertion

c)

Mostly fast twitch muscle fibers are used, at close to maximum contraction strength

d)

Increase muscle tension

12.

Which basic body function is possible because of voluntary muscle control?

a)

Maintaining body in upright position

b)

Maintaining effective respiration

c)

Performing digestion processes

d)

Performing elimination processes

13.

What vitamin should the nurse encourage the client to increase in the diet to minimize the risk of osteomalacia?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

14.

Which factors are important in the generation of body heat? Select all that apply.

a)

Involuntary muscle activity

b)

Cellular muscle activity of ATP

c)

Oxygen

d)

Glycolysis

e)

Lactic acid

15.

What information should the nurse include in a discussion about tendons?

a)

There are the ends of muscle fascia lengthened into tough cords

b)

Responsible for connecting skeletal parts

c)

Strong fibrous bands

d)

Responsible for support of internal organs and other structures

16.

Which ligament attaches the rectus abdominus muscle to the pubic bone?

a)

Henle's ligament

b)

Cruciate ligaments

c)

Arcuate ligament

d)

Medial ligament

17.

What vertebrae ensures that the head can turn freely?

a)

Atlas

b)

Axis

c)

Sacrum

d)

Coccyx

18.

Which injury involves the possible damage to a fixed joint?

a)

A contusion to the knee

b)

A fractured jaw

c)

A blow to the head

d)

A sprained ankle

19.

What is the expected shape of the anterior fontanel in newborn babies?

a)

Flat

b)

Diamond

c)

Cube

d)

Triangular

20.

A client who has been bedridden for a week reports a backache. Which intervention could the nurse perform to alleviate the client's condition?

a)

Recommend exercises for the client's back

b)

Have the client stay in a position that does not cause pain

c)

Have the client lie on the side with the knees flexed

d)

Give the client a backrub

21.

Which condition affecting the musculoskeletal system is the result of normal aging?

a)

Shortening of vertebral column

b)

Occurrence of contractures

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Scoliosis

22.

What term describes the formation of bone caused by an increase in calcified tissue?

a)

Atrophy

b)

Ossification

c)

Reabsorption

d)

Contractures

23.

CHAPTER 77:

Which diagnostic tests confirm the presence of inflammation related to an infection or inflammatory condition? Select all that apply.

a)

Complete blood cell count (CBC)

b)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

c)

C.) Uric acid levels and D.) Blood levels of calcium

d)

Rheumatoid factor (RF)

e)

Creatine kinase (CK)

24.

Which intervention should the nurse implement when providing care of a client pre- and post arthrogram?

a)

Ask the client about sensitivities to food, iodine, latex, or medications.

b)

Ask the client if he or she has metallic implants, such as orthopedic screws.

c)

Ask the client to drink extra fluids to increase excretion of isotope.

d)

Following the test, elevate the client's joint and apply ice to control edema.

25.

Which diagnostic test is used to examine the spinal cord for abnormalities caused by tumors, herniated intervertebral disks, or other lesions?

a)

Arthrogram

b)

Bone scan

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Myelogram

26.

A client is undergoing a procedure to remove a bone spur from his shoulder. For which procedure would the nurse prepare this client?

a)

Arthrogram

b)

Arthrocentesis

c)

Arthroscopy

d)

Bone scan

27.

Which diagnostic test is used to determine whether a client's muscles respond appropriately to stimuli?

a)

Myelogram

b)

Electromyogram

c)

Computed tomography

d)

Magnetic resonance imaging

28.

What discharge teaching should the nurse provide when caring for a client following an arthroscopy procedure of the knee? Select all that apply.

a)

Elevate the knee.

b)

Apply heat to the knee.

c)

Apply ice to the knee.

d)

Monitor knee for signs of infections.

e)

Begin range of motion exercises immediately.

29.

Which treatment should the nurse be prepared to implement to initiate vasodilation and promote healing for a client with severe joint pain?

a)

Hot compresses

b)

Cold compresses

c)

Active range of motion

d)

Immobilization

30.

Which nursing assessment techniques should be implemented when performing a musculoskeletal assessment? Select all that apply.

a)

Palpate skin temperature for warmth.

b)

B.) Percuss soft tissues, joints, and muscles. and E.) Obtain vital signs.

c)

Perform range-of-motion exercises.

d)

Observe emotional response to the assessment.

e)

Observe posture, coordination, and body build.

31.

Which complication is related to the pressure that occurs when an immobilization device is used to stabilize the spinal cord?

a)

Elevated temperature

b)

Elevated leukocyte count

c)

Edema

d)

Hypotension

32.

The nurse is teaching a client who is in a body cast how to perform exercises to reduce the effects of immobilization. Which teaching point is recommended for clients confined to bed?

a)

Too much exercise is better than too little exercise.

b)

Flex and extend the affected joints regularly.

c)

Do not use the trapeze bar for exercise.

d)

Wiggle the fingers or toes of affected extremities.

33.

What nursing intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a client experiencing phantom limb pain?

a)

Explain that the condition is rare and occurs because of infections.

b)

Instruct the client to ask for pain medication, if needed.

c)

Explain that the condition does not interfere with prosthetic fitting.

d)

Encourage the client to place a pillow under the stump when sleeping.

34.

The nurse is caring for a 45-year-old client following amputation of the right leg. Which nursing consideration is appropriate?

a)

Change the compression bandage at least once a day.

b)

Wrap the stump so that it forms a rounded shape.

c)

Change the dressing using clean technique.

d)

Encourage the client to lie in a prone position.

35.

A client is recovering from replantation of a severed arm. Which postoperative intervention should be prescribed?

a)

Thrombin therapy

b)

Adding caffeine to the diet

c)

Administration of antibiotics

d)

Monitor for increased range of motion

36.

Which statement accurately describes lordosis?

a)

Narrowing of the intervertebral space

b)

Abnormal curvature of lumbar vertebrae

c)

Abnormal curvature of thoracic spine

d)

Lateral angulation of the spinal column

37.

A 50-year-old client diagnosed with intervertebral disk disease has to undergo a type of lumbar decompression that exposes the spinal canal and allows for relief of compression of the spinal cord and spinal nerve roots. What is the term used for this procedure?

a)

Diskectomy

b)

Spinal fusion

c)

Laminectomy

d)

Microdiskectomy

38.

Which complication is seen frequently in clients with muscular dystrophy?

a)

Pathologic bone fractures

b)

Muscular spasms

c)

Upper respiratory tract infection

d)

Necrosis of the tissue

39.

Which assessment data support a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

Symptoms intensify during the day.

b)

Positive Tinel sign in affected wrist.

c)

Noted inflammation of the affected wrist joint.

d)

Grip in affected hand is unaffected.

40.

What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client diagnosed with bursitis that has been triggered by gout?

a)

Applying heat to the affected part

b)

Applying cold compresses to the affected part

c)

Providing active range of motion for the affected part

d)

Administering antibiotics as prescribed

41.

A butterfly rash on the face is a characteristic of which condition?

a)

Gout

b)

Scleroderma

c)

Rickets

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

42.

What nursing intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a client with a sprained left ankle?

a)

Apply a warm moist pack within 24 hours.

b)

Lower the ankle to relieve the pain.

c)

Apply an ice pack over the ankle after 48 hours.

d)

Apply an elastic bandage to immobilize the area.

43.

A 3-year old client is diagnosed with a fracture of the ulnar bone. The fracture appears to be on one side of the bone, whereas the other side is bent. What type of fracture does the client have?

a)

Greenstick

b)

Depressed

c)

Compression

d)

Oblique

44.

What intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a client with a simple fracture in the right hand that has been immobilized by a plaster cast?

a)

Handle the wet cast with the fingertips only.

b)

Avoid washing the area around the cast.

c)

To move the arm, grasp the cast on one side only.

d)

Cover the edges of the cast with tape to minimize skin irritation.

45.

A client has just had a cast removed. Which description of the skin should the nurse tell the client to expect?

a)

Scaly

b)

Edematous

c)

Redden

d)

Cyanotic

46.

Which type of skin traction would be used to temporarily stabilize an upper arm fracture before surgery?

a)

Buck' traction

b)

Cervical halter traction

c)

Dunlop traction

d)

Russell traction

47.

What type of fracture would be treated with balanced suspension traction?

a)

Arm

b)

Neck

c)

Back

d)

Femur

48.

A client with a cervical injury is provided with a halo device to stabilize the neck. What intervention should the nurse implement when caring for the client?

a)

Place the client in an antidecubitus bed, if possible.

b)

Tighten the halo device with a wrench if it loosens.

c)

Monitor the client for any difficulty in swallowing.

d)

Instruct the client to stay in bed until the injury heals.

49.

A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone hip replacement surgery. What intervention should the nurse implement to preserve proper postoperative alignment of the hip?

a)

Assist the client to cross the legs as often as possible.

b)

Restrict the client from bending more than 90 degrees.

c)

Assist the client to gently turn the affected leg inward.

d)

Provide back care twice a day when the client is on bed rest.

50.

  1. CHAPTER 8- Skeletal System:

  2. The humerus

a)

  1. is located in the arm.

b)

  1. is distal to the radius and ulna.

c)

  1. articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint.

d)

  1. is a bone of the axial skeleton.

51.

  1. The maxilla

a)

  1. is the cheekbone.

b)

  1. is a cranial bone.

c)

  1. contains the upper teeth.

d)

  1. articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ.

52.

  1. Which bone is found in the skull but is not a facial bone?

a)

  1. Mandible

b)

  1. Maxilla

c)

  1. Occipital

d)

  1. Zygomatic

53.

The zygomatic bone

a)

  1. is a cranial bone.

b)

  1. articulates with the mandible.

c)

  1. holds the upper teeth.

d)

  1. is called the cheekbone.

54.

  1. Which of the following is most descriptive of the atlas and the axis?

a)

  1. Carpal

b)

  1. Vertebral

c)

  1. Coxal

d)

  1. Cranial

55.

  1. The occipital bone

a)

  1. is a facial bone.

b)

  1. contains the foramen magnum.

c)

  1. is the cheekbone.

d)

  1. articulates with the frontal bone at the coronal suture.

56.

  1. Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs?

a)

  1. Acetabulum

b)

  1. True, false, and floating

c)

  1. Supination and pronation

d)

  1. Fontanels

57.

  1. Fontanels

a)

  1. are present in fetal and infant skulls.

b)

  1. allow expansion of the infant skull during growth.

c)

  1. eventually fuse or seal.

d)

  1. involve all of the above.

58.

  1. Which bone is distal to the acetabulum and proximal to the patella?

a)

  1. Femur

b)

  1. Tibia

c)

  1. Fibula

d)

  1. Calcaneus

59.

  1. Which bone is distal to the femur and proximal to the tibia?

a)

  1. Fibula

b)

  1. Patella

c)

  1. Talus

d)

  1. Coxal bone

60.

  1. Which bone is formed by the ischium, ilium, and pubis?

a)

  1. Sacrum

b)

  1. Cranium

c)

  1. Coxal bone

d)

  1. Breastbone

61.

  1. Which of the following is not a bone of the vertebral column?

a)

  1. Atlas

b)

  1. Sacrum

c)

  1. Coccyx

d)

  1. Coxal bone

62.

  1. Which bones form the palm of the hand?

a)

  1. Tarsals

b)

  1. Phalanges

c)

  1. Metacarpals

d)

  1. Metatarsals

63.

  1. Which bones are distal to the radius and ulna and proximal to the metacarpals?

a)

  1. Pollux

b)

  1. Carpals

c)

  1. Tarsals

d)

  1. Hallux

64.

  1. Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone?

a)

  1. Diaphysis

b)

  1. Periosteum

c)

  1. Epiphysis

d)

  1. Medullary cavity

65.

  1. Cancellous refers to a(n)

a)

  1. irregular bone.

b)

  1. cartilage.

c)

  1. spongy bone.

d)

  1. osteon.

66.

  1. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Hip

    b. Knee c. Ankle d. Elbow

a)

  1. Hip

b)

  1. Knee

c)

  1. Ankle

d)

  1. Elbow

67.

  1. At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?

a)

Hip

b)

Knee

c)

Ankle

d)

Wrist

68.

  1. At which joint do the scapula and humerus meet?

a)

Hip

b)

Wrist

c)

Shoulder

d)

Elbow

69.

  1. Injury to the epiphyseal disc of the tibia may

a)

  1. stunt the growth of the injured leg.

b)

  1. stimulate the bone to become cancerous.

c)

  1. inhibit blood cell formation.

d)

  1. cause arthritis.

70.

  1. What do the following terms have in common: arthrosis, arthroplasty, and arthritis?

a)

  1. Are orthopedic surgical procedures

b)

  1. Refer to joints

c)

  1. Are inflammatory joint diseases

d)

  1. Are malignant bone diseases

71.

  1. What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and contains the blood vessels that supply the bone?

a)

  1. Periosteum

b)

  1. Endosteum

c)

  1. Osteon

d)

Articular cartilage

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