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Mitral Stenosis and mitral regurgitation Quiz

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which condition is the leading cause of mitral stenosis worldwide?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Infective endocarditis

c)

Myxoma

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

2.

What is the normal area of the mitral valve orifice in adults?

a)

1–1.5 cm²

b)

2–4 cm²

c)

0.5–1 cm²

d)

5–7 cm²

3.

Which of the following is NOT a common etiology of mitral stenosis?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Mitral annular calcification

c)

Aortic valve disease

d)

Infective endocarditis with large vegetations

4.

In patients with severe mitral stenosis, what is the typical cardiac output (CO) at rest?

a)

Normal or almost so

b)

Markedly elevated

c)

Always below 1 L/min

d)

Unmeasurable

5.

Which of the following statements best explains why the left atrial (LA) pressure is elevated in mitral stenosis?

a)

The mitral valve is unable to close during systole

b)

The orifice area is reduced, impeding blood flow from the LA to the LV

c)

The left ventricle contracts more forcefully

d)

The aortic valve is stenotic

6.

A patient with mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea. Which pathophysiological mechanism is most directly responsible for this symptom?

a)

Decreased pulmonary venous pressure

b)

Elevated pulmonary arterial (PA) wedge pressure

c)

Increased right ventricular output

d)

Decreased left atrial pressure

7.

Which of the following is a late complication of mitral stenosis due to chronic inflammation?

a)

Mitral valve prolapse

b)

Calcification and fusion of the commissures

c)

Aortic regurgitation

d)

Tricuspid stenosis

8.

Why does the incidence of mitral stenosis decrease in high-income countries?

a)

Increased prevalence of aortic valve disease

b)

Reduction in acute rheumatic fever

c)

Higher rates of infective endocarditis

d)

More cases of myxoma

9.

Which of the following is a hemodynamic hallmark of mitral stenosis?

a)

Decreased left atrial pressure

b)

Elevated left atrial pressure gradient

c)

Increased right ventricular ejection fraction

d)

Decreased pulmonary venous pressure

10.

What is the effect of an increased heart rate on the severity of mitral stenosis symptoms?

a)

It lengthens diastole, improving symptoms

b)

It shortens diastole, worsening symptoms

c)

It has no effect on symptoms

d)

It increases left ventricular output

11.

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of severe pulmonary hypertension in patients with mitral stenosis (MS)?

a)

Right-sided heart failure

b)

RV enlargement

c)

Increased oxygen uptake during exercise

d)

Pulmonary regurgitation (PR)

12.

What is the primary cause of pulmonary hypertension in patients with mitral stenosis?

a)

Passive backward transmission of elevated LA pressure

b)

Increased right ventricular contractility

c)

Decreased pulmonary artery compliance

d)

Enhanced oxygen uptake in the lungs

13.

Which physical finding is most likely to be observed in a patient with severe mitral stenosis?

a)

Bounding carotid pulse

b)

Malar flush with pink or blue facies

c)

Clubbing of the fingers

d)

Jugular venous distension during inspiration only

14.

A Graham Steell murmur is associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Pulmonary regurgitation due to pulmonary hypertension

c)

Tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Mitral valve prolapse

15.

Which laboratory examination is most useful for assessing the severity of mitral stenosis and associated valvular lesions?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Echocardiography (TTE)

c)

Complete blood count

d)

Liver function test

16.

A patient with mitral stenosis presents with a loud first heart sound (S1) and an opening snap (OS) that follows the second heart sound (S2). What does a shorter S2-OS interval indicate?

a)

Less severe mitral stenosis

b)

More severe mitral stenosis

c)

Presence of aortic regurgitation

d)

Absence of pulmonary hypertension

17.

Which of the following best describes the changes seen on a chest X-ray in early mitral stenosis?

a)

Straightening of the upper left border of the cardiac silhouette

b)

Hyperinflation of the lungs

c)

Decreased heart size

d)

Calcification of the aortic valve

18.

Which of the following statements about thrombi and emboli in mitral stenosis is correct?

a)

They most commonly form in the right atrium

b)

Systemic embolization is rare in patients with MS

c)

The incidence of embolization increases with age and reduced cardiac output

d)

Thrombi are never found in the left atrial appendage

19.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the murmur associated with mitral stenosis (MS) compared to a murmur caused by mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

The murmur in MS is intensified in pre-systole and becomes softer with administration of vasodilators.

b)

The murmur in MS is always accompanied by a loud S3.

c)

The murmur in MS is best heard at the apex during inspiration.

d)

The murmur in MS is associated with a continuous machinery sound.

20.

What is the primary purpose of performing left and right heart catheterization in patients with mitral stenosis?

a)

To measure blood glucose levels

b)

To assess coronary artery disease and evaluate discrepancies between clinical and noninvasive findings

c)

To determine liver function

d)

To diagnose diabetes mellitus

21.

According to the management algorithm for rheumatic mitral stenosis, what is the recommended intervention for a symptomatic patient with severe MS (MVA ≤1.5 cm²), pliable valve, no clot, and less than moderate MR?

a)

Mitral valve replacement surgery

b)

Percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (PMBC) at a comprehensive valve center (CVC)

c)

Heart transplantation

d)

Medical management only

22.

Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of left atrial myxoma that distinguishes it from mitral stenosis?

a)

Systemic emboli

b)

Weight loss

c)

Diastolic murmur identical to MS

d)

Elevated serum IgG and interleukin 6 (IL-6) concentrations

23.

Why is penicillin prophylaxis recommended for patients with a previous episode of rheumatic fever?

a)

To prevent secondary infection by group A β-hemolytic streptococci

b)

To reduce cholesterol levels

c)

To treat acute heart failure

d)

To prevent pulmonary embolism

24.

A patient with severe mitral stenosis (MVA ≤1.5 cm²) and new onset atrial fibrillation (AF) but no clot and less than moderate MR should be managed with which intervention according to the flowchart?

a)

Mitral valve surgery

b)

PMBC at CVC (2a)

c)

Heart-lung transplant

d)

Medical therapy only

25.

Which medication is recommended to be administered indefinitely to patients with MS who have AF, a history of thromboembolism, or documented LA thrombus?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Vitamin K antagonist therapy (such as warfarin)

c)

Digitalis glycosides

d)

Non–vitamin K oral anticoagulants (e.g., apixaban)

26.

What is the main purpose of performing a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) before percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (PMBC)?

a)

To measure the mitral valve area

b)

To exclude the presence of LA thrombus and assess the degree of MR

c)

To monitor blood pressure during the procedure

d)

To evaluate the patient's heart rate

27.

What is the correct sequence of steps in the Inoue balloon technique for percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy as shown in the diagram?

a)

Inflate balloon in left atrium, then cross mitral valve, then deflate

b)

Advance guide wire, puncture septum, cross mitral valve, inflate balloon

c)

Insert stiffening cannula, inflate balloon in right atrium, then cross mitral valve

d)

Inflate balloon in left ventricle, then cross mitral valve, then deflate

28.

What is the expected hemodynamic change after a successful percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (PMBC) as shown in the pressure and ECG graphs?

a)

Increase in mean mitral gradient and decrease in mitral valve area

b)

Decrease in mean mitral gradient and increase in mitral valve area

c)

No change in mitral valve area or gradient

d)

Increase in both mean mitral gradient and mitral valve area

29.

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication for mitral commissurotomy?

a)

Severe MS with pliable mitral leaflets and little or no commissural calcium

b)

Severe MS with significant subvalvular thickening and LA thrombus

c)

Severe MS with effective orifice area <1.5 cm²/m² body surface area

d)

Severe MS with normal-sized adults and pliable valves

30.

What is the approximate perioperative mortality rate for mitral valve repair procedures such as commissurotomy?

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

2%

d)

0.5%

31.

What is the unaudited operative mortality percentage for isolated mitral valve replacement (MVR) according to Table 26-3?

a)

4.5%

b)

9.6%

c)

11.6%

d)

5.4%

32.

Which of the following is NOT a functional component of the mitral valve apparatus?

a)

Leaflets

b)

Annulus

c)

Papillary muscles

d)

Pulmonary veins

33.

Which of the following is a long-term complication of valve replacement mentioned in the text?

a)

Acute myocardial infarction

b)

Systemic embolization

c)

Valve degeneration

d)

Significant comorbidities

34.

Based on Table 26-4, which of the following is classified as a primary (affecting leaflets, chordae) chronic cause of mitral regurgitation?

a)

Ischemic cardiomyopathy

b)

Myxomatous (MVP, Barlow’s, forme fruste)

c)

Blunt trauma

d)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

35.

A patient with mitral stenosis (MS) and significant associated MR is most likely to benefit from which procedure?

a)

Percutaneous transcatheter intervention

b)

Mitral valve replacement (MVR)

c)

Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

d)

Medical therapy only

36.

Why is the prognosis worse in patients over 65 years of age who undergo mitral valve surgery?

a)

They have higher rates of acute myocardial infarction

b)

They are more likely to have significant comorbidities

c)

They have better left ventricular function

d)

They are less likely to require surgery

37.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between primary and secondary mitral regurgitation?

a)

Primary MR is due to abnormal valve function, while secondary MR is due to abnormal ventricular function.

b)

Primary MR is always acute, while secondary MR is always chronic.

c)

Primary MR is caused by coronary artery disease, while secondary MR is caused by hypertension.

d)

Primary MR is treated with medication, while secondary MR is treated with surgery.

38.

What is the most characteristic auscultatory finding in chronic severe mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

Early diastolic murmur at the left sternal border

b)

Systolic murmur of variable intensity at the apex

c)

Holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla

d)

Opening snap followed by a diastolic rumble

39.

Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with chronic mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

Sudden onset of chest pain

b)

Fatigue and exertional dyspnea

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Syncope

40.

In patients with chronic severe MR, which of the following is typically observed on physical examination?

a)

Loud S2 at the apex

b)

Displaced and hyperdynamic apical impulse

c)

Fixed split S2

d)

Systolic ejection click

41.

Which of the following best describes the compliance of the left atrium (LA) in acute severe mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

LA compliance is increased, resulting in low LA pressure

b)

LA compliance is normal or reduced, resulting in markedly elevated LA pressure

c)

LA compliance is always decreased, resulting in low pulmonary venous pressure

d)

LA compliance is increased, resulting in decreased regurgitant volume

42.

Which diagnostic tool is most useful for measuring the effective regurgitant orifice area in mitral regurgitation?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

Cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) imaging

c)

Doppler echocardiographic examination

d)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

43.

What is the primary hemodynamic consequence of severe mitral regurgitation on the left ventricle (LV)?

a)

Decreased LV preload

b)

Increased LV afterload

c)

Increased LV volume overload

d)

Decreased LV contractility

44.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the murmur in acute severe mitral regurgitation compared to chronic MR?

a)

The murmur is holosystolic and radiates to the axilla

b)

The murmur is short, early systolic, and may be soft or absent

c)

The murmur is always accompanied by a loud S1

d)

The murmur is best heard at the right upper sternal border

45.

Which diagnostic tool is primarily used to assess the mechanism and hemodynamic severity of mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

Chest X-Ray

b)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c)

Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE)

d)

Cardiac catheterization

46.

What is a common ECG finding in patients with sinus rhythm and chronic severe MR?

a)

Right atrial (RA) enlargement

b)

Left atrial (LA) enlargement

c)

Right ventricular (RV) hypertrophy

d)

Left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy

47.

Which of the following is NOT a typical finding on chest X-ray in late chronic MR?

a)

Enlarged left atrium (LA)

b)

Enlarged left ventricle (LV)

c)

Marked calcification of the mitral leaflets

d)

Decreased pulmonary venous congestion

48.

According to the management flowchart for primary MR, what is the recommended intervention for a patient with severe MR, symptoms due to MR (Stage D), and high or prohibitive surgical risk?

a)

MV surgery

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge MV repair

c)

Medical management only

d)

Chest X-ray monitoring

49.

Which of the following statements best describes the role of anticoagulation in the management of chronic severe MR?

a)

Anticoagulation should be provided to all patients with MR.

b)

Anticoagulation is only indicated if atrial fibrillation (AF) intervenes or as guided by risk scores.

c)

Anticoagulation is never indicated in MR.

d)

Anticoagulation is indicated only in acute MR.

50.

Why might transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) be preferred over TTE in some cases of MR?

a)

TEE is less invasive than TTE.

b)

TEE provides greater anatomic detail and can assess exercise capacity.

c)

TEE is used only for initial diagnosis.

d)

TEE is not useful for dynamic changes in MR severity.

51.

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for patients with secondary mitral regurgitation and left ventricular ejection fraction (LV EF) ≥50% who have persistent symptoms on optimal guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) and atrial fibrillation (AF) therapy?

a)

Mitral valve (MV) surgery (2b)

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge MV repair (2a)

c)

Undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

d)

No further treatment required

52.

According to the management algorithm, what is the next step for a patient with secondary mitral regurgitation, severe MR Stage D, LV EF <50%, and mitral anatomy favorable for intervention?

a)

MV surgery (2b)

b)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge MV repair (2a)

c)

Undergoing CABG

d)

Continue only with GDMT

53.

Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with mitral valve replacement compared to mitral valve repair?

a)

Higher risk of prosthetic valve complications

b)

Lower risk of late valve failure

c)

Increased risk of endocarditis

d)

Need for lifelong anticoagulation

54.

What is the unadjusted operative mortality rate for isolated mitral valve repair (MVR) according to Table 264-2?

a)

9.6%

b)

4.5%

c)

12.4%

d)

6.3%

55.

Why might transcatheter edge-to-edge repair (TEER) be preferred over mitral valve replacement in some patients with secondary mitral regurgitation?

a)

TEER is less invasive and preserves the integrity of the papillary muscles and subvalvular apparatus.

b)

TEER has a higher long-term mortality rate.

c)

TEER requires open-heart surgery.

d)

TEER is only used for patients with normal left ventricular function.

56.

A patient with secondary mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic but has a history of myocardial infarction and sinus rhythm with normal LV size and systolic function. What is the recommended management?

a)

Immediate mitral valve surgery

b)

Continue guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT)

c)

Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair

d)

Cardiac transplantation

57.

Which of the following is a benefit of mitral valve repair over replacement in patients with myxomatous mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

Lower perioperative mortality rates

b)

Higher risk of stroke

c)

Increased risk of left atrial appendage amputation

d)

Greater need for anticoagulation

58.

What is the primary purpose of using a clip in transcatheter mitral valve repair?

a)

To grasp the leading edges of the mitral leaflets and reduce regurgitation

b)

To replace the entire mitral valve

c)

To measure the thickness of the mitral valve

d)

To deliver medication directly to the heart

59.

Which of the following is NOT a typical surgical procedure for patients with ischemic mitral regurgitation (MR)?

a)

Simultaneous coronary artery revascularization

b)

Annuloplasty repair with an undersized ring

c)

Mitral valve replacement for patients with moderate or greater degrees of MR

d)

Aortic valve replacement for all patients

60.

Why might left and right heart catheterization and left ventriculography be helpful before surgical treatment of MR?

a)

To confirm the presence of severe MR in patients with inconclusive clinical and TTE findings

b)

To replace the mitral valve

c)

To measure blood sugar levels

d)

To assess kidney function

61.

Which of the following statements best describes the use of transcatheter edge-to-edge repair (TEER) for mitral regurgitation?

a)

TEER is a minimally invasive procedure that uses a clip to grasp the mitral leaflets and is suitable for both primary and secondary MR in selected patients.

b)

TEER is a surgical procedure that replaces the entire mitral valve.

c)

TEER is only used for aortic valve disease.

d)

TEER is a diagnostic imaging technique.

62.

A patient with severe secondary MR and heart failure is being considered for TEER. What is a key factor in determining their suitability for this procedure?

a)

Detailed assessment of surgical risk, comorbidities, and echocardiographic imaging

b)

Blood glucose levels

c)

Family history of hypertension

d)

Age alone

63.

Which of the following is a primary (organic) cause of tricuspid regurgitation?

a)

Rheumatic

b)

Endocarditis

c)

Myxomatous (TVP)

d)

All of the above

64.

What is the most common cause of tricuspid stenosis?

a)

Congenital

b)

Rheumatic

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Radiation

65.

Which physical finding is most likely to be observed in a patient with severe tricuspid stenosis?

a)

Jugular venous distention

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Clubbing of fingers

66.

What is the typical characteristic of the diastolic murmur of tricuspid stenosis?

a)

It is best heard at the left sternal border and increases with inspiration

b)

It is best heard at the apex and increases with expiration

c)

It is best heard at the right upper sternal border and decreases with inspiration

d)

It is best heard at the left lower sternal border and decreases with expiration

67.

Which laboratory examination finding is most suggestive of right atrial enlargement?

a)

Tall, peaked P waves in lead II

b)

Inverted T waves in lead V1

c)

Low voltage QRS complexes

d)

ST segment depression in lead III

68.

What is the most common etiology of secondary (functional) tricuspid regurgitation?

a)

Rheumatic heart disease

b)

Endocarditis

c)

Right ventricular dilation and leaflet tethering

d)

Papillary muscle injury

69.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of mild or moderate tricuspid regurgitation?

a)

Heart failure due to left-sided valve lesions

b)

Fatigue

c)

Edema

d)

Severe hypertension

70.

What is the main hemodynamic consequence of severe tricuspid regurgitation?

a)

Increased left ventricular afterload

b)

Reduced forward cardiac output

c)

Increased pulmonary venous pressure

d)

Decreased right atrial pressure

71.

Which of the following statements about the treatment of tricuspid stenosis is correct?

a)

Surgical relief is best carried out at the time of mitral valve surgery

b)

Medical therapy is always sufficient

c)

Percutaneous tricuspid balloon commissurotomy is the first-line treatment

d)

Mechanical valves are preferred over bioprosthetic valves in all cases

72.

What is the effect of inspiration on the murmur of tricuspid stenosis?

a)

It is augmented

b)

It is reduced

c)

It disappears completely

d)

It becomes a systolic murmur

73.

What does the ECG finding of tall, peaked P waves in lead II most likely indicate?

a)

Right atrial enlargement

b)

Left ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Atrial fibrillation

d)

Myocardial infarction