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Aortic Regurgitation Quiz

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a valvular etiology of aortic regurgitation?

a)

Congenital (Bicuspid)

b)

Endocarditis

c)

Aortic dissection

d)

Rheumatic fever

2.

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation?

a)

Decreased left ventricular end-diastolic volume

b)

Increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume and pressure

c)

Decreased preload in the left ventricle

d)

Increased right ventricular afterload

3.

Which of the following is a typical symptom in patients with chronic severe aortic regurgitation?

a)

Sudden chest pain

b)

Palpitations during exertion or with emotion

c)

Acute onset of hemiplegia

d)

Severe abdominal pain

4.

A patient with chronic aortic regurgitation is most likely to develop which of the following over time?

a)

Rapid onset of pulmonary edema

b)

Gradual left ventricular dilation and hypertrophy

c)

Acute myocardial infarction

d)

Sudden cardiac tamponade

5.

Which of the following statements about chronic severe aortic regurgitation is TRUE?

a)

Patients usually present with acute symptoms and require immediate surgery.

b)

The left ventricle cannot dilate sufficiently to maintain stroke volume.

c)

Symptoms may be absent for many years before the development of exertional dyspnea.

d)

Coronary blood flow is always increased.

6.

Which of the following is a non-valvular etiology of aortic regurgitation?

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Rheumatic fever

c)

Aortitis

d)

Myxomatous (prolapse)

7.

What is the effect of increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) in aortic regurgitation?

a)

It decreases the forward stroke volume.

b)

It constitutes the major hemodynamic compensation for aortic regurgitation.

c)

It causes immediate heart failure.

d)

It reduces the need for coronary perfusion.

8.

Which of the following is a common finding in the history of patients with chronic severe aortic regurgitation?

a)

Sudden loss of consciousness

b)

Long latent period with gradual onset of symptoms

c)

Immediate development of pulmonary edema

d)

Acute pericarditis

9.

Which of the following is a possible complication of myocardial ischemia in patients with aortic regurgitation?

a)

Increased coronary blood flow

b)

Decreased oxygen demand by the left ventricle

c)

Coronary blood flow may be compromised

d)

Reduced left ventricular hypertrophy

10.

Which of the following is a characteristic physical finding in chronic severe aortic regurgitation (AR)?

a)

Jarring of the entire body and bobbing motion of the head with each systole

b)

Swelling of the ankles only

c)

Cyanosis of the lips

d)

Clubbing of the fingers

11.

What is the typical quality of the arterial pulse in patients with severe aortic regurgitation?

a)

Slow-rising and weak

b)

Rapidly rising "water-hammer" pulse

c)

Irregularly irregular

d)

Thready and faint

12.

Which heart sound is associated with aortic regurgitation and is best heard at the left sternal border?

a)

Systolic ejection murmur

b)

High-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur

c)

Mid-systolic click

d)

Opening snap

13.

What is the Austin Flint murmur, and in which condition is it heard?

a)

A soft, low-pitched, mid-to-late diastolic murmur heard in aortic regurgitation

b)

A harsh systolic murmur heard in mitral stenosis

c)

A continuous murmur heard in patent ductus arteriosus

d)

A loud S1 heard in tricuspid regurgitation

14.

Which laboratory examination is most useful in detecting the impact of aortic regurgitation on the heart?

a)

Complete blood count

b)

Echocardiogram

c)

Liver function test

d)

Urinalysis

15.

A patient with chronic severe aortic regurgitation is likely to have which of the following findings on chest x-ray?

a)

Displacement of the apex downward and to the left

b)

Pulmonary edema only

c)

Right atrial enlargement

d)

Normal heart size

16.

Which imaging modality is most sensitive for the detection of root and ascending aortic aneurysm in aortic regurgitation?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (CMR)

c)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d)

Abdominal ultrasound

17.

What is the initial treatment approach for acute aortic regurgitation?

a)

Intravenous diuretics and vasodilators

b)

Beta-blockers only

c)

Immediate surgical valve replacement in all cases

d)

Anticoagulation therapy

18.

Which of the following is a key echocardiographic criterion for diagnosing severe aortic regurgitation (AR)?

a)

LVESD < 50 mm

b)

Regurgitant fraction (RF) ≥ 50%

c)

Ejection fraction (EF) > 60%

d)

ERO < 0.3 cm²

19.

According to the management flowchart, what is the recommended intervention for a symptomatic patient with severe aortic regurgitation and an ejection fraction (EF) ≤ 55%?

a)

AVR (Aortic Valve Replacement)

b)

Observation only

c)

Beta blocker therapy

d)

Diuretic therapy

20.

Which of the following medications is considered relatively contraindicated in patients with chronic aortic regurgitation due to concern that slowing of the heart rate may worsen diastolic regurgitation?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Nitrates

21.

What is the primary goal of medical treatment in patients with chronic aortic regurgitation who are not immediate candidates for surgery?

a)

To increase afterload

b)

To reduce afterload and enhance LV ejection

c)

To increase preload

d)

To induce bradycardia

22.

A patient with chronic aortic regurgitation and Marfan’s syndrome is being considered for medical therapy. Which medication may be useful to retard the rate of aortic root enlargement?

a)

ARBs (Angiotensin receptor blockers)

b)

Nitrates

c)

Digoxin

d)

Diuretics

23.

Why should patients with severe aortic regurgitation and associated aortopathy avoid isometric exercises?

a)

They increase afterload and may worsen regurgitation

b)

They decrease heart rate excessively

c)

They cause hypovolemia

d)

They improve diastolic function

24.

Which of the following is the primary indication for aortic valve replacement (AVR) in patients with chronic severe aortic regurgitation (AR)?

a)

Presence of mild symptoms only

b)

Symptomatic patients irrespective of LV function

c)

Asymptomatic patients with normal LV function

d)

Only after the development of severe symptoms

25.

At what interval is echocardiographic follow-up recommended for patients with chronic severe AR to determine the optimal timing for surgery?

a)

Every 2-3 years

b)

Every 1-2 months

c)

Every 6-12 months

d)

Every 5 years

26.

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for considering surgery in asymptomatic patients with severe AR?

a)

LV ejection fraction <55% on serial studies

b)

LV end-systolic dimension >50 mm

c)

LV diastolic dimension >65 mm

d)

LV ejection fraction >60% on serial studies

27.

What is the main advantage of exercise testing in the management of chronic severe AR?

a)

It replaces the need for echocardiography

b)

It helps to assess effort tolerance more objectively

c)

It eliminates the need for surgery

d)

It is only useful after severe symptoms develop

28.

Which surgical procedure is generally not recommended for patients with severe AR who are at surgical risk?

a)

Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI)

b)

Valve-sparing aortic root reconstruction

c)

Aortic valve replacement with a mechanical prosthesis

d)

Aortic valve replacement with a biological prosthesis

29.

A patient with AR due to a proximal ascending aorta aneurysm may benefit from which surgical approach to reduce or eliminate regurgitation?

a)

Valve-sparing aortic root reconstruction

b)

Mitral valve repair

c)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

d)

Pacemaker implantation

30.

Illustration of the steps involved in valve-sparing aortic root reconstruction (David procedure), showing resection of the aortic root and proximal ascending aorta, mobilization of coronary artery buttons, placement of subannular sutures, and reimplantation of the valve inside the graft.

a)

Diagram of mitral valve repair

b)

Diagram of valve-sparing aortic root reconstruction (David procedure)

c)

Diagram of coronary artery bypass grafting

d)

Diagram of pacemaker implantation

31.

Why might primary surgical repair be possible in cases of AR due to thoracic trauma?

a)

Because the valve is always completely destroyed

b)

Because the lesion is often limited to the attachments of the aortic annulus

c)

Because the patient is always asymptomatic

d)

Because the aorta is never involved

32.

Which condition is the leading cause of mitral stenosis (MS)?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Infective endocarditis

c)

Myxoma

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

33.

What is the normal area of the mitral valve orifice in adults?

a)

4–6 cm²

b)

1–2 cm²

c)

7–9 cm²

d)

0.5–1 cm²

34.

Which of the following is NOT a major cause of mitral stenosis listed in Table 26-3?

a)

Rheumatic fever

b)

Severe mitral annular calcification with leaflet involvement

c)

Systemic hypertension

d)

Infective endocarditis with large vegetations

35.

In patients with severe mitral stenosis, what is the typical mitral valve orifice size?

a)

Less than 1.5 cm²

b)

2–3 cm²

c)

4–6 cm²

d)

Greater than 6 cm²

36.

Which of the following statements best explains why patients with mitral stenosis may develop pulmonary congestion?

a)

Elevated left atrial pressure leads to increased pulmonary venous pressure.

b)

Decreased right ventricular output causes blood to back up in the lungs.

c)

Increased aortic pressure forces fluid into the lungs.

d)

Reduced mitral valve area increases systemic vascular resistance.

37.

Why does the left atrial (LA) pressure increase in mitral stenosis?

a)

The mitral valve orifice is narrowed, impeding blood flow from the LA to the LV.

b)

The aortic valve is stenotic, causing backflow into the LA.

c)

The right ventricle is hypertrophied, compressing the LA.

d)

The pulmonary veins are dilated, increasing LA inflow.

38.

A patient with mitral stenosis is found to have a left atrial pressure of 25 mmHg. What does this finding most likely indicate?

a)

Severe mitral stenosis

b)

Mild mitral stenosis

c)

Normal mitral valve function

d)

Aortic regurgitation

39.

Which of the following is a common late complication of mitral stenosis due to chronic inflammation?

a)

Calcification of the mitral valve leaflets

b)

Aortic aneurysm

c)

Left ventricular hypertrophy

d)

Pulmonary embolism

40.

What is the effect of an increase in heart rate on the pressure gradient across the mitral valve in mitral stenosis?

a)

It increases the pressure gradient and reduces the time for flow across the mitral valve.

b)

It decreases the pressure gradient and increases the time for flow.

c)

It has no effect on the pressure gradient.

d)

It only affects the right atrial pressure.

41.

Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of mitral stenosis?

a)

Obstruction of blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle due to a narrowed mitral valve orifice.

b)

Regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole.

c)

Obstruction of blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

d)

Regurgitation of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle.