WorksheetsPRC-NOTES_3MT_P3
Total questions: 148
Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
It is part of the normal intestinal flora; UTI, and occasionally other infections. They are also often RESISTANT to antimicrobial therapy.
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
2.
Formerly belongs to Escherichia family
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
3.
Which of the following is associated with Shigella-like diarrhea?
a)
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
b)
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
4.
Which of the following is associated with Shigella-like toxin?
a)
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
b)
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
5.
Which of the following is associated with Cholera-like toxin?
a)
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
b)
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
6.
It is typically isolated from the environment and many cold-blooded and warm blooded animals including reptiles, freshwater and aquarium fish, frogs, and turtles.
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
7.
Edwardsiella spp.
a)
Lactose fermenters
b)
Non-lactose fermenter
8.
Escherichia coli
a)
Lactose fermenters
b)
Non-lactose fermenter
9.
Escherichia coli
a)
H2S Positive
b)
H2S Negative
10.
pH indicator of XLD (Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate) agar
a)
Phenol red
b)
Neutral red
c)
Bromcresol purple
d)
Bromothymol blue
11.
Which of the following medium is a SELECTIVE medium for Salmonella spp.?
a)
Selenite F, tetrathionate broth
b)
Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate agar (XLD)
c)
Hektoen Enteric Agar (HEA)
d)
Bismuth Sulfite Agar (BSA)
e)
Salmonella-Shigella Agar
12.
Which of the following medium is a SELECTIVE/DIFFERENTIAL medium for Salmonella spp.that yields BLACK colonies on the aforementioned organism?
a)
Selenite F, tetrathionate broth
b)
Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate agar (XLD)
c)
Hektoen Enteric Agar (HEA)
d)
Bismuth Sulfite Agar (BSA)
e)
Salmonella-Shigella Agar
13.
Edwardsiella spp.
a)
H2S Positive
b)
H2S Negative
14.
Sources of infection of this microorganism include water, milk, dairy products, shellfish from contaminated water, dried or frozen eggs, meat and meat products and household pets.
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
15.
Shigella produces this disease on the intestinal tract of humans and other primates.
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
16.
Salmonella cholerasuis is associated with which gastrointestinal disease?
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
17.
Most common disease associated with Salmonella spp.
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
18.
Typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi is characterized by..
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
19.
most important cause
a)
Salmonella paratyphi A
b)
Salmonella paratyphi B
c)
Salmonella cholerasuis
d)
Salmonella typhi
e)
Salmonella typhimurium
20.
Most common manifestation of salmonella infection is caused by..
a)
Salmonella paratyphi A
b)
Salmonella paratyphi B
c)
Salmonella cholerasuis
d)
Salmonella typhi
e)
Salmonella typhimurium
21.
Specimen of choice for Salmonella infection in the 1st week
a)
Blood
b)
Urine or stool
c)
Serum
22.
Specimen of choice for Salmonella infection in the 2nd week
a)
Blood
b)
Urine or stool
c)
Serum
23.
Specimen of choice for Salmonella infection in the 3rd week
a)
Blood
b)
Urine or stool
c)
Serum
24.
In Widal's test, which antibody that depicts >= 1:160 is indicative that the patient has past infection or immunization?
a)
O
b)
H
25.
Widal's test is characterized as a tube dilution agglutination test wherein at least ___ serum specimens obtained within 7 to 10 days are collected to prove a rise in an antibody titer
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
26.
In Widal's test, which antibody that depicts >= 1:160 is indicative that the patient has active infection in the present?
a)
O
b)
H
27.
Which of the following tests would best differentiate Morganella spp. and Providencia spp.?
a)
Urease
b)
TSI
c)
Ornithine
d)
Indole
28.
Which of the following tests would best differentiate Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris?
a)
Urease
b)
TSI
c)
Ornithine
d)
Indole
29.
Morganella spp.
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
30.
Providencia spp.
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
31.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
32.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
33.
Morganella spp.
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
34.
Providencia spp.
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
35.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
36.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
37.
Morganella spp.
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
38.
Providencia spp.
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
39.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
40.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
41.
Morganella spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
42.
Providencia spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
43.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
44.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
45.
Which of the following shows VARIABLE result in H2S test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
46.
Which of the following shows VARIABLE result in H2S test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
47.
Which of the following shows POSITIVE result in ODC test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
48.
Which test would differentiate S. cholerasuis from S. paratyphi?
a)
H2S
b)
ODC
c)
LDC
49.
Which test would BEST differentiate S. cholerasuis from S. typhi?
a)
H2S
b)
ODC
c)
LDC
50.
Which of the following shows POSITIVE result in LDC test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
51.
S. cholerasuis
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S negative
c)
H2S variable
52.
S. paratyphi
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S negative
c)
H2S variable
53.
S. typhi
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S negative
c)
H2S variable
54.
S. cholerasuis
a)
ODC positive
b)
ODC negative
55.
S. paratyphi
a)
ODC positive
b)
ODC negative
56.
S. typhi
a)
ODC positive
b)
ODC negative
57.
S. cholerasuis
a)
LDC positive
b)
LDC negative
58.
S. paratyphi
a)
LDC positive
b)
LDC negative
59.
S. typhi
a)
LDC positive
b)
LDC negative
60.
Group type is A
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
61.
Blood in stool
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
62.
Group type is B
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
63.
Group type is C
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
64.
Group type is D
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
65.
Which of the following is the only CATALASE NEGATIVE (-) in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
66.
Which of the following is the only ONPG POSITIVE (+) in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
67.
Which of the following is the only MANNITOL NEGATIVE (-) in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
68.
Which of the following is the only NEGATIVE (-) spp. in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
69.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
70.
Shigella flexneri
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
71.
Shigella boydii
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
72.
Shigella sonnei
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
73.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
74.
Shigella flexneri
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
75.
Shigella boydii
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
76.
Shigella sonnei
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
77.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
78.
Shigella flexneri
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
79.
Shigella boydii
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
80.
Shigella sonnei
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
81.
Which of the following organism is motile?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
82.
Which of the following organism is H2S NEGATIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
83.
Which of the following organism is LOA NEGATIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
84.
Which of the following organism is Indole POSITIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
85.
Which of the following organism is INVASIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
86.
Which of the following organism is related to Escherichia coli (EHEC)?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
87.
Which of the following organism is nonmotile?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
88.
Which of the following organism is H2S VARIABLE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
89.
Which of the following organism is LOA POSITIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
90.
Which of the following organism is INDOLE NEGATIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
91.
Which of the following organism is NON-INVASIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
92.
Which of the following organism is related to Citrobacter spp.?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
93.
Salmonella spp.
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S variable
c)
H2S negative
94.
Shigella spp.
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S variable
c)
H2S negative
95.
Salmonella spp.
a)
K/A (LDC+)
b)
K/A (LDC-)
96.
Shigella spp.
a)
K/A (LDC+)
b)
K/A (LDC-)
97.
Salmonella spp.
a)
LOA positive
b)
LOA negative
98.
Shigella spp.
a)
LOA positive
b)
LOA negative
99.
Salmonella spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
100.
Shigella spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
101.
Salmonella spp.
a)
Invasive
b)
Non-invasive
102.
Shigella spp.
a)
Invasive
b)
Non-invasive
103.
Salmonella spp. is related to...
a)
Citrobacter spp.
b)
Escherichia coli
104.
Shigella spp. is related to...
a)
Citrobacter spp.
b)
Escherichia coli
105.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a)
Obligate aerobe
b)
Obligate anaerobe
c)
Aerotolerant
d)
Facultative anaerobe
e)
Capnophile
106.
Vibrio spp.
a)
Obligate aerobe
b)
Obligate anaerobe
c)
Aerotolerant
d)
Facultative anaerobe
e)
Capnophile
107.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a)
Motile
b)
Nonmotile
108.
green, sometimes a metallic sheen
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
109.
brick-red. especially at room temperature
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
110.
blue
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
111.
purple
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
112.
brown to black (anaerobic)
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
113.
OXIDASE POSITIVE
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
114.
Monotrichous
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
115.
Grows well at 37 to 42 degree Celsius
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
116.
Does not ferment carbohydrates
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
117.
Causes glanders disease, a diseases of horses and similar animals transmissible to humans
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
118.
Meliodosis
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
119.
Vietnamese timebomb
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
120.
endemic glander's like disease of animals and humans
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
121.
Caused by Burkholderia mallei
a)
Glander's disease
b)
Cholera
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Meliodosis
122.
Caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
a)
Glander's disease
b)
Cholera
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Meliodosis
123.
blue pigment
a)
Pyocyanin
b)
Pyoverdin
c)
Prodigiosin
124.
green pigment
a)
Pyocyanin
b)
Pyoverdin
c)
Prodigiosin
125.
red pigment
a)
Pyocyanin
b)
Pyoverdin
c)
Prodigiosin
126.
Vibrio spp.
a)
Peritrichous
b)
Monotrichous
c)
Petrichous
d)
Atrichous
127.
rice watery stool
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
128.
cultured on APW and TCBS
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
129.
string test (+)
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
130.
reayemt ised is 0.5% sodium deoxycholate
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
131.
clinical significance include wound and ear infections
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
132.
sucrose fermentation positive
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
133.
clinical significance include gastroenteritis, usually, assoicated with contaminated seafood
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
134.
sucrose fermentation negative
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
135.
Vibrio alginolyticus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
136.
Vibrio mimicus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
137.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
138.
gastroenteritis and ear infections associated with marine environment
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
139.
septicemia and wound infections involving marine environment
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
140.
non-halophilic
a)
V. mimicus
b)
V. cholerae
c)
V. parahaemolyticus
d)
V. vulnificus
141.
Red cell hemolysis: classical
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
142.
VP: classical
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
143.
Agglutination with chicken RBCs: classical
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
144.
Agglutination with chicken RBCs: El tor
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
145.
VP: El tor
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
146.
Red cell hemolysis: El tor
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
147.
Classical: Polymyxin B
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
148.
El Tor: Polymyxin B
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
100 %
