WorksheetsPRC-NOTES_4MT_P1
Total questions: 153
Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Also known as Koch's bacillus
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium bovis
2.
Microscopically, the human tubercle bacillus is highly resistant to drying, when protected from sunlight they remain in ___ for weeks
a)
blood
b)
sputum
c)
nasopharyngeal swab
d)
bronchoalveolar wash
3.
How many weeks does Mycobacterium tuberculosis remain in purifying sputum?
a)
days
b)
weeks
c)
months (approx. 6 to 8 months)
d)
years
4.
How many weeks does Mycobacterium tuberculosis remain in dried sputum?
a)
days
b)
weeks
c)
months (approx. 6 to 8 months)
d)
years
5.
Droplets of dried sputum in the air may remain infectious for how many days?
a)
3 to 5 days
b)
6 to 8 days
c)
8 to 10 days
d)
15 to 30 days
6.
Organisms of cultured Mycobacterium are killed within how many hours when exposed to sunlight?
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
3 hours
d)
4 hours
7.
Organisms of Mycobacterium from SPUTUM takes how many hours of exposure to sunlight before it gets killed?
a)
24 hours
b)
15 to 20 hours
c)
20 to 30 hours
d)
48 to 72 hours
8.
Mycobacterium are specifically difficult to disinfect in sputum which requires how many hours of exposure in 5% phenol?
a)
24 hours
b)
15 to 20 hours
c)
20 to 30 hours
d)
48 to 72 hours
9.
Mycobacterium are easily killed by moist heat; boiling for 10 minutes, pasteurization or steam under pressure.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
Tuberculosis usually begins in this area; other areas for dissemination include the spine, and long bones.
a)
Upper lung
b)
Middle or lower lung
c)
Large intestines
d)
Small intestines
11.
Microphages phagocytize the bacteria and form multi-nucleated cells, which are eventually surrounded by fibroid cells. Calcify at which point they are called...
a)
Gone complex
b)
Ghon complex
c)
Gholn complex
d)
Gohn complex
e)
Tubercles
12.
Decalcified granulomatous lesion
a)
Gone complex
b)
Ghon complex
c)
Gholn complex
d)
Gohn complex
e)
Tubercles
13.
Permanently found in the lungs
a)
Gone complex
b)
Ghon complex
c)
Gholn complex
d)
Gohn complex
e)
Tubercles
14.
Granulomatous lesion in Xray is called...
a)
Gone complex
b)
Ghon complex
c)
Gholn complex
d)
Gohn complex
e)
Tubercles
15.
Sputum criteria; serves as the basis for sputum analysis; if it doesn't meet this particular criteria, specimen is most likely saliva. Reject and/or discard the sample and order recollection.
a)
>=10 PMNS, <=25 epithelial cells
b)
<= 25 PMNs, <=10 epithelial cells
c)
>=25 PMNs, <= 10 epithelial cells
d)
>=25 PMNs, >=10 epithelial cels
16.
heat-killed ammonium sulfate; precipitated organism is injected intradermally and a positive result shows redness aka erythema after 48 hours.
a)
PPD
b)
E-test
c)
Nagler test
d)
Novobiocin test
e)
Optochin test
17.
used for confirmation after tuberculosis skin test yielded positive results.
a)
AFB culture
b)
AFB smear
c)
AFB stain
d)
AFB wala lang
18.
Streptomycin
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
19.
Isoniazid
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
20.
Rifampin
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
21.
Ethambutol
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
22.
Pyrazinamide
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
23.
Ethionamide
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
24.
Capreomycin
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
25.
CIproflaxacin
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
26.
Kanamycin
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
27.
Cycloserine
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
28.
Rifabutin
a)
Primary drugs
b)
Secondary drugs
29.
N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
30.
2-4% NaOH
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
31.
NaOH
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
32.
Benzalkonium chloride
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
33.
Zephiran
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
34.
Trisodium phosphate
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
35.
Dithiothreitol
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
36.
used to breakdown the cell debris including the mucus to better visualize MTB
a)
Digesting agents
b)
Decontaminating agent
37.
selective culture medium for MTB
a)
Lowenstein-Jensen
b)
Petragani
c)
American Thoracic Society
d)
Middlebrook 7h10 and 7h11
38.
contains higher concentrations of malachite green
a)
Lowenstein-Jensen
b)
Petragani
c)
American Thoracic Society
d)
Middlebrook 7h10 and 7h11
39.
an organization that provide recommendations and guidelines on respiratory diseases
a)
Lowenstein-Jensen
b)
Petragani
c)
American Thoracic Society
d)
Middlebrook 7h10 and 7h11
40.
prepared if patient developed resistance on MTB strain; used for drug-resistant strain
a)
Lowenstein-Jensen
b)
Petragani
c)
American Thoracic Society
d)
Middlebrook 7h10 and 7h11
41.
isolation of MTB takes how many weeks?
a)
1 week
b)
2 weeks
c)
4 weeks
d)
8 weeks
42.
colonies of MTB
a)
stalactite appearance
b)
cauliflower appearance
c)
bull's eye appearance
d)
fried egg appearance
43.
Hot method
a)
Ziel-Neelsen
b)
Kinyoun
c)
Fite-Faraco's
d)
Auramine-rhodamine stain
44.
Cold method
a)
Ziel-Neelsen
b)
Kinyoun
c)
Fite-Faraco's
d)
Auramine-rhodamine stain
45.
uses hematoxylin as a counterstain
a)
Ziel-Neelsen
b)
Kinyoun
c)
Fite-Faraco's
d)
Auramine-rhodamine stain
46.
MTB demonstrates yellow green fluorescence on this stain
a)
Ziel-Neelsen
b)
Kinyoun
c)
Fite-Faraco's
d)
Auramine-rhodamine stain
47.
AKA Truant's
a)
Ziel-Neelsen
b)
Kinyoun
c)
Fite-Faraco's
d)
Auramine-rhodamine stain
48.
color of AFB on Spenglers
a)
Black
b)
Red
c)
Blue
49.
color of AFB on Pappenheims
a)
Black
b)
Red
c)
Blue
50.
color of M. smegmatis on Pappenheims
a)
Black
b)
Red
c)
Blue
51.
color of MTB on Baumgartens
a)
Black
b)
Red
c)
Blue
52.
color of M. leprae on Baumgartens
a)
Black
b)
Red
c)
Blue
53.
AFB is black on this stain.
a)
Spenglers
b)
Pappenheims
c)
Baumgartens
54.
MTB is red while M. smegmatis is blue on this stain
a)
Spenglers
b)
Pappenheims
c)
Baumgartens
55.
MTB is blue while M. leprae is red on this stain
a)
Spenglers
b)
Pappenheims
c)
Baumgartens
56.
Number of AFB seen: 0
a)
+/- repeated on second slide
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
57.
Number of AFB seen: 1-9/300 fields
a)
+/- repeated on second slide
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
58.
Number of AFB seen: 1-9/100 fields
a)
+/- repeated on second slide
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
59.
Number of AFB seen: 1-9/fields
a)
+/- repeated on second slide
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
60.
Number of AFB seen: >9/fields
a)
+/- repeated on second slide
b)
1+
c)
2+
d)
3+
e)
4+
61.
According to the NAtional Tuberculosis Association Method, what will be the report if..
there are 1 to 2 organisms per slide?
a)
Report number and request another specimen
b)
Rare (1+)
c)
Few (2+)
d)
Numerous (3+)
62.
According to the NAtional Tuberculosis Association Method, what will be the report if..
there are 3 to 9 organisms per slide?
a)
Report number and request another specimen
b)
Rare (1+)
c)
Few (2+)
d)
Numerous (3+)
63.
According to the NAtional Tuberculosis Association Method, what will be the report if..
there are 10 or more organisms per slide?
a)
Report number and request another specimen
b)
Rare (1+)
c)
Few (2+)
d)
Numerous (3+)
64.
According to the NAtional Tuberculosis Association Method, what will be the report if..
there are 1 or more organisms per OIF?
a)
Report number and request another specimen
b)
Rare (1+)
c)
Few (2+)
d)
Numerous (3+)
65.
According to the National Standard Reporting Scale, what will be the equivalent number of organisms if the report is...
No AFB seen in 300 visual fields
a)
0
b)
+n
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
66.
According to the National Standard Reporting Scale, what will be the equivalent number of organisms if the report is...
1 to 9 AFB/100 visual fields
a)
0
b)
+n
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
67.
According to the National Standard Reporting Scale, what will be the equivalent number of organisms if the report is...
10 to 99 AFB/100 visual fields
a)
0
b)
+n
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
68.
According to the National Standard Reporting Scale, what will be the equivalent number of organisms if the report is...
1 to 10 AFB/OIF in at least 50 visual fields
a)
0
b)
+n
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
69.
According to the National Standard Reporting Scale, what will be the equivalent number of organisms if the report is...
more than 10 AFB/OIF in at least 20 visual fields
a)
0
b)
+n
c)
1+
d)
2+
e)
3+
70.
Treatment of choice for Mycobacterium leprae
a)
Rifampin
b)
Sulfone dapsone
c)
Ciprofloxacin
d)
Ethambutol
71.
Causative agent of leprosy
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
72.
Causative agent of Hansen's disease
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
73.
Acid fast rod in basal mucosa of patients with nodular variety of Hansen's disease
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
74.
Transmission occurs person to person through inhalation or contact with infected skin
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
75.
Smears of tissue juice, AF stain for lepra cells contain macrophages with acid fast bacilli
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
76.
TB of animals
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
77.
Bacillus of Calmette guerin
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
78.
Bacillus of Calmette guerin
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
79.
TB in birds
a)
Mycobacteirium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium leprae
c)
Mycobacterium bovis
d)
Mycobacterium avium
80.
M. leprae is cultured on..
a)
Armadillo
b)
Fernandez
c)
Matsuda
81.
involve footpad of mice primarily
a)
Armadillo
b)
Fernandez
c)
Matsuda
82.
Early reaction
a)
Armadillo
b)
Fernandez
c)
Matsuda
83.
Erythema appears within 2 to 3 days
a)
Armadillo
b)
Fernandez
c)
Matsuda
84.
Late reaction
a)
Armadillo
b)
Fernandez
c)
Matsuda
85.
Erythema takes 3 to 4 weeks
a)
Armadillo
b)
Fernandez
c)
Matsuda
86.
Also known as Battey Bacillus (an AFB that infects lungs and other body parts)
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
87.
Also known as Yellow Bacillus
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
88.
Also known as Tap Water Bacillus
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
89.
An AFB that colonizes water coming from different water distribution systems
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
90.
Also known as "Swimming pool Granuloma" or "Fish Tank Granuloma"
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
91.
Also known as "Swimming pool Granuloma"
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
92.
Also known as "Fish Tank Granuloma"
a)
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAI)
b)
Mycobacterium kansasii
c)
Mycobacterium gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium marinum
93.
Also known as Raddish Bacillus
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium terrae
c)
Mycobacterium ulcerans
d)
Mycobacterium xenopi
94.
Found in soil and dust; nonpathogenic
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium terrae
c)
Mycobacterium ulcerans
d)
Mycobacterium xenopi
95.
Known for causing "Bairnsdale ulcer"
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium terrae
c)
Mycobacterium ulcerans
d)
Mycobacterium xenopi
96.
Buruli ulcer is associated with which spp. of Mycobacterium?
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium terrae
c)
Mycobacterium ulcerans
d)
Mycobacterium xenopi
97.
Known for producing an ulcer that releases toxins which damages the skin tissue
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium terrae
c)
Mycobacterium ulcerans
d)
Mycobacterium xenopi
98.
Slow growers
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
99.
M. kansasii
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
100.
M. marinum
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
101.
M. simiae
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
102.
M. asiaticum
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
103.
Pigmentation happens in the presence of light
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
104.
Shows yellow to orange pigment
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
105.
Yellow to orange pigmentation that occurs regardless of the presence of light
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
106.
M. scrofulaceum
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
107.
M. szulgai
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
108.
M. xenopi
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
109.
M. gordonae
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
110.
M. flavescens
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
111.
M. thermoresistible
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
112.
M. avium-intracellulare complex
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
113.
M. malmoense
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
114.
M. haemophilum
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
115.
M. terrae-triviale
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
116.
M. fortuitum-chelonei complex
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
117.
M. smegmatis
a)
Group 1: Photochromogens
b)
Group 2: Scotochromogens
c)
Group 3: Nonphotochromogens
d)
Group 4: Rapid growers
118.
growth happens within 3 to 7 days
a)
Slow growers
b)
Rapid growers
119.
growth happens AFTER 7 days
a)
Slow growers
b)
Rapid growers
120.
growth may take weeks to months
a)
Slow growers
b)
Rapid growers
121.
Reagent of niacin
a)
cyanogen bromide
b)
30% hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
122.
Reagent of heat-stable catalase
a)
cyanogen bromide
b)
30% hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
123.
positive result in Niacin shows what color?
a)
yellow
b)
red or pink
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
124.
positive result in Nitrate reduction BROTH shows what color?
a)
yellow
b)
red or pink
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
125.
positive result in Nitrate reduction STRIP shows what color?
a)
yellow
b)
red or pink
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
126.
positive result in Tween 80 hydrolysis shows what color?
a)
yellow
b)
red or pink
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
127.
positive result in Arylsulfatase shows what color?
a)
yellow
b)
red or pink
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
128.
Urease (+) result
a)
yellow
b)
red only
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
129.
Bovis Gastri Scropulatum
a)
urease
b)
growth in 5% NaCl
130.
(+) result is indicates presence of M. triviale
a)
urease
b)
growth in 5% NaCl
131.
positive result in Pyrazinamidase shows what color?
a)
yellow
b)
red or pink
c)
pink only
d)
orange or red or brown
e)
blue
132.
Reagent: cyanogen bromide
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
133.
Positive results in this test shows YELLOW color
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
134.
Positive result in Broth on this test shows RED OR PINK color
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
135.
Positive result in strip on this test shows BLUE color
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
136.
Reagent for this test include 30% of hydrogen peroxide
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
137.
This test has NEGATIVE reaction for all members of the M. tuberculosis complex which include MTB, M. bovis, M. africanum, M. ulcerans, M. leprae, and M. microti
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
138.
THis test require exposure at 68 degree Celsius for 2 hours; (+) result shows effervescence.
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
139.
Recommended test for M. kansasii (+) = pink/red
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
140.
Most useful in the identification of M. kansasii
a)
Niacin
b)
Nitrate reduction
c)
Heat-stable catalase
d)
Tween 80 hydrolysis
141.
Useful for identification of M. forfitum-chelonei complex; (+) = pink
a)
Arylsulfatase
b)
Pyrazinamidase
c)
Iron uptake
142.
In this procedure, pyrazinamide is converted to pyrazinoic acid
a)
Arylsulfatase
b)
Pyrazinamidase
c)
Iron uptake
143.
Positive for MTB and M. marinum while negative for M. bovis and M. kansasii
a)
Arylsulfatase
b)
Pyrazinamidase
c)
Iron uptake
144.
Test for determining organism's ability to grow in 20% ferric citrate
a)
Arylsulfatase
b)
Pyrazinamidase
c)
Iron uptake
145.
Useful for separating forfitum from chelonei
a)
Arylsulfatase
b)
Pyrazinamidase
c)
Iron uptake
146.
Positive Mycobacterium on pyrazinamidase
a)
M. marinum
b)
M. bovis
c)
M. kansasii
d)
M. tuberculosis
147.
Negative Mycobacterium on pyrazinamidase
a)
M. marinum
b)
M. bovis
c)
M. kansasii
d)
M. tuberculosis
148.
On Iron uptake test, M. forfitum is..
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
149.
On Iron uptake test, M. chelonae is..
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
150.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a)
Positive for Niacin
b)
Negative for Niacin
151.
Mycobacterium bovis
a)
Positive for Niacin
b)
Negative for Niacin
152.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a)
Positive for Nitrate
b)
Negative for Nitrate
153.
Mycobacterium bovis
a)
Positive for Nitrate
b)
Negative for Nitrate
100 %
