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Database Fundamentals Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of a database?

a)

To store raw facts without structure

b)

To enable efficient data management and support decision-making

c)

To replace file systems entirely

d)

To generate metadata automatically

2.

Metadata is best defined as:

a)

Raw facts collected from end-users

b)

The result of processing data to reveal meaning

c)

Data that describes data characteristics and relationships

d)

Information derived from knowledge

3.

Which component acts as an intermediary between users and the database?

a)

Data warehouse

b)

Operating system

c)

Database Management System (DBMS)

d)

Application software

4.

What is a key advantage of using a DBMS?

a)

Increased data inconsistency

b)

Minimized data security

c)

Improved data sharing and integration

d)

Reduced end-user productivity

5.

An enterprise database supports:

a)

A single user at a time

b)

A small group of users

c)

A large number of users concurrently

d)

Only decentralized data storage

6.

In the database system environment, "procedures" refer to:

a)

Physical devices like servers

b)

Rules governing database design and usage

c)

Application programs

d)

Raw facts stored in tables

7.

Which DBMS function enforces user security and data privacy?

a)

Data storage management

b)

Data dictionary management

c)

Security management

d)

Backup and recovery

8.

The data dictionary stores:

a)

End-user data

b)

Index definitions

c)

Metadata (e.g., data characteristics)

d)

Hardware configurations

9.

A Database Administrator (DBA) is responsible for:

a)

Writing application code

b)

Designing user interfaces

c)

Database implementation, maintenance, and security

d)

Only data entry tasks

10.

Distributed databases:

a)

Store all data at a single site

b)

Distribute data across multiple sites

c)

Support only day-to-day operations

d)

Exclude transactional data

11.

The relational model views data:

a)

Physically (how it is stored)

b)

Logically (as tables)

c)

Hierarchically (parent-child relationships)

d)

As network structures

12.

A "relation" in the relational model is implemented as a:

a)

File

b)

Table

c)

Tree

d)

Graph

13.

A composite key is:

a)

A key that can be null

b)

Made up of multiple attributes

c)

Used only for data retrieval

d)

A foreign key in another table

14.

A null value in a database represents:

a)

A zero or blank entry

b)

An unknown, missing, or inapplicable value

c)

A duplicated entry

d)

A default value

15.

Referential integrity ensures that:

a)

Primary keys are unique

b)

Foreign keys match existing primary keys in related tables

c)

All attributes are atomic

d)

No transitive dependencies exist

16.

Controlled redundancy in a relational database:

a)

Increases data anomalies

b)

Is always unnecessary

c)

Enables table linking via shared attributes

d)

Violates normalization rules

17.

A secondary key is used for:

a)

Uniquely identifying table rows

b)

Enforcing referential integrity

c)

Data retrieval purposes only

d)

Linking distributed databases

18.

Which relationship type is ideal in relational database design?

a)

1:1

b)

1:M

c)

M:N

d)

Ternary

19.

The data dictionary provides:

a)

Raw end-user data

b)

A detailed account of table attributes and metadata

c)

Hardware specifications

d)

SQL query results

20.

Functional dependence means:

a)

Attribute A determines Attribute B

b)

Attribute B determines Attribute A

c)

Both attributes are composite keys

d)

Attributes are independent

21.

An ER diagram represents:

a)

Physical storage details

b)

The conceptual database from the end-user perspective

c)

SQL commands

d)

Normalization stages

22.

In ER modeling, an "entity" corresponds to a:

a)

Single row in a table

b)

Table (entity set)

c)

Column attribute

d)

Relationship degree

23.

A multivalued attribute:

a)

Cannot be subdivided

b)

Must be stored physically in the database

c)

Can have multiple values for one entity

d)

Is derived from other attributes

24.

Connectivity describes a relationship's:

a)

Number of participating entities

b)

Classification (e.g., 1:M, M:N)

c)

Minimum/maximum occurrences

d)

Dependence on attributes

25.

Cardinality specifies:

a)

The number of attributes in an entity

b)

The minimum/maximum entity occurrences in a relationship

c)

Whether an attribute is optional

d)

The degree of a relationship

26.

A ternary relationship involves:

a)

One entity

b)

Two entities

c)

Three entities

d)

No entities

27.

Derived attributes:

a)

Must be stored in the database

b)

Can be calculated from other attributes

c)

Are always multivalued

d)

Require composite keys

28.

M:N relationships in ER models:

a)

Are implemented directly in relational databases

b)

Must be resolved into two 1:M relationships

c)

Represent recursive relationships

d)

Require no foreign keys

29.

Business rules are used to determine:

a)

SQL syntax

b)

Connectivity and cardinality

c)

Normalization levels

d)

Hardware requirements

30.

In Crow's Foot notation, attributes are placed:

a)

Inside ovals

b)

In a box below the entity rectangle

c)

On relationship lines

d)

In diamond shapes

31.

SQL is divided into:

a)

Data definition and data manipulation languages

b)

Hardware and software components

c)

Entity and relationship languages

d)

Centralized and distributed commands

32.

The CREATE TABLE command is used to:

a)

Insert data into a table

b)

Define a table's structure

c)

Update existing rows

d)

Delete a table

33.

The NOT NULL constraint:

a)

Ensures attribute uniqueness

b)

Prevents null values in a column

c)

Sets default values

d)

Validates data ranges

34.

Declaring a primary key automatically creates a:

a)

Foreign key

b)

Unique index

c)

Default value

d)

CHECK constraint

35.

To add rows to a table, use:

a)

UPDATE

b)

INSERT

c)

SELECT

d)

COMMIT

36.

The WHERE clause in SELECT queries:

a)

Groups rows

b)

Orders results

c)

Specifies row conditions

d)

Joins tables

37.

To permanently save transaction changes, use:

a)

ROLLBACK

b)

COMMIT

c)

DELETE

d)

UPDATE

38.

DELETE FROM table without a WHERE clause:

a)

Removes all rows from the table

b)

Deletes the table structure

c)

Fails with an error

d)

Removes only duplicate rows

39.

A subquery is:

a)

A standalone query

b)

An outer query

c)

A query embedded within another query

d)

Used only with COMMIT

40.

Dropping a table fails if it is:

a)

The "one" side of a relationship

b)

Empty

c)

A temporary table

d)

In 3NF

41.

Normalization aims to:

a)

Increase redundancy

b)

Minimize data anomalies and redundancies

c)

Denormalize tables

d)

Expand database size

42.

Most business databases are normalized to:

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

4NF

43.

A repeating group violates:

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

Referential integrity

44.

A dependency diagram helps identify:

a)

SQL syntax errors

b)

Partial/transitive dependencies

c)

ER relationship degrees

d)

Hardware failures

45.

A table is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and has no:

a)

Transitive dependencies

b)

Partial dependencies

c)

Foreign keys

d)

Null values

46.

Conversion to 3NF removes:

a)

Repeating groups

b)

Partial dependencies

c)

Transitive dependencies

d)

Composite keys

47.

Denormalization is performed to:

a)

Achieve higher normal forms

b)

Improve query performance (despite added redundancy)

c)

Eliminate all data anomalies

d)

Reduce metadata

48.

A defect of unnormalized tables is:

a)

Efficient data updates

b)

Simple indexing

c)

Data redundancy causing inefficiency

d)

No backup requirements

49.

Atomicity in attributes means they are:

a)

Multivalued

b)

Derived

c)

Irreducible (cannot be subdivided)

d)

Optional

50.

During normalization, reconciling conflicting goals involves:

a)

Ignoring business rules

b)

Balancing cost, performance, and structural efficiency

c)

Avoiding ER diagrams

d)

Using only 1NF