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Barney Fletcher DUPE DUPE

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a freehold estate?

a)

Fee simple

b)

Estate for Years

c)

Conditional fee

d)

Life estate

2.

When a life-tenant is granted a life estate for as long as his mother is alive, what type of life estate has been conveyed?

a)

Remainder

b)

Ordinary

c)

Pur autre vie

d)

Reversionary

3.

In Georgia, there are only three ways in which property ownership may be held; they are:

a)

dower, curtesy and community property

b)

severalty, tenancy in common, tenancy at will

c)

tenancy in common, severalty, joint tenancy

d)

joint tenancy, tenancy in common, periodic tenancy

4.

When a tenant in common dies; what happens to his interest in the property?

a)

It goes to his heirs

b)

It goes to the surviving members of the tenancy

c)

It goes to the state through escheat

d)

It is sold through a partition action

5.

When one of the owners in a concurrent ownership institutes court action to force the sale of the concurrently owned property, the court action is called a:

a)

suit to quiet title

b)

specific performance suit

c)

suit to partition

d)

suit for eviction

6.

In Georgia, leasehold estates are considered to be:

a)

chattel

b)

personal property

c)

real property rights

d)

emblements

7.

A leasehold estate that has a definite beginning and ending, cannot be renewed and requires no notice to terminate is a(n):

a)

tenancy for years

b)

tenancy at will

c)

periodic tenancy

d)

tenancy at sufferance

8.

A leasehold estate that has a definite beginning and ending, is automatically renewed without notice and requires notice to terminate is a(n):

a)

tenancy for years

b)

tenancy at will

c)

periodic tenancy

d)

tenancy at sufferance

9.

A lien that applies to all of one's real and personal property is a:

a)

voluntary lien

b)

mechanic's lien

c)

general lien

d)

specific lien

10.

What type of lien always takes first priority if a forced sale occurs?

a)

First mortgage

b)

Income tax

c)

Mechanic's

d)

Property tax

11.

Restrictive covenants and restrictive conditions have different penalties if breached. Which of the following penalties is/are possible for breach of a restrictive covenant?

a)

Loss of property only

b)

Loss of property or an injunction

c)

Suit for damages only

d)

Injunction or a suit for damages

12.

An irrevocable right to use the property of another which carries no possessory interest is known as a(n):

a)

license

b)

leasehold

c)

easement

d)

remainder interest

13.

Which of the following documents is used for the alienation of real property?

a)

Bill of Sale

b)

Deed

c)

Sales Contract

d)

Defeasance Contract

14.

Which instrument of conveyance affords the most protection to the purchaser?

a)

General Warranty Deed

b)

Special Warranty Deed

c)

Quit Claim Deed

d)

Security Deed

15.

Which instrument of conveyance offers the least liability to the seller?

a)

General Warranty Deed

b)

Special Warranty Deed

c)

Quit Claim Deed

d)

Purchase contract

16.

The primary purpose of recordation is to:

a)

protect the interest of the seller

b)

provide validity to the deed and finalize the transaction

c)

give actual notice

d)

give constructive notice

17.

Who acknowledges a deed so that it can be recorded?

a)

Notary Public

b)

Grantor

c)

Grantee

d)

Clerk

18.

Transfer of property by descent or laws of succession occurs when:

a)

a person dies testate

b)

there are no apparent heirs

c)

a person leaves a will denoting his heirs

d)

a person dies intestate

19.

If one party gains title to the property of another by the continuous, open, hostile and exclusive use of the property, it is known as:

a)

voluntary alienation

b)

prescriptive easement

c)

inverse possession

d)

adverse possession

20.

An offer can be withdrawn by the offeror:

a)

at any time, for any reason

b)

at any time prior to closing.

c)

at any time prior to receiving notification the offer has been accepted.

d)

at any time after the expiration of the time granted to the offeror in the contract.

21.

What is the effect on the original offer if a counteroffer is made?

a)

It terminates.

b)

It is still in effect if the counteroffer is rejected.

c)

It terminates only if the counteroffer is accepted.

d)

A counteroffer has no effect on the original offer.

22.

Which of the following is true with regard to the interests of the buyer following the creation of a contract?

a)

The buyer has legal title to the property.

b)

The buyer has naked title to the property.

c)

The buyer has equitable title to the property.

d)

The buyer receives no interest in the property at time of contract, only at closing.

23.

The law that requires certain contracts to be in writing is the:

a)

Statute of Frauds.

b)

Laches Statute.

c)

Statute of Limitations.

d)

Redemption Statute.

24.

Which of the following is a contract in which promises have been made but not yet completed?

a)

Executory

b)

Bilateral

c)

Executed

d)

Unilateral

25.

A false statement of material fact is ____; and a subjective opinion is ____.

a)

void; voidable

b)

misrepresentation; puffing

c)

expressed; implied

d)

legal; illegal

26.

The illegal practice of mixing escrow money with personal or business funds is:

a)

intermingling.

b)

intersession.

c)

co-depositing.

d)

commingling.

27.

The Civil Rights Act of 1866 banned ____ discrimination?

a)

racial

b)

religious

c)

national origin

d)

all forms

28.

Attempting to make a profit by inducing owners to sell by telling them that persons of a protected class are moving into the neighborhood is an example of:

a)

steering.

b)

blockbusting.

c)

redlining.

d)

affirmative marketing.

29.

What is the tax assessment rate for all real property in Georgia?

a)

35%

b)

40%

c)

45%

d)

50%

30.

The evidence of a debt is the ______; the security for the debt is the ______.

a)

note; mortgage

b)

trust deed; note

c)

mortgage; note

d)

deed; mortgage

31.

The lender in a state which uses mortgages is known as the:

a)

mortgagor

b)

mortgagee

c)

debtor

d)

grantor

32.

What could happen if a property is sold at foreclosure and does not bring enough money to satisfy all of the debts secured by the property?

a)

Any obligation of the debtor terminates with the sale of the property

b)

Outstanding debts could be pursued as a result of a deficiency judgment

c)

All monies owed must be satisfied as a result of the foreclosure sale

d)

All other property owned by the debtor is automatically seized and sold at a future sale to satisfy the unpaid debt

33.

When foreclosure occurs, the payment priority of most of the outstanding debts is established by:

a)

the type of lien

b)

amount of the lien

c)

date of recordation

d)

the court

34.

What type of loan has payments of interest only with the principal paid in full at the end of the loan period?

a)

Partially amortized

b)

Graduated payment

c)

Fully amortized

d)

Straight loan

35.

A synonym for a partially amortized note is a:

a)

balloon note

b)

adjustable rate note

c)

term loan

d)

package loan

36.

If a loan balance is $125,000 and the interest rate is 8%, how much of the next payment is paid to interest?

a)

$733.33

b)

$833.33

c)

$893.33

d)

$793.33

37.

In a graduated payment mortgage, the changes and in an adjustable rate mortgage the ____ is subject to change.

a)

principal, interest rate

b)

interest rate, payment

c)

payment, interest rate

d)

interest rate, principal

38.

What clause allows the lender to call the loan balance due and payable because of non-payment?

a)

Alienation clause

b)

Acceleration clause

c)

Escalator clause

d)

Pre-payment clause

39.

A purchase money mortgage is a loan made by:

a)

a lender on the Secondary Mortgage market

b)

a Fannie Mae approved lender only

c)

the seller in a transaction

d)

the purchaser in a transaction

40.

A mortgage secured by both real and personal property is a(n):

a)

blanket mortgage

b)

wraparound mortgage

c)

package mortgage

d)

open-end mortgage

41.

What type of mortgage exists when the lender pays the borrower a fixed amount of money every month?

a)

Shared appreciation

b)

Reverse Annuity

c)

Growing Equity

d)

There is no such mortgage, lenders don't pay borrowers

42.

The primary purpose of FHA is to ____ and the primary purpose of VA is to ____.

a)

loan money to qualified borrowers; loan money to qualified borrowers

b)

guarantee loans to qualified borrowers; guarantee loans for qualified borrowers

c)

insure loans; guarantee loans

d)

enforce RESPA; identify qualified veterans

43.

On what amount of money are the discount points based?

a)

Loan amount

b)

Down payment

c)

Sales price

d)

The guarantee amount

44.

In a Land Sales Contract, who retains legal title to the property?

a)

Buyer

b)

Mortgagee

c)

Seller

d)

Mortgagor

45.

The type of depreciation used by appraisers in which the amount of depreciated value is equal each year is known as the:

a)

straight line method

b)

accrual method

c)

chronological method

d)

graduated method

46.

The value principle which indicates that a buyer will not pay more for a property than a price for which he can obtain a property of equal utility is the principle of:

a)

highest and best use

b)

conformity

c)

substitution

d)

anticipation

47.

When the total value of combined properties exceeds the total value of the individual properties, the result is known as:

a)

plottage increment

b)

contribution

c)

situs

d)

assemblage

48.

Which of the following best describes Transfer Tax?

a)

A state tax which is based on the sales price of the property less any assumed loans at the rate of .10/.10/ 100 of the taxable amount.

b)

A state tax which is based on the sales price of the property less any assumed loans at the rate of 1.50/1.50/ 500 of the taxable amount.

c)

A state tax which is based on the new loan (in excess of 3 years in term) amount at the rate of .10/.10/ 100 of the taxable amount.

d)

A state tax which is based on the new loan (in excess of 3 years in term) amount at the rate of 1.50/1.50/ 500 of the taxable amount.

49.

Which of the following best describes Intangibles Tax?

a)

A state tax which is based on the sales price of the property less any assumed loans at the rate of .10/.10/ 100 of the taxable amount.

b)

A state tax which is based on the sales price of the property less any assumed loans at the rate of 1.50/1.50/ 500 of the taxable amount.

c)

A state tax which is based on the new loan (in excess of 3 years in term) amount at the rate of .10/.10/ 100 of the taxable amount.

d)

A state tax which is based on the new loan (in excess of 3 years in term) amount at the rate of 1.50/1.50/ 500 of the taxable amount.

50.

Which of the following does NOT have to be in writing to be enforceable?

a)

Real Estate Sales Contract

b)

Lease for one year or less

c)

Deed

d)

Exclusive listing

51.

If there is a closing on February 22 and taxes are $2,275 annually, how much tax proration will the seller owe at closing (within a dollar)?

a)

$330

b)

$295

c)

$1,945

d)

$1,725

52.

The closing was on June 23. The loan balance as of the June 1 payment was $85,440. The loan had an interest rate of 11%. Payments were due the first of each month. The lender used a 360 day year. How much accrued interest did the seller owe?

a)

$93.84

b)

$99.84

c)

$61.11

d)

$60.45

53.

The sales price of the property is 120,000.Thenewloanis120,000. The new loan is 114,000. How much will the transfer tax be?

a)

$114

b)

$60

c)

$120

d)

$342

54.

If a new loan is closed on June 2, how many days of interest adjustment will be owed?

a)

29

b)

2

c)

1

d)

28

55.

Which of the following is true about the Georgia Real Estate Commissioner?

a)

He may vote only to break a tie.

b)

He may hold an active real estate license.

c)

He is appointed by the governor.

d)

He is hired by the commission.

56.

Commission members are:

a)

appointed by the governor and approved by Congress.

b)

appointed by the governor and approved by the other commission members.

c)

appointed by the governor and approved by the House.

d)

appointed by the governor and approved by the Senate.

57.

Which of the following satisfies the requirements for the required Post license course?

a)

24-hr. course taken within one year from the date of license activation.

b)

25-hr. course taken within one year from the date of the state licensing examination.

c)

24-hr. course taken within one year from the date of the state licensing examination.

d)

25-hr. course taken within one year from the date of license activation.

58.

Upon renewal of a license, a licensee must pay all fees due and complete __ hours of continuing education, if education is required.

a)

12

b)

18

c)

24

d)

36

59.

A licensed broker in another state may enter into a co-op agreement with a Georgia broker through a written agreement which includes:

a)

that any listing or property management agreement on Georgia property will be in both brokers name.

b)

that the out-of-state broker may not conduct any negotiations under any circumstances if the property is located in Georgia.

c)

that any advertising of Georgia property identify the listing Georgia broker.

d)

all of the above.

60.

There must be a minimum balance of $______ in the Education, Research and Recovery Fund at all times.

a)

500,000

b)

750,000

c)

1,000,000

d)

1,500,000

61.

The limit of liability for a single transaction in which a licensee is involved is $_____ and the limit of liability for multiple transaction for a single licensee is $______

a)

25,000; 75,000

b)

10,0000; 30,000

c)

45,000; 15,000

d)

30,000; 10,000

62.

If the Education, Research and Recovery Fund falls below the required minimum balance, what may happen?

a)

Each licensee can be assessed up to $30.

b)

Each licensee can be assessed up to $100.

c)

Each licensee can be assessed up to $30 per year at time of renewal.

d)

Licensees have no consequence if the fund falls below the minimum.

63.

Which of the following is an unfair practice under the License Law if performed by a licensee?

a)

Failure to maintain and deposit earnest money in a non-interest bearing account.

b)

Accepting a commission from someone other than your broker with your broker's consent.

c)

Representing another broker with the written consent of your broker.

d)

Paying a commission to an unlicensed person.

64.

In Georgia, net listings are:

a)

permissible with the written authorization of the broker.

b)

require the written permission of the seller and written authorization of the broker.

c)

legal, but not recommended

d)

illegal

65.

A broker must conduct his business in the name:

a)

he is "doing business as" (DBA)

b)

registered with the appropriate business license office.

c)

under which his license was issued.

d)

officially registered with the Attorney General.

66.

Under what circumstances may a broker refuse to sign a release/transfer form for a licensee to transfer to another firm?

a)

If the licensee owes money to the broker.

b)

If the licensee has unfinished work which must be completed before transfer can occur.

c)

If the broker has brought an action for misconduct against the licensee.

d)

Under no circumstances.

67.

Under what circumstances can a broker's agent initially place and negotiate a sales contract without the broker seeing it?

a)

Only if the broker has given the agent permission to do so.

b)

Never, because the license law dictates all sales contracts must have the broker's signature prior to being presented.

c)

Never, because the broker is ultimately responsible for all contracts generated by his agents and should monitor each of them without fail.

d)

Under any circumstances, since the agent is never under any obligations to show contracts to his broker prior to presenting them.

68.

If a property is being sold "As Is," what is the effect on the agent's responsibilities?

a)

An "As Is" contract, by definition, invokes "caveat emptor" and an agent's duty of property disclosure is terminated.

b)

An agent only has the responsibilities to disclose property defects ti his principle/client, not 3rd parties under an "As Is" contract.

c)

An agent must explain to all parties that an "As Is" contract means that property disclosures are not required and all parties should beware.

d)

An "As Is" contract has no effect on a agent's responsibility to disclose all known defects to all parties in the transaction.

69.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for a sales contract to be in writing?

a)

To make it valid.

b)

To make it enforceable

c)

To guide an attorney in preparation for closing.

d)

To help assure performance after closing with a proper survival clause.

70.

If a written offer is made after the property is under contract, but before closing, what is the proper action?

a)

There is no requirement to place the contract since the seller cannot accept it anyway.

b)

The contract does not have to be accepted or placed, but the seller must be made aware of this second, potential buyer.

c)

It must be placed, but the seller is prevented from responding to it until his first contract is terminated.

d)

It must be presented to the seller.

71.

What is the term used to describe those acts which a broker or affiliated licensee performs for a non-client which do not require discretion and do not create a brokerage relationship?

a)

Non-agency acts

b)

Non-discretionary acts

c)

Administered acts

d)

Ministerial acts

72.

Under BRRETA, what is the term used to identify the agreement in which a buyer and a broker establish an agency affiliation?

a)

Buyer brokerage engagement?

b)

Exclusive listing

c)

Brokerage affiliation

d)

Brokerage contract/agreement

73.

Who is responsible, under the license law, for seeing that both the purchaser and seller obtain a copy of the closing statement?

a)

The broker

b)

The closing attorney

c)

The lendor

d)

The notary public