WorksheetsPRC-NOTES_4MT_P2
Total questions: 125
Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Niacin: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
2.
Nitrate: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
3.
Tellurite: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
4.
Niacin: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
5.
Nitrate: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
6.
Urease: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
7.
68 Catalase: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
8.
SQ Catalase: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
9.
SQ Catalase: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium forfitum/gordonae
c)
Mycobacterium kansasii/gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium avium
10.
68 Catalase: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium forfitum/gordonae
c)
Mycobacterium kansasii/gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium avium
11.
Tween 80: positive
a)
Mycobacterium gordonae
b)
Mycobacterium kasasii
c)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
d)
Mycobacterium avium
e)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
12.
Tellurite: positive
a)
Mycobacterium gordonae
b)
Mycobacterium kasasii
c)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
d)
Mycobacterium avium
e)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
13.
Tween 80: negative
a)
Mycobacterium gordonae
b)
Mycobacterium kasasii
c)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
d)
Mycobacterium avium
e)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
14.
Positive results on Niacin
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
15.
Positive results on Nitrate
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
16.
Positive results on 68 catalase
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
17.
Positive results on SQ catalase
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
18.
Positive results on Urease
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
19.
Positive results on Tween 80
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
20.
Positive results on Tellurite
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
21.
Negative on Tellurite
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
22.
Negative on Tween 80
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
23.
Negative on Niacin
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
24.
Negative on Nitrate
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
25.
Negative on Urease
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
26.
Negative on 68 catalase
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
27.
Negative on SQ catalase
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
28.
associated with mouth lesions
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
29.
Gram-positive bacillus but neither acid fast nor stained with fungus stain. ANAEROBIC
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
30.
Agent of lumpy jaw
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
31.
Shows molar tooth colonies
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
32.
Gram-positive and considered PARTIALLY acid fast; AEROBIC
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
33.
associated with primary pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
34.
Phylogenetic analysis shows that this organism is a gram-positive actinomycete that is not closely related to other genus known to cause infection
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
35.
Associated with Whipple's disease; found primary in middle-aged men and characterized by the presence of PAS-staining macrophages indicating mucopolysaccharide glycoprotein in almost every organ of the body
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
36.
This bacillus is seen in macrophages and affected tissue but has never been cultured
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
37.
Associated with multiple-organ system disease
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
38.
Gram-negative, helical, strictly AEROBIC organism
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
39.
causes RAT-bite fever in humans
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
40.
known as SODUKU
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
41.
rarely seen in px with Sodoku and swollen lymph nodes are prominent; febrile episodes are also more predictable here
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
42.
more prominent in cases associated with Spirillum minus
a)
swollen lymph nodes
b)
febrile episodes
43.
more COMMON and predictable in cases associated with Spirillum minus
a)
swollen lymph nodes
b)
febrile episodes
44.
Found primary in middle-aged men and characterized by the presence of PAS-staining macrophages indicating mucopolysaccharide glycoprotein in almost every organ of the body
a)
Lumpy jaw
b)
Pulmonary infections
c)
Whipple's disease
d)
Rat bite fever
45.
Most clinically relevant spp. of Nocardia
a)
Nocardia asteroids
b)
Nocardia otitidiscaviarum
c)
Nocardia brasillensis
46.
Helically coiled bacteria transmitted through arthropod vectors including lice and ticks
a)
Borrelia spp.
b)
Brucella spp.
c)
Treponema spp.
d)
Leptospira spp.
47.
Stains that can be used for this include levaditi, warthin starry, and fontana tribondaeu
a)
Borrelia spp.
b)
Brucella spp.
c)
Treponema spp.
d)
Leptospira spp.
48.
Agent of louse-borne relapsing fever
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
49.
symptoms of this infection include high fever, muslce and bone pain, and confusion
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
50.
Agent of lyme disease
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
51.
Transmitted by tick vectors
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
52.
Its vectors is Ixodes tick
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
53.
Early localized stage is erythema and chronicicum migrans
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
54.
most common cause of tickborne disease in U.S
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
55.
associated with tickborne relapsing fever
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
56.
vector is ornithodoros spp.
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
57.
appearance of lesion: erythema chronicum migrans
a)
Stage one
b)
Stage two
c)
Stage three
58.
dissemination through blood, affected areas may include the bones, CNS, heart, and liver
a)
Stage one
b)
Stage two
c)
Stage three
59.
characterized by neurological abnormalities, arthritis, and skin lesions
a)
Stage one
b)
Stage two
c)
Stage three
60.
Associated with venereal syphilis
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
61.
Transmitted by sexual contact, direct blood transmission, or transplacental route
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
62.
YAWS
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
63.
Also known as nonvenereal disease of skin and bones
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
64.
Associated with Bejel (lesions in oral cavity, oral mucosa, skin, bones and nasopharynx)
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
65.
Transmission include mouth to mouth by utensils
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
66.
Associated with pinta; an ulceration of skin aka ulcerative skin disease
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
67.
ulceration of skin aka ulcerative skin disease
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
68.
T. carateum
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
69.
T. pallidum subsp. endemicum
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
70.
lesions in oral cavity, oral mucosa, skin, bones and nasopharynx
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
71.
nonvenereal disease of skin and bones
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
72.
hard chancre that is painless and firm
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
73.
associated with condylomata, a wart-like lesion in moist areas of the body
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
74.
characterized by absence of clinical symptoms
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
75.
deemed as dormant or inactive stage
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
76.
gummas; neurosyphilis
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
77.
endstage syphilis
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
78.
causes dementia and lasts for years.
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
79.
Associated with Hutchinson's triad
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
80.
1. Notched teeth
2. Keratitis
3. Deafness
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
81.
associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
a)
Treponema vincentii
b)
Treponema denticola
c)
Treponema refringens
d)
Treponema soncranskii
e)
Treponema pectinovorum
82.
nonpathogenic, found in water and soil
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
83.
causative of human and animal leptospirosis
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
84.
parasitic on vertebrates other than humans including rodents, cattle, dogs, cats, raccoons and bats
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
85.
shed in the urine of these animals and human acquire the infection through direct contact with urine of animals who carry the organisms.
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
86.
involves the kidney, liver, and central nervous system
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
87.
severe form of leptospirosis: weil's disease
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
88.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with Weil's disease?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
89.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is deemed the most infectious?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
90.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with infectious jaundice?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
91.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is also known as fort bragg?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
92.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with pretribial fever?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
93.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with swine nerd's disease?
a)
grippotyphosa
b)
hebdomadis
c)
mitis/pomona
94.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is characterized by a 7-day fever?
a)
grippotyphosa
b)
hebdomadis
c)
mitis/pomona
95.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with marsh fever?
a)
grippotyphosa
b)
hebdomadis
c)
mitis/pomona
96.
Obligate intracellular; infectious particle = elementary bodies
a)
Chlamydia spp.
b)
Mycoplasma spp.
c)
Rickettsia spp.
97.
primary life cycle of Chlamydia spp.
a)
elementary bodies
b)
reticulate bodies
98.
metabolically active component in the life cycle of Chlamydia spp.
a)
elementary bodies
b)
reticulate bodies
99.
McCoy
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
100.
HEp-2 HeLa
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
101.
BGMK
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
102.
DFA
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
103.
EIA
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
104.
OIA
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
105.
Probe
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
106.
PCR
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
107.
CF
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
108.
EIA,Micro-IF
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
109.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with endemic trachoma?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
110.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with multiple or persistent infections that ultimately lead to blindness?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
111.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with urethritis, cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, infant pneumoniae, and conjunctivitis?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
112.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with Lymphagranuloma venereum (transmitted through sexual contact)?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
113.
intradermal skin test for LGV antigen; obsolete already
a)
PPD skin test
b)
Frei's test
114.
substituted with nucleic acid amplification test
a)
PPD skin test
b)
Frei's test
115.
indicates positive results for lymphogranuloma venerium (LGV) in Frei's test
a)
>4 mm
b)
>5 mm
c)
>6 mm
d)
>7 mm
116.
Frei's test results is obtained within how many hours..
a)
24 to 48 hours
b)
48 to 72 hours
c)
20 to 30 hours
117.
Associated with mild respiratory tract infections
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chlamydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
118.
TWAR strain
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
119.
Taiwan Acute Respiratory Strain
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
120.
Clinical infections include pneumonia, pharyngitis, and Guillain-Barre syndrome
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
121.
Treatment of choice is tetracycline and erythromycin
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
122.
Causative agent of parrot fever; may lead to pneumonia
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
123.
Agent of psittacosis or ornithosis; a disease of birds, parrots, parakeets, and cockatoos
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
124.
human may acquire the infection by inhalation of contaminated aerosols or formites or through person to person transmission
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
125.
acquired by birds by inhalation of aerosols
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
100 %
