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REVISION III

Total questions: 15

Worksheet time: 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes a sine wave in EEG analysis?

a)

A sharp and broken line

b)

A wave that only appears during sleep

c)

A random pattern that does not repeat

d)

A smooth, continuous wave that repeats in time

2.

When performing an EEG for ECI determination, why is it important to confirm amplifier sensitivity settings?

a)

To reduce the chance of detecting cardiac artifact

b)

To amplify muscle artifacts for better differentiation

c)

To ensure the EEG machine doesn't overheat during prolonged recordings

d)

To make sure any residual cerebral activity of low amplitude can be detected

3.

What is the purpose of adjusting the sampling rate in long-term EEG monitoring?

a)

To reduce the amount of data recorded

b)

To improve the resolution of EEG waveforms

c)

To synchronize the video recording with EEG data

d)

To prevent electrode noise from appearing in the data

4.

What is the recommended high-pass filter setting for long-term EEG to preserve low-frequency brain activity?

a)

5 Hz to enhance spike detection

b)

2 Hz to reduce sweating artifacts

c)

0.5 Hz to avoid losing slow waveforms

d)

10 Hz for better phase reversal visibility

5.

What does a bipolar montage measure?

a)

The signal from a single electrode to a distant reference point

b)

The average signal from multiple electrodes across the entire scalp

c)

The difference between electrodes placed over the same cortical region

d)

The electrical potential difference between two adjacent electrodes

6.

What does "burst suppression" indicate in an EEG?

a)

High-amplitude waves interspersed with flat periods

b)

A pattern of rapid, rhythmic spikes seen during seizure activity

c)

A state of reduced brain wave activity seen during slow-wave sleep

d)

A normal transition phase between sleep stages with rhythmic waves

7.

What role does the brainstem play in EEG wave generation?

a)

The brainstem controls the rhythmic generation of delta waves during deep sleep

b)

The brainstem primarily generates high-frequency beta waves seen during intense mental activity

c)

The brainstem has no involvement in EEG wave generation, as its role is limited to basic life functions

d)

The brainstem generates theta waves and directly modulates the alpha rhythms in the cortex during periods of relaxation

8.

How do brainstem nuclei influence EEG during sleep-wake transitions?

a)

They modulate thalamocortical circuits to shift EEG frequencies

b)

Brainstem nuclei control peripheral motor responses unrelated to EEG signals

c)

Brainstem nuclei only affect autonomic functions, not cortical EEG rhythms

d)

Brainstem nuclei synchronize cerebellar output to regulate REM and NREM states

9.

A routine EEG shows high-voltage sharp waves over the centrotemporal region during sleep in a child with no cognitive impairment. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

Benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes

b)

Infantile spasms with hypsarrhythmic background

c)

Focal cortical dysplasia causing epileptic encephalopathy

d)

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy with secondary generalization

10.

A patient with a history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures presents for EEG. The report notes generalized 3 Hz spike-and-wave activity with a slow background. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

b)

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

c)

Childhood absence epilepsy

d)

Focal onset seizures with secondary generalization

11.

What is a limitation of Video Telemetry Recording (VTR) in diagnosing non-epileptic seizures?

a)

EEG recordings are usually too brief to capture complex seizure events during video monitoring

b)

Video data can only be used for identifying focal seizures, limiting its utility for generalized seizure types

c)

Video alone cannot identify seizure activity without corresponding EEG patterns, which are essential for accurate diagnosis

d)

The video often provides an overemphasis on motor movements, making it difficult to differentiate between epileptic and non-epileptic events

12.

In Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), what Electromyogram (EMG) finding in the first dorsal interosseous (FDI) muscle is most indicative of lower motor neuron degeneration?

a)

Fibrillation potentials and fasciculations at rest

b)

Decreased recruitment without evidence of denervation

c)

Normal insertional activity with mildly reduced amplitude

d)

Prolonged sensory nerve latency with preserved motor conduction

13.

Which nerve is best assessed during a sensory nerve conduction study?

a)

Median nerve sensory branch recorded from the thumb

b)

Tibial nerve recorded from the plantar surface of the foot

c)

Sural nerve in the lower limb using antidromic stimulation

d)

Ulnar nerve using orthodromic stimulation to the fifth digit

14.

In optic neuropathy due to demyelination, which VEP finding is most commonly observed?

a)

Decreased P100 latency and increased amplitude, indicating cortical hyperactivity

b)

Increased N75 latency with no change in P100 amplitude, indicating early cortical changes

c)

Abnormal P100 waveform with absence of cortical responses, suggesting significant optic nerve degeneration

d)

Prolonged P100 latency with reduced amplitude, reflecting slowed transmission in the demyelinated optic pathways

15.

In a healthy individual with normal cerebral blood flow, which TCD finding would be expected in the middle cerebral artery (MCA)?

a)

Normal flow velocity (50-100 cm/s), low PI

b)

Flow velocity of 200 cm/s with a pulsatility index of 0.2

c)

High flow velocity with a pulsatility index of 1.5 or higher

d)

Low flow velocity and elevated PI, indicating poor perfusion