WorksheetsDBMS QUIZ
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What does DBMS stand for?
a)
Database Management Software
b)
Database Management System
c)
Data Basic Management Software
d)
Database Macro System
2.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of DBMS?
a)
Data redundancy
b)
Data integrity
c)
Data security
d)
Data consistency
3.
Which of the following is a function of DBMS?
a)
Designing web pages
b)
Processing and retrieving data
c)
Printing documents
d)
Network configuration
4.
Which of the following is NOT a component of DBMS?
a)
Query Processor
b)
Data Manager
c)
Database Engine
d)
Compiler
5.
What is data abstraction in DBMS?
a)
Hiding irrelevant details from users
b)
Data encryption
c)
Backing up data
d)
Organizing files in folders
6.
The highest level of data abstraction is:
a)
Physical level
b)
Logical level
c)
View level
d)
Access level
7.
Which level of data abstraction describes how data is stored?
a)
View level
b)
Logical level
c)
External level
d)
Physical level
8.
What is a data model?
a)
A drawing of tables
b)
A set of concepts to describe data
c)
A software application
d)
A design template
9.
Which of the following is not a type of data model?
a)
Hierarchical
b)
Network
c)
Relational
d)
Structural
10.
Which of the following is responsible for managing the database?
a)
DBMS
b)
User
c)
Operating System
d)
Compiler
11.
Which language is used to define the structure of a database?
a)
DML
b)
DDL
c)
DCL
d)
SQL
12.
Which of the following is used for manipulating the data in the database?
a)
DCL
b)
DDL
c)
DML
d)
HTML
13.
Which of these is NOT a DBMS?
a)
MySQL
b)
Oracle
c)
MS Word
d)
PostgreSQL
14.
Which of the following ensures authorized access to the data?
a)
DCL
b)
DDL
c)
DML
d)
QBE
15.
What is metadata?
a)
Data about data
b)
Encrypted data
c)
Data stored in cloud
d)
System files
16.
Which of the following is not part of the three-level DBMS architecture?
a)
Internal level
b)
Conceptual level
c)
External level
d)
Relational level
17.
The internal level of DBMS architecture describes:
a)
User interface
b)
How data is physically stored
c)
Relationships between entities
d)
Application logic
18.
Which level of DBMS architecture is closest to the user?
a)
Conceptual level
b)
External level
c)
Internal level
d)
Physical level
19.
The conceptual level of DBMS architecture provides:
a)
Logical view of the database
b)
Detailed storage structure
c)
End-user views
d)
Application interface
20.
What is data independence?
a)
Ability to change data types easily
b)
Isolation of application from data structure changes
c)
Eliminating all constraints
d)
Data being stored in separate files
21.
Logical data independence means:
a)
Changing physical storage without affecting applications
b)
Changing logical schema without affecting applications
c)
Changing hardware without affecting software
d)
None of the above
22.
Physical data independence means:
a)
User defines storage formats
b)
User changes logical schema
c)
Changes in physical storage do not affect schema
d)
Physical data can’t be changed
23.
Which of these is responsible for defining the logical structure of the database?
a)
External level
b)
Internal level
c)
Conceptual level
d)
Application level
24.
Which DBMS component processes user queries?
a)
Query Processor
b)
Storage Manager
c)
Transaction Manager
d)
Buffer Manager
25.
Which component of DBMS ensures database consistency during failures?
a)
Query Processor
b)
Transaction Manager
c)
Buffer Manager
d)
Data Manager
26.
The function of a buffer manager in DBMS is to:
a)
Encrypt data
b)
Manage main memory pages
c)
Process queries
d)
Define constraints
27.
Which manager is responsible for enforcing integrity constraints?
a)
Query Processor
b)
Transaction Manager
c)
Storage Manager
d)
Authorization Manager
28.
Which architecture level helps provide multiple views of the database?
a)
External level
b)
Internal level
c)
Conceptual level
d)
Application level
29.
DBMS architecture helps in achieving:
a)
Data redundancy
b)
Data independence
c)
Program compilation
d)
High latency
30.
Which DBMS architecture component interacts directly with the disk storage?
a)
Query Processor
b)
Transaction Manager
c)
Buffer Manager
d)
Storage Manager
31.
Which of the following is NOT a type of data model?
a)
Hierarchical model
b)
Relational model
c)
Entity-Relationship model
d)
Concurrent model
32.
In the ER model, entities are represented by:
a)
Ellipses
b)
Rectangles
c)
Diamonds
d)
Lines
33.
In an ER diagram, relationships are represented by:
a)
Rectangles
b)
Ellipses
c)
Diamonds
d)
Circles
34.
Which of the following is an attribute that can be divided into smaller sub-parts?
a)
Composite attribute
b)
Derived attribute
c)
Single-valued attribute
d)
Multivalued attribute
35.
A weak entity set in ER modeling:
a)
Can exist independently
b)
Requires a strong entity for identification
c)
Has its own key attribute
d)
Has only derived attributes
36.
The total participation of an entity set in a relationship is represented by:
a)
Single line
b)
Double rectangle
c)
Double line
d)
Dotted line
37.
Which model uses a table-based format to represent data?
a)
Hierarchical model
b)
Relational model
c)
Network model
d)
Object-oriented model
38.
Which type of relationship is shown by a single entity set participating in a relationship with itself?
a)
Unary
b)
Binary
c)
Ternary
d)
Recursive
39.
What does cardinality specify in a relationship?
a)
Data type
b)
Number of entity sets
c)
Number of relationship instances an entity can be part of
d)
Attribute type
40.
Which of the following is used to uniquely identify a record in a relational model?
a)
Attribute
b)
Schema
c)
Primary key
d)
Relation
41.
Which of the following is true about derived attributes?
a)
They are stored in the database
b)
They are calculated from other attributes
c)
They can’t be accessed
d)
They are used as keys
42.
A multi-valued attribute is represented in an ER diagram by:
a)
Dashed ellipse
b)
Double ellipse
c)
Rectangle
d)
Double rectangle
43.
A relationship involving more than two entity sets is called:
a)
Unary
b)
Binary
c)
Ternary
d)
Recursive
44.
Which model organizes data in a tree-like structure?
a)
Relational
b)
Hierarchical
c)
Network
d)
Object-oriented
45.
Which data model uses pointers to represent relationships?
a)
Relational
b)
Hierarchical
c)
Network
d)
ER
46.
In the relational model, a table is referred to as a:
a)
Tuple
b)
Relation
c)
Domain
d)
Schema
47.
Each row in a relational database table represents a:
a)
Field
b)
Relation
c)
Tuple
d)
Domain
48.
A column in a table is called a:
a)
Tuple
b)
Field
c)
Attribute
d)
Schema
49.
Which of the following uniquely identifies a record in a table?
a)
Candidate Key
b)
Primary Key
c)
Foreign Key
d)
Composite Key
50.
A foreign key is used to:
a)
Enforce entity integrity
b)
Enforce referential integrity
c)
Sort data
d)
Create indexes
51.
Which constraint ensures that no duplicate values are entered in a column?
a)
NOT NULL
b)
UNIQUE
c)
CHECK
d)
DEFAULT
52.
Which of the following is NOT a valid relational algebra operation?
a)
Select
b)
Project
c)
Update
d)
Join
53.
Which relational algebra operation combines tuples from two relations?
a)
Union
b)
Join
c)
Projection
d)
Selection
54.
The set of allowable values that an attribute can take is called:
a)
Tuple
b)
Domain
c)
Entity
d)
Key
55.
Which key can be a candidate for the primary key?
a)
Super Key
b)
Foreign Key
c)
Composite Key
d)
Candidate Key
56.
A super key is:
a)
A key that is always a primary key
b)
A set of attributes that uniquely identify a tuple
c)
Used only for foreign key reference
d)
Always a composite key
57.
The degree of a relation is:
a)
Number of rows
b)
Number of columns
c)
Number of keys
d)
Number of constraints
58.
The cardinality of a relation refers to:
a)
Number of attributes
b)
Number of domains
c)
Number of rows
d)
Number of foreign keys
59.
Which operation returns rows that appear in both tables?
a)
Union
b)
Intersection
c)
Difference
d)
Cartesian Product
60.
The relational model was proposed by:
a)
E.F. Codd
b)
Charles Bachman
c)
Peter Chen
d)
Dennis Ritchie
61.
Which of the following is a fundamental operation in relational algebra?
a)
Intersection
b)
Join
c)
Selection
d)
Rename
62.
The projection operation in relational algebra is used to:
a)
Filter rows
b)
Remove duplicates
c)
Select columns
d)
Sort data
63.
Which relational algebra operation is used to select rows that satisfy a given predicate?
a)
Union
b)
Selection
c)
Projection
d)
Difference
64.
In relational algebra, the Cartesian product of two relations R and S produces:
a)
Only matching rows
b)
A single row
c)
All possible combinations of R and S rows
d)
Rows with same schema
65.
Which operation is not a set operation in relational algebra?
a)
Union
b)
Difference
c)
Join
d)
Intersection
66.
Relational algebra is a:
a)
Procedural query language
b)
Non-procedural query language
c)
Graphical tool
d)
Natural language tool
67.
Relational calculus is a:
a)
Procedural language
b)
Non-procedural language
c)
Low-level language
d)
Object-oriented language
68.
Tuple relational calculus uses which variable?
a)
Attribute variables
b)
Tuple variables
c)
Domain variables
d)
Function variables
69.
Which symbol is used for selection in relational algebra?
a)
π
b)
σ
c)
ρ
d)
δ
70.
Which symbol is used for projection in relational algebra?
a)
σ
b)
π
c)
ρ
d)
δ
71.
Which of the following is used to rename attributes in relational algebra?
a)
σ
b)
π
c)
ρ
d)
δ
72.
Which of the following operations requires that the two relations be union-compatible?
a)
Cartesian product
b)
Join
c)
Union
d)
Selection
73.
The result of a selection operation is always:
a)
A relation
b)
A tuple
c)
A column
d)
A domain
74.
Which operation eliminates duplicates in relational algebra?
a)
Selection
b)
Projection
c)
Join
d)
Difference
75.
Which of the following operations cannot be expressed using basic relational algebra?
a)
Projection
b)
Selection
c)
Join
d)
Aggregation
76.
Which SQL statement is used to retrieve data from a database?
a)
GET
b)
SELECT
c)
FETCH
d)
RETRIEVE
77.
Which clause is used to filter rows in a SQL query?
a)
SELECT
b)
WHERE
c)
FROM
d)
GROUP BY
78.
Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result-set?
a)
SORT BY
b)
ORDER BY
c)
GROUP BY
d)
ARRANGE
79.
Which of the following is used to remove duplicate records in SQL?
a)
UNIQUE
b)
DISTINCT
c)
NO DUPLICATE
d)
FILTER
80.
Which of the following SQL statements is used to update data in a database?
a)
MODIFY
b)
CHANGE
c)
UPDATE
d)
ALTER
81.
Which SQL clause is used to group rows that have the same values?
a)
ORDER BY
b)
GROUP BY
c)
WHERE
d)
HAVING
82.
What is the default sort order of the ORDER BY clause?
a)
Descending
b)
Random
c)
Ascending
d)
Grouped
83.
Which of the following is a valid SQL aggregate function?
a)
ADD()
b)
TOTAL()
c)
SUM()
d)
APPEND()
84.
Which clause is used with GROUP BY to filter groups?
a)
WHERE
b)
HAVING
c)
ORDER BY
d)
SELECT
85.
Which SQL statement is used to remove a table and all its data?
a)
DELETE
b)
DROP
c)
REMOVE
d)
TRUNCATE
86.
The SQL function COUNT(*) returns:
a)
Number of columns
b)
Number of tables
c)
Number of rows
d)
Sum of numeric columns
87.
Which operator is used to check if a value is within a range?
a)
IN
b)
RANGE
c)
WITHIN
d)
BETWEEN
88.
Which command is used to remove all rows from a table without logging?
a)
DELETE
b)
REMOVE
c)
TRUNCATE
d)
DROP
89.
Which SQL statement is used to add a new record into a table?
a)
ADD
b)
INSERT
c)
APPEND
d)
UPDATE
90.
Which symbol is used in SQL for pattern matching?
a)
!
b)
#
c)
%
d)
&
100 %