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Set 1 - Clinical Community Medicine MCQs

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 48-year-old man admitted in the orthopaedic ward develops fever 8 days post-open reduction internal fixation surgery. Blood culture grows Klebsiella pneumoniae. Which of the following is the MOST likely primary source of infection in a tertiary care hospital setting?

a)

Contaminated surgical instruments

b)

IV cannula-related bloodstream infection

c)

Infected bed linen

d)

Visitor-to-patient transmission

2.

In a medical college ICU, 35% of ventilated patients develop pneumonia despite adherence to hand hygiene protocols. Which additional intervention offers the strongest evidence-based reduction in ventilator-associated pneumonia?

a)

Routine use of broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Elevation of head end of the bed to 30-45°

c)

Daily sputum culture

d)

Continuous oxygen humidification

3.

A hospital reports a sudden rise in Clostridioides difficile colitis cases among postoperative patients. Which antibiotic policy change will most likely curb this outbreak?

a)

Ban all aminoglycosides

b)

Restrict fluoroquinolones and cephalosporins

c)

Increase metronidazole use

d)

Switch all patients to carbapenems

4.

In a 1200-bed tertiary care hospital, the infection control committee decides to implement bundled care for central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) prevention. Which of the following is NOT a core component of the bundle?

a)

Maximal sterile barrier precautions during insertion

b)

Daily review of line necessity

c)

Routine prophylactic antibiotics for all central lines

d)

Use of chlorhexidine for skin antisepsis

5.

In the paediatric ward, two infants develop late-onset sepsis with Serratia marcescens. Cultures from which hospital source are most likely to be positive?

a)

Tap water from handwashing sink

b)

Sterile gloves

c)

Wall paint chips

d)

Linen storage area

6.

A 55-year-old diabetic man admitted for cellulitis develops sudden-onset breathlessness on day 5. ABG shows hypoxia, CXR is normal. Which hospital-acquired condition should be suspected first?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

ARDS

c)

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

d)

Pleural effusion

7.

During an NABH audit, the infection control nurse is asked to demonstrate compliance with biomedical waste segregation in the pathology lab. Histopathology tissue waste is correctly disposed in:

a)

Yellow bag

b)

Red bag

c)

Blue container

d)

Black bag

8.

A postnatal ward nurse is found to be a chronic nasal carrier of MRSA. What is the recommended first-line decolonisation regimen?

a)

IV vancomycin for 7 days

b)

Oral doxycycline for 5 days

c)

Intranasal mupirocin + chlorhexidine bath

d)

No treatment unless symptomatic

9.

A patient in the oncology ward develops febrile neutropenia. Blood cultures grow Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The hospital antibiogram shows 80% sensitivity to piperacillin-tazobactam. The most appropriate empirical therapy is:

a)

Piperacillin-tazobactam

b)

Meropenem

c)

Colistin

d)

Ceftriaxone

10.

In a burns unit, a spike in Acinetobacter baumannii sepsis cases is noted. Which is the single most effective environmental measure to control the outbreak?

a)

Daily fumigation

b)

Strict dry mopping only

c)

Disinfection of hydrotherapy tanks

d)

Limiting patient visitors

11.

In a tertiary care hospital, ESBL-producing E. coli prevalence in surgical wards is 65%. Which antibiotic is preferred for empirical treatment of complicated UTI in this setting?

a)

Ceftriaxone

b)

Amikacin

c)

Nitrofurantoin

d)

Cefixime

12.

A patient admitted in the psychiatry ward attempts suicide by ingesting hospital cleaning fluid. Which policy document should the hospital's root cause analysis committee review first?

a)

Biomedical Waste Management Plan

b)

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

c)

Disaster Management Plan

d)

Occupational Safety Manual

13.

During peak dengue season, the medicine ward reports a cluster of nosocomial dengue cases. Which of the following hospital-level measures is MOST effective in preventing further spread?

a)

Spraying insecticide only in affected ward

b)

Complete hospital-wide vector control

c)

Daily fumigation of wards

d)

Discharging all febrile patients

14.

A 30-year-old male patient is admitted in nephrology ward for peritoneal dialysis. Cloudy effluent with >100 WBC/mm³ is noted. The infection control committee suspects contamination during exchanges. The best corrective action is:

a)

Replace all dialysis catheters

b)

Retrain staff and patients in aseptic exchange technique

c)

Switch all patients to haemodialysis

d)

Start empirical colistin in all patients

15.

An ICU patient develops bloodstream infection due to Candida auris. Which infection control action is unique to this pathogen compared to Candida albicans?

a)

Use of N95 masks

b)

Contact isolation + terminal cleaning with chlorine-based disinfectants

c)

Airborne isolation in negative pressure room

d)

Avoidance of chlorhexidine baths

16.

In a tertiary care NICU, an increase in necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) cases is noted. Which change in feeding policy is most strongly supported by evidence to reduce NEC rates?

a)

Early introduction of bovine milk-based formula

b)

Delayed initiation of enteral feeds for all neonates

c)

Exclusive use of mother's own breast milk

d)

Addition of probiotic supplements to all feeds without screening

17.

A surgical ward experiences an outbreak of carbapenem-resistant Klebsiella pneumoniae. Which hospital measure has shown the most consistent outbreak control effect?

a)

Universal patient isolation until discharge

b)

Cohorting infected patients with dedicated staff

c)

Increasing carbapenem dose in empirical therapy

d)

Substituting all antibiotics with aminoglycosides

18.

During hospital water quality testing, Legionella pneumophila is detected in the cooling tower water. The most effective immediate intervention is:

a)

Increase chlorine concentration in hospital drinking water

b)

Hyperchlorination and thermal disinfection of the cooling tower

c)

Ban all use of central AC systems

d)

Start prophylactic azithromycin for all patients

19.

A 65-year-old post-cardiac surgery patient develops confusion, hyponatremia, and low serum osmolality. Which hospital-associated complication is most likely?

a)

SIADH due to medications

b)

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

c)

ICU psychosis

d)

Cerebral infarct

20.

A tertiary care hospital's annual antibiotic audit shows 42% of post-op prescriptions exceed 5 days without indication. The most effective stewardship measure is:

a)

Weekly staff meeting on antibiotic use

b)

Implementing post-op antibiotic stop orders with override justification

c)

Restricting all post-op antibiotics to one class

d)

Adding antibiotic costs to patient bills

21.

In a dialysis unit, 20% of patients on haemodialysis develop Hepatitis C within a year. Which is the strongest independent risk factor in this setting?

a)

Sharing multi-dose heparin vials between patients

b)

Blood transfusions

c)

Consumption of raw seafood

d)

Use of synthetic dialyzer membranes

22.

A cluster of postsurgical Burkholderia cepacia infections is traced to contaminated antiseptic solution. Which property of this organism explains its survival?

a)

Ability to form spores

b)

Resistance to quaternary ammonium compounds

c)

Anaerobic metabolism

d)

Rapid growth at low temperatures

23.

In a hospital TB ward, an HIV-positive patient with pulmonary TB continues to produce positive sputum smears after 4 months of treatment. Which is the most likely cause?

a)

Drug-resistant TB

b)

Laboratory contamination

c)

Poor-quality sputum specimen

d)

Paradoxical immune reconstitution

24.

In a tertiary care OT, the colony count in the sterile zone is 15 CFU/m³ with laminar airflow. This is:

a)

Acceptable as per NABH standards

b)

Above acceptable limit; OT should be closed

c)

Below acceptable limit; no action required

d)

Within acceptable limit but requires HEPA filter change

25.

During an NABH reaccreditation, surveyors ask to see 'process indicators' in the infection control program. Which is an example?

a)

Rate of surgical site infection

b)

Percentage compliance with hand hygiene

c)

Mortality rate in ICU

d)

Average length of stay

26.

A patient in neurology ward develops aspiration pneumonia post-stroke. Which is the most cost-effective preventive strategy?

a)

Early insertion of nasogastric tube in all stroke patients

b)

Swallowing assessment by trained staff before oral feeding

c)

Empirical antibiotic prophylaxis

d)

Routine PEG tube insertion for all stroke patients

27.

A surgical ICU adopts chlorhexidine oral rinse to prevent VAP. Six months later, no change in VAP rates is observed. The most likely reason is:

a)

Incorrect concentration of chlorhexidine

b)

Poor oral care technique adherence

c)

Resistance development

d)

Inadequate nurse-to-patient ratio

28.

A 30-year-old obstetric patient develops septic shock postpartum. Blood cultures reveal Group A Streptococcus. The first infection control step is:

a)

Immediate staff screening

b)

Notification to infection control and contact tracing of all exposed staff and patients

c)

Closing the labour room

d)

Mass prophylaxis with penicillin

29.

In a trauma ICU, a patient with multiple fractures develops DVT despite prophylactic LMWH. Which additional measure provides proven benefit?

a)

IVC filter placement in all trauma patients

b)

Early mobilisation with physiotherapy

c)

Doubling LMWH dose

d)

Routine D-dimer screening

30.

A 40-year-old renal transplant patient in the transplant ward develops fever and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates 2 months post-op. Bronchoalveolar lavage grows Pneumocystis jirovecii. Which preventive measure was likely missed?

a)

Daily chlorhexidine mouth rinse

b)

Prophylactic trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

c)

Isoniazid prophylaxis

d)

Influenza vaccination