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Networking Protocols Quiz

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Origin attribute is used to define the source of BGP path information. There are three types, and they have a priority relationship. Which of the following statements about the order of priority relationships is correct?

a)

Incomplete > IGP > EGP

b)

Incomplete > EGP > IGP

c)

EGP > IGP > Incomplete

d)

IGP > EGP > Incomplete

2.

There are many types of VPNs, which can be applied at different layers. Which network layer does SSL VPN belong to?

a)

Network Layer

b)

Data Link Layer

c)

Transport Layer

d)

Application Layer

3.

IGMP has three versions, and the features supported by different versions vary. Which of the following features is supported by all versions?

a)

Leave Group Message

b)

Specific Group Query

c)

Membership Report Message

d)

Source-Specific Multicast

4.

An engineer did not compare versions when configuring the multicast protocol, resulting in the IGMP Snooping version configured on the device being lower than the IGMP version on the user's host. Which of the following situations will occur at this time?

a)

The host's IGMP version automatically upgrades, and the user normally receives multicast data.

b)

The user cannot receive multicast data because after the device receives the IGMP Report message, it will only forward it to the router port and will not generate a member port and forwarding entry.

c)

The device's IGMP Snooping version automatically degrades for compatibility, and the user normally receives multicast data.

d)

The user cannot receive multicast data, but the device will generate a forwarding entry after receiving the IGMP Report message.

5.

When configuring BGP, the apply as-path command can be used to modify the action of the AS_Path attribute of a BGP route in the routing policy. If the administrator wants to use a specified AS number to overwrite the original AS_Path list, which of the following parameters can be carried for configuration?

a)

limit

b)

additive

c)

none

d)

overwrite

6.

As shown in the figure, in a broadcast IS-IS network, R1 is selected as the DIS by default among the four routers. Now, if the dis-priority of R2's GE0/0/1 interface is changed to 63, which router will be selected as the DIS after the network stabilizes?

a)

R3

b)

R2

c)

R4

d)

R1

7.

As shown in the figure, this is an OSPF network in a certain park. The five routers in the figure have connected interfaces that are all GE ports and the cost has not been changed. Now, the engineer has performed an import-route operation on R1. After the network converges, when the engineer checks the route to the server 192.168.1.0/24 on R2, what should its cost value be?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

4

d)

3

8.

In an OSPF network, routers learn complete network routing information by exchanging LSAs. When the LS Age in the LSA header reaches which of the following values, will this LSA be deleted?

a)

1800 seconds

b)

1200 seconds

c)

3600 seconds

d)

600 seconds

9.

In IPv6, NDP uses various ICMPv6 messages. Which of the following functions is the RS message used for?

a)

Duplicate Address Detection

b)

Prefix Renumbering

c)

Redirection

d)

Address Resolution

10.

To reduce the number of IGMP protocol messages on the network segment where user hosts are located, the IGMP Snooping Proxy function can be deployed on Layer 2 devices. However, IGMP Snooping Proxy does not process received protocol messages in exactly the same way. Which of the following descriptions about how this protocol processes messages is incorrect?

a)

If an IGMP Report message is received, it will be directly discarded.

b)

If an IGMP Group-Specific Query message is received, it will be directly discarded.

c)

If an IGMP Source-Specific Group Query message is received, it will be directly discarded.

d)

If a General Query message is received, an IGMP General Query message will be sent to all interfaces in the VLAN except the receiving interface.

11.

To address the shortcomings of STP, RSTP changed the format of the Configuration BPDU, fully utilizing which field in the STP message to explicitly define the port role?

a)

Flag

b)

BPDU Type

c)

PID

d)

PVI

12.

Which of the following descriptions about the BGP protocol is correct?

a)

Multiple BGP processes cannot be configured on a single router.

b)

The Open message only contains the BGP message header.

c)

When the export policy of a BGP neighbor changes, a manual operation is required to re-send an Update message to that neighbor.

d)

For an IGP route to become a BGP route, it can only be done through the network command.

13.

A BGP device received a route sent by a neighbor that carried an unrecognized attribute, but it is uncertain whether other devices still need this attribute. Therefore, when notifying other peers, it still carries this attribute. Which of the following attributes belongs to this type?

a)

Originator_ID

b)

MED

c)

AS_Path

d)

Community

14.

In the IPv4 address space, Class D addresses are used for multicast. Within the Class D address range, which of the following is a permanent multicast address reserved for routing protocols?

a)

239.0.0.0-239.255.255.255

b)

232.0.0.0-232.255.255.255

c)

224.0.0.0-224.0.0.255

d)

224.0.1.0-231.255.255.255

15.

When Huawei firewalls are enabled by default, they create some security zones. Which of the following security zones is created by the user themselves?

a)

ISP

b)

Local

c)

Trust

d)

DMZ

16.

When Ethernet transmits IPv4 unicast packets, the destination MAC address is also a multicast MAC address. If the IP address of the multicast group is 224.0.1.1, then the corresponding multicast MAC address should be which of the following?

a)

01-00-5e-01-01-00

b)

01-00-5e-01-01-01

c)

01-00-5e-00-01-01

d)

01-00-5e-00-01-00

17.

Access control list is one of the commonly used matching tools for routing policies. When configuring a numeric ACL for a Huawei router, which of the following parameters must be configured?

a)

Matching action permit or deny

b)

source

c)

Wildcard

d)

rule-id

18.

In a BGP network, locally generated routes may have multiple paths. When multiple paths are learned for the same BGP route locally, which of the following has the highest priority?

a)

Manually summarized routes

b)

Automatically summarized routes

c)

Routes introduced by the import-route command

d)

Routes introduced by the network command

19.

Which of the following community attributes allows a device to send a route with this attribute to any BGP peer upon receiving it?

a)

Internet

b)

No_Advertise

c)

No_Export

d)

No_Export_Subconfed

20.

In an IS-IS network, an AS can be divided into backbone areas and non-backbone areas. Which of the following IS-IS routers can exist in the backbone area?

a)

Level-1-2

b)

Level-1

c)

Level-2

d)

Level-1-2 and Level-2

21.

In a broadcast IS-IS network, a DIS needs to be elected, and its function is to create and update pseudo-nodes. By default, what is the DIS priority of an IS-IS interface?

a)

1

b)

200

c)

100

d)

64

22.

In an OSPF network, OSPF defines multiple network types. Which of the following network types must be manually specified by a network engineer?

a)

Broadcast

b)

P2P

c)

P2MP

d)

NBMA

23.

In a certain MSTP network, four switches created multiple MSTP instances to achieve load balancing. After the configuration is complete, the user executes the command display stp brief on each of the four switches, and the display information is shown in the figure. Which of the following descriptions about this network is correct?

a)

SW1 is the root bridge for MSTI 1.

b)

The port role of SW3's GigabitEthernet0/0/1 is an edge port.

c)

The user created a total of three MSTP instances.

d)

SW2's GigabitEthernet0/0/2 port cannot forward data.

24.

BGP confederation can solve the problem of increased iBGP network connections within an AS, so it is widely used. Which of the following descriptions about this feature is incorrect?

a)

After configuring confederation, the original iBGP attributes can be retained.

b)

External ASes still consider the confederation as one AS.

c)

After configuring confederation, the original AS number will be used as the confederation ID for each router.

d)

The confederation divides an AS into several sub-ASes, and full-mesh eBGP connections are established within each sub-AS.

25.

Which of the following descriptions about an IGMPv3 report sent by a host, including INCLUDE (G, {S1}), is correct?

a)

Only receive data sent by source S1 to group G.

b)

Receive data including source S1 sent to group G.

c)

Do not receive data including source S1 sent to group G.

d)

Do not receive data sent by source S1 to group G.

26.

A medium-sized campus network manages its network using the SNMP protocol. This campus has very high requirements for network security. Which version of SNMP is recommended for management?

a)

SNMPv4

b)

SNMPv1

c)

SNMPv2C

d)

SNMPv3

27.

Compared to RSTP, MSTP defines more port roles. As shown in the figure, what is the port role of the port connecting SW3 to SW5?

a)

Designated Port

b)

Root Port

c)

Master Port

d)

Boundary Port

28.

In multicast, a certain principle must be followed when preferentially matching RPF routes. Which of the following principles does not belong to the RPF route preference principles?

a)

Route priority (Pre-value)

b)

Longest mask match

c)

Group static route > MBGP route > Unicast route

d)

Smallest interface cost

29.

Generally, a protocol that requires occupying multiple ports during communication is called a multi-channel protocol. At this time, it is necessary to enable the ASP function on the firewall to ensure the smooth establishment of the data channel while reducing the risk of being attacked. Which of the following protocols does not belong to multi-channel protocols?

a)

H.323

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

SIP

30.

In the SNMP management model, which of the following elements is used to define the attributes of a managed device?

a)

Managed Object

b)

Agent

c)

NMS

d)

MIB

31.

In WLAN networks, MAC authentication is an access control authentication method based on interfaces and end device MAC addresses. Which of the following descriptions about MAC authentication is incorrect?

a)

The terminal does not need to install any client software.

b)

In MAC authentication, user passwords can be processed in two ways: PAP and CHAP.

c)

By default, the username used by the terminal for MAC authentication is the terminal's MAC address, and the password is the last six (hexadecimal) digits of the terminal's MAC address.

d)

The MAC authentication system includes three component

32.

Which of the following descriptions about planning security policies is incorrect?

a)

Unknown threat files can be sent to a sandbox for detection, and the firewall regularly reads the detection results from the sandbox and blocks subsequent traffic based on the detection results.

b)

It is necessary for administrators to fully understand the applications, users, and content in the network before setting up, which is a prerequisite for setting up security policies so that the firewall can inspect the corresponding user traffic.

c)

To further reduce the attack surface, enable URL filtering and file filtering and other functions based on security policies that allow a certain application, to prevent users from accessing high-risk websites and downloading high-risk files.

d)

In all security policy rules where actions are allowed, try not to introduce content security profiles to facilitate quick inspection.

33.

Based on the analysis of the output information, which of the following is the cause of this problem?

a)

Inconsistent OSPF Auth Data

b)

Inconsistent OSPF Router ID

c)

Inconsistent OSPF Auth Type

d)

Inconsistent OSPF Area ID

34.

Which of the following LSA types cannot exist in a completely STUB area?

a)

Type 1 LSA

b)

Type 3 summary LSA

c)

Type 2 LSA

d)

Type 3 LSA describing default routes

35.

Which of the following protocols is generally used in a Smurf attack?

a)

TCP

b)

DHCP

c)

BGP

d)

ICMP

36.

Which of the following descriptions about OSPFv3 LSA, Type 4 LSA, and Type 5 LSA is correct?

a)

Type 4 LSA and Type 5 LSA will not change after crossing different areas, but Type 3 LSA and Type 5 LSA will change.

b)

Type 3 LSA, Type 4 LSA, and Type 5 LSA will not change after crossing different areas.

c)

Type 5 LSA will not change after crossing different areas, but Type 3 LSA will change.

d)

Type 3 LSA will not change after crossing different areas, but Type 4 LSA and Type 5 LSA will change.

37.

How many port states does the RSTP protocol have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

38.

By default, what is the sending interval of Keepalive messages?

a)

180 seconds

b)

90 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

150 seconds

39.

IGMP Snooping is an important protocol in multicast protocols. Which of the following descriptions about this protocol is incorrect?

a)

IGMP Snooping maintains the outgoing interface information of multicast messages by snooping multicast protocol messages sent between Layer 3 multicast devices and user hosts.

b)

After the device runs IGMP Snooping, different IGMP protocol messages will be processed in the same way when received.

c)

IGMP Snooping is a Layer 2 multicast protocol.

d)

The multicast forwarding entry established by IGMP Snooping includes router ports and member ports.

40.

Which of the following address types is not supported by IPv4?

a)

Multicast

b)

Anycast

c)

Unicast

d)

Broadcast

41.

Which of the following device roles is a backbone router in the service provider's network and is not directly connected to a CE?

a)

Client

b)

Customer Edge

c)

Provider Edge

d)

Provider

42.

Which of the following descriptions about IPv6 addresses is incorrect?

a)

Anycast addresses can only be used as destination addresses.

b)

Link-local addresses can be quickly generated using the EUI-64 method.

c)

Each interface can have multiple global unicast addresses with different network prefixes.

d)

When configuring a link-local address, the priority of manual specification is higher than that of automatic generation.

43.

When checking the routing table on R2, which of the following route entries might exist?

a)

10.1.4.0/24

b)

10.1.2.0/24

c)

10.1.1.0/24

d)

10.1.3.0/24

44.

The IP-Prefix configured for a Huawei router is shown below. Which of the following cannot be matched in the route information?

[huawei]ip ip-prefix test index 10 permit 10.0.0.0 8 less-equal 32

a)

10.1.1.0/6

b)

10.1.1.0/24

c)

10.0.0.0/16

d)

10.1.1.1/32

45.

Which of the following descriptions about the next-hop address when BGP advertises routes is incorrect?

a)

When BGP advertises locally originated routes to iBGP peers, the next-hop attribute is set to the address of the interface connected to the peer.

b)

When BGP advertises routes from eBGP to eBGP peers, the next-hop attribute is set to the address of the interface connected to the peer.

c)

When BGP advertises non-labeled routes from eBGP to iBGP peers, the next-hop attribute is changed to the address of the interface connected to itself and the peer.

d)

When BGP advertises routes from iBGP to iBGP peers, the next-hop attribute is not changed.

46.

What is the maximum number of nodes that can be configured in a Route-Policy?

a)

4096

b)

256

c)

65535

d)

1024

47.

When BFD performs single-hop detection, which of the following is used as the destination port number?

a)

UDP 4784

b)

TCP 3784

c)

UDP 3784

d)

TCP 4784

48.

Which of the following planes is NOT included in the logical architecture of network devices?

a)

Data Plane

b)

Monitoring Plane

c)

Control Plane

d)

Forwarding Plane

49.

After negotiation, what should be the TX time of device R1?

a)

100 ms

b)

Negotiation fails, and ultimately becomes 0

c)

150 ms

d)

200 ms

50.

Which of the following fields in the DD message is this function primarily realized through?

a)

MS

b)

M

c)

I

d)

DD sequence number

51.

If the Auth Type field in the message header is 1, what does it mean?

a)

Simple plaintext password authentication

b)

HASH authentication

c)

No authentication

d)

MD5 authentication

52.

Which router will be elected as the DIS in this scenario?

a)

R1

b)

R2

c)

R3

d)

R4

53.

Which of the following parameters does not belong to the SA triplet information?

a)

Key Exchange Protocol

b)

Security Protocol Number

c)

Destination IP Address

d)

SPI

54.

By default, what is the IGMP General Query interval in seconds?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

10

d)

90

55.

Which of the following descriptions about a VRRP master device is incorrect?

a)

Periodically sends VRRP packets

b)

Responds to ARP requests for the virtual IP address with the virtual MAC address

c)

Forwards IP packets whose destination MAC address is the virtual MAC address

d)

Even if this router is already a Master, it will be preempted by a Backup router with a higher priority

56.

By default, what is the priority value for Huawei switch interfaces?

a)

32768

b)

4096

c)

128

d)

1

57.

In an OSPF MA network, how many seconds of election time do network devices need to select DR/BDR in a 2-way state?

a)

10 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

40 seconds

d)

30 seconds

58.

A router uses advanced ACLs to filter data, and its configuration command is shown below. Which of the following descriptions about this configuration is incorrect?

[Huawei] acl 3001

[Huawei-acl-adv-3001] rule permit icmp source 192.168.1.3 0 destination 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255

a)

This ACL allows IP packets from host 192.168.1.3 to the 192.168.2.0/24 network segment to pass.

b)

This ACL allows ICMP packets from host 192.168.1.3 to host 192.168.2.200 to pass.

c)

This ACL does not allow ICMP packets from host 192.168.1.2 to the 192.168.2.0/24 network segment to pass.

d)

This ACL is a numeric ACL, numbered 3001.

59.

When a packet with a destination address of 10.9.1.2 is received, through which interface will it forward the packet?

a)

GigabitEthernet3/0/0

b)

GigabitEthernet2/0/0

c)

GigabitEthernet1/0/0

d)

GigabitEthernet4/0/0

60.

Which of the following packets will not have a session entry created for it when it reaches the firewall?

a)

UDP packet

b)

Fragmented subsequent packet (i.e., a non-initial fragment)

c)

ICMP ping packet

d)

GRE packet

61.

In the default case, what is the cost for R3 to reach 10.0.1.1/32?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

20

d)

30