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Pharmacology grand quiz 25 aug

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Bioavailability refers to:

a)

The rate of drug metabolism

b)

The fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation

c)

The volume of distribution

d)

The drug's binding to plasma proteins

2.

The main organ responsible for drug metabolism is:

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Spleen

3.

The time taken for the concentration of a drug in plasma to reduce by half is called:

a)

Onset time

b)

Peak time

c)

Half-life

d)

Duration of action

4.

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biological response is called a:

a)

Partial agonist

b)

Full agonist

c)

Antagonist

d)

Inverse agonist

5.

The volume of distribution (Vd) indicates:

a)

How widely a drug is distributed in body fluids/tissues

b)

The rate of drug excretion

c)

Drug potency

d)

Protein binding capacity

6.

Which of the following processes is not part of pharmacokinetics?

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism

d)

Receptor activation

7.

The measure of drug safety is best indicated by:

a)

Half-life

b)

Therapeutic index

c)

Bioavailability

d)

Volume of distribution

8.

Drugs that prevent the binding of an agonist to its receptor are called:

a)

Antagonists

b)

Partial agonists

c)

Agonists

d)

Prodrugs

9.

Which factor can decrease the rate of drug absorption?

a)

Large surface area

b)

Good blood flow

c)

Presence of food in the stomach

d)

Lipid solubility of the drug

10.

The maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose, is called:

a)

Potency

b)

Efficacy

c)

Affinity

d)

Bioavailability

11.

A drug follows first-order kinetics. If the half-life is 4 hours, what fraction of the drug remains after 12 hours?

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/8

d)

1/16

12.

A competitive antagonist shifts the dose-response curve:

a)

Downward without changing the slope

b)

To the right without changing the maximal response

c)

To the left and increases maximal response

d)

Downward and to the right, decreasing maximal response

13.

Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily responsible for increasing glandular secretions?

a)

M1

b)

M2

c)

M3

d)

M4

14.

Hexamethonium blocks transmission at which site?

a)

Muscarinic receptors

b)

Nicotinic receptors at ganglia

c)

Nicotinic receptors at neuromuscular junction

d)

Adrenergic receptors

15.

Which of the following drugs selectively stimulates β₂ receptors?

a)

Salbutamol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Dopamine

16.

Botulinum toxin causes paralysis by:

a)

Blocking acetylcholine receptors

b)

Inhibiting acetylcholine release

c)

Blocking sodium channels

d)

Stimulating GABA release

17.

Which adrenergic receptor subtype, when activated, causes vasoconstriction?

a)

α₁

b)

α₂

c)

β₁

d)

β₂

18.

A patient on propranolol is given epinephrine. Which effect is most likely reduced?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Reflex tachycardia

19.

Which cholinesterase inhibitor is used to reverse non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade?

a)

Atropine

b)

Neostigmine

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Pralidoxime

20.

Succinylcholine causes muscle relaxation by:

a)

Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

b)

Persistent depolarization of nicotinic receptors

c)

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

d)

Inhibiting calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

21.

Which drug inhibits norepinephrine reuptake at sympathetic nerve terminals?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Cocaine

c)

Guanethidine

d)

Methyldopa

22.

Which muscarinic antagonist is used as a pre-anesthetic medication to reduce salivation?

a)

Ipratropium

b)

Atropine

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

Physostigmine

23.

Which drug is a selective α₂ adrenergic agonist used in hypertension?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Clonidine

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Isoproterenol

24.

Which neuromuscular blocker is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase?

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Atracurium

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Rocuronium

25.

Which drug produces "first-dose" postural hypotension?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Prazosin

c)

Propranolol

d)

Clonidine

26.

Which muscarinic agonist is used to stimulate bladder contraction in urinary retention?

a)

Atropine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Tropicamide

27.

The main mechanism of action of metyrosine is:

a)

Inhibition of tyrosine hydroxylase

b)

Inhibition of dopamine β-hydroxylase

c)

Inhibition of monoamine oxidase

d)

Inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter

28.

Which β-blocker has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Pindolol

c)

Atenolol

d)

Metoprolol

29.

Which drug blocks vesicular storage of norepinephrine?

a)

Reserpine

b)

Cocaine

c)

Phenoxybenzamine

d)

Ephedrine

30.

Which adrenergic agonist has the greatest affinity for β₁ receptors?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Isoproterenol

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Norepinephrine

31.

Which drug produces miosis and is used in the treatment of glaucoma?

a)

Atropine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Tropicamide

d)

Cyclopentolate

32.

Which drug is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?

a)

Pyridostigmine

b)

Edrophonium

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Succinylcholine

33.

Which muscarinic antagonist is used to treat motion sickness?

a)

Atropine

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Glycopyrrolate

34.

Which drug causes irreversible α-receptor blockade?

a)

Phentolamine

b)

Phenoxybenzamine

c)

Prazosin

d)

Yohimbine

35.

Which drug acts as both an α and β adrenergic agonist?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Salbutamol

d)

Dobutamine

36.

Which non-depolarizing NMJ blocker undergoes Hofmann elimination?

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Atracurium

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Vecuronium

37.

Which drug can cross the blood-brain barrier to treat anticholinergic toxicity?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Pyridostigmine

d)

Pralidoxime

38.

Which calcium channel blocker has the most pronounced effect on cardiac conduction?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Verapamil

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Felodipine

39.

Which calcium channel blocker has the most pronounced effect on cardiac conduction?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Verapamil

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Felodipine

40.

Nitroprusside lowers blood pressure primarily by:

a)

Reducing heart rate

b)

Direct vasodilation via nitric oxide release

c)

Beta-blockade

d)

Calcium channel blockade

41.

Which antiarrhythmic drug blocks potassium channels, prolonging the QT interval?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Propranolol

d)

Verapamil

42.

Dobutamine increases cardiac output by:

a)

Increasing systemic vascular resistance

b)

Stimulating β₁ receptors

c)

Blocking α₁ receptors

d)

Stimulating β₂ receptors

43.

Which drug irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase?

a)

Clopidogrel

b)

Aspirin

c)

Ticagrelor

d)

Abciximab

44.

Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

Thiazide diuretics

d)

Calcium channel blockers

45.

The drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia is:

a)

Adenosine

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Digoxin

d)

Lidocaine

46.

Which β-blocker is cardioselective?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Timolol

d)

Nadolol

47.

Which antihypertensive drug can cause lupus-like syndrome?

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Minoxidil

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Clonidine

48.

Which potassium channel opener is used in severe hypertension?

a)

Minoxidil

b)

Labetalol

c)

Verapamil

d)

Esmolol

49.

Which lipid-lowering drug inhibits intestinal absorption of cholesterol?

a)

Atorvastatin

b)

Ezetimibe

c)

Niacin

d)

Gemfibrozil

50.

Which anticoagulant directly inhibits thrombin?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Dabigatran

c)

Heparin

d)

Apixaban

51.

Which antianginal increases oxygen supply without reducing heart rate?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Ranolazine

c)

Atenolol

d)

Verapamil

52.

Which drug should be avoided in variant (Prinzmetal) angina?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Nicorandil

53.

Which drug is preferred in pregnancy-induced hypertension?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Atenolol

d)

Losartan

54.

Which loop diuretic is safe in sulfa allergy?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Bumetanide

c)

Ethacrynic acid

d)

Torsemide

55.

Which diuretic reduces intracranial pressure rapidly?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Furosemide

56.

Which asthma drug inhibits 5-lipoxygenase?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Zileuton

c)

Salmeterol

d)

Cromolyn

57.

Which inhaled anesthetic can cause hepatitis?

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Halothane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Desflurane

58.

Which antiemetic is a 5-HT₃ receptor antagonist?

a)

Metoclopramide

b)

Ondansetron

c)

Promethazine

d)

Domperidone

59.

Which drug inhibits the Na⁺/K⁺/2Cl⁻ transporter in the thick ascending loop?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Amiloride

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Acetazolamide

60.

Which anti-asthmatic drug is a mast cell stabilizer?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Cromolyn sodium

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Fluticasone

61.

Which PPI has the shortest half-life?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Pantoprazole

c)

Esomeprazole

d)

Lansoprazole

62.

Which antidiarrheal is a μ-opioid receptor agonist?

a)

Diphenoxylate

b)

Loperamide

c)

Codeine

d)

Kaolin

63.

Which drug is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Misoprostol

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Omeprazole

64.

Which insulin preparation has the longest duration of action?

a)

NPH insulin

b)

Glargine

c)

Lispro

d)

Regular insulin

65.

Which oral hypoglycemic drug causes lactic acidosis as a rare side effect?

a)

Metformin

b)

Glipizide

c)

Pioglitazone

d)

Repaglinide

66.

Which thyroid drug inhibits both organification and peripheral conversion of T₄ to T₃?

a)

Methimazole

b)

Propylthiouracil

c)

Levothyroxine

d)

Liothyronine

67.

Which corticosteroid has the highest mineralocorticoid activity?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Fludrocortisone

c)

Prednisolone

d)

Dexamethasone

68.

Which insulin secretagogue closes ATP-sensitive K⁺ channels in β-cells?

a)

Metformin

b)

Glibenclamide

c)

Pioglitazone

d)

Sitagliptin

69.

Which thyroid preparation is preferred in myxedema coma?

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Liothyronine

c)

Methimazole

d)

PTU

70.

Which corticosteroid is preferred for fetal lung maturation?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Betamethasone

c)

Fludrocortisone

d)

Methylprednisolone

71.

Which insulin preparation is given IV in diabetic ketoacidosis?

a)

Regular insulin

b)

NPH insulin

c)

Lispro

d)

Glargine

72.

Which corticosteroid is least likely to cause sodium retention?

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Prednisolone

c)

Hydrocortisone

d)

Fludrocortisone

73.

Which antidiabetic increases insulin secretion via GLP-1 receptor stimulation?

a)

Sitagliptin

b)

Exenatide

c)

Metformin

d)

Glipizide

74.

Which class III antiarrhythmic drug also has nonselective β-blocking properties?

a)

Sotalol

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Dronedarone

d)

Ibutilide

75.

Which loop diuretic retains efficacy in patients with severe renal failure?

a)

Torsemide

b)

Ethacrynic acid

c)

Furosemide

d)

Bumetanide

76.

Which β-blocker is preferred in heart failure due to its antioxidant and antiproliferative properties?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Bisoprolol

c)

Carvedilol

d)

Metoprolol

77.

Which inhalational anesthetic causes the least airway irritation, making it suitable for induction in asthmatics?

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Halothane

78.

Which proton pump inhibitor is least likely to cause CYP2C19-mediated drug interactions?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Lansoprazole

c)

Pantoprazole

d)

Esomeprazole

79.

Which thiazide diuretic is most potent in lowering blood pressure due to its long duration of action?

a)

Chlorthalidone

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Indapamide

d)

Metolazone

80.

Which corticosteroid has the greatest mineralocorticoid activity?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Fludrocortisone

d)

Prednisone

81.

Which insulin preparation has no pronounced peak and provides steady basal insulin levels?

a)

Insulin lispro

b)

NPH insulin

c)

Insulin glargine

d)

Insulin aspart

82.

Which drug reduces cardiac preload and afterload while also improving renal perfusion in acute heart failure?

a)

Milrinone

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Nesiritide

83.

Which antiarrhythmic can cause lupus-like syndrome most frequently?

a)

Procainamide

b)

Quinidine

c)

Disopyramide

d)

Flecainide

84.

Which corticosteroid is preferred in cerebral edema due to brain tumors?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Prednisone

d)

Methylprednisolone

85.

Chronic systemic glucocorticoid therapy suppresses the HPA axis primarily by:

a)

Inhibiting CRH release

b)

Inhibiting ACTH release

c)

Blocking cortisol receptors

d)

Increasing aldosterone synthesis

86.

Which steroid has the shortest duration of action?

a)

Cortisone

b)

Prednisone

c)

Dexamethasone

d)

Triamcinolone

87.

The mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist used in primary hyperaldosteronism is:

a)

Eplerenone

b)

Fludrocortisone

c)

Betamethasone

d)

Triamcinolone

88.

Glucocorticoids cause hyperglycemia mainly by:

a)

Stimulating insulin release

b)

Inhibiting lipolysis

c)

Increasing hepatic gluconeogenesis

d)

Blocking glycogen synthase

89.

Which β-lactam antibiotic is stable against hydrolysis by AmpC β-lactamase?

a)

Cefepime

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Piperacillin

90.

Which aminoglycoside is most active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a)

Amikacin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Tobramycin

d)

Streptomycin

91.

Vancomycin’s mechanism of action involves:

a)

Inhibiting transpeptidase

b)

Inhibiting transglycosylase

c)

Binding 30S ribosome

d)

Blocking DNA gyrase

92.

Which macrolide has the best oral bioavailability?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Clarithromycin

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Roxithromycin

93.

Rifampicin induces hepatic enzymes by activating:

a)

CYP1A2

b)

Pregnane X receptor (PXR)

c)

CYP2C19

d)

Glucuronyl transferase

94.

Linezolid is avoided with SSRIs due to risk of:

a)

QT prolongation

b)

Serotonin syndrome

c)

Agranulocytosis

d)

Lactic acidosis

95.

Which tetracycline is safest in renal failure?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Minocycline

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Tigecycline

96.

Which carbapenem has the highest seizure risk?

a)

Meropenem

b)

Ertapenem

c)

Imipenem

d)

Doripenem

97.

Which antiviral requires activation by viral thymidine kinase?

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Ganciclovir

c)

Tenofovir

d)

Foscarnet

98.

Foscarnet’s dose-limiting toxicity is:

a)

Neutropenia

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Myopathy

d)

Hypothyroidism

99.

Which neuraminidase inhibitor is inhaled?

a)

Oseltamivir

b)

Zanamivir

c)

Peramivir

d)

Baloxavir

100.

Tenofovir is unique among NRTIs because:

a)

It is a nucleotide analog

b)

It inhibits reverse transcriptase noncompetitively

c)

It causes lactic acidosis frequently

d)

It requires CYP3A4 activation

101.

Which hepatitis C drug targets the NS5A protein?

a)

Sofosbuvir

b)

Ledipasvir

c)

Simeprevir

d)

Ribavirin

102.

Amphotericin B causes renal toxicity mainly by:

a)

Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis

b)

Increasing membrane permeability

c)

Blocking DNA synthesis

d)

Inhibiting squalene epoxidase

103.

Voriconazole’s unique side effect is:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Visual disturbances

c)

Gynecomastia

d)

Nephrolithiasis

104.

Caspofungin inhibits:

a)

β-1,3-glucan synthase

b)

Chitin synthase

c)

Squalene epoxidase

d)

Ergosterol demethylase

105.

Terbinafine is fungicidal by:

a)

Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis

b)

Inhibiting squalene epoxidase

c)

Binding tubulin

d)

Disrupting RNA synthesis

106.

Cisplatin toxicity is prevented with:

a)

Mesna

b)

Amifostine

c)

Leucovorin

d)

Dexrazoxane

107.

Bleomycin’s dose-limiting toxicity:

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Myelosuppression

c)

Cardiotoxicity

d)

Renal failure

108.

Methotrexate toxicity is reduced by:

a)

Amifostine

b)

Leucovorin

c)

Mesna

d)

Allopurinol

109.

Paclitaxel’s mechanism:

a)

Depolymerizes microtubules

b)

Hyperstabilizes microtubules

c)

Inhibits topoisomerase I

d)

Alkylates DNA

110.

Trastuzumab targets:

a)

VEGF

b)

HER2

c)

EGFR

d)

PD-1

111.

Trastuzumab targets:

a)

VEGF

b)

HER2

c)

EGFR

d)

PD-1

112.

Basiliximab is used in:

a)

Autoimmune arthritis

b)

Renal transplant prophylaxis

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Psoriasis

113.

Etanercept acts by:

a)

Blocking IL-1 receptor

b)

Binding TNF-α

c)

Blocking JAK-STAT

d)

Inhibiting calcineurin

114.

Cyclosporine inhibits:

a)

mTOR

b)

Calcineurin

c)

JAK

d)

PKC

115.

Natalizumab blocks:

a)

Integrin α4β1

b)

VEGF receptor

c)

CD20

d)

CD52

116.

Alemtuzumab targets:

a)

CD20

b)

CD52

c)

CD3

d)

CD25

117.

Which local anesthetic is most cardiotoxic?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Procaine

d)

Mepivacaine

118.

Which drug is first-line for absence seizures?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Valproic acid

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Carbamazepine

119.

Clozapine carries the highest risk of:

a)

Tardive dyskinesia

b)

Agranulocytosis

c)

Hyperprolactinemia

d)

Hypertension

120.

Which antidepressant inhibits both NE and dopamine reuptake?

a)

Venlafaxine

b)

Bupropion

c)

Duloxetine

d)

Amitriptyline

121.

Ketamine’s anesthetic action is via blockade of:

a)

NMDA receptor

b)

AMPA receptor

c)

GABA-A receptor

d)

Glycine receptor

122.

Benzodiazepine with shortest half-life useful for insomnia:

a)

Diazepam

b)

Temazepam

c)

Triazolam

d)

Lorazepam

123.

Lamotrigine’s main dose-limiting toxicity:

a)

Gingival hyperplasia

b)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Hirsutism

d)

Weight gain

124.

Which opioid is a partial μ agonist and κ antagonist?

a)

Morphine

b)

Buprenorphine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Codeine

125.

Which corticosteroid is preferred for fetal lung maturation due to better placental transfer?

a)

Prednisolone

b)

Betamethasone

c)

Hydrocortisone

d)

Methylprednisolone

126.

Which antibacterial inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Linezolid

127.

Which antiviral requires phosphorylation by thymidine kinase for activation?

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Foscarnet

c)

Cidofovir

d)

Tenofovir

128.

Which antifungal drug acts by binding to ergosterol and forming membrane pores?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Terbinafine

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Flucytosine

129.

Which anticancer drug is most associated with cardiotoxicity due to free radical formation?

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Cyclophosphamide

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Cisplatin

130.

Which monoclonal antibody targets CD20 on B lymphocytes?

a)

Rituximab

b)

Trastuzumab

c)

Alemtuzumab

d)

Bevacizumab

131.

Which benzodiazepine is preferred for status epilepticus due to rapid CNS entry?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Midazolam

d)

Clonazepam

132.

Which CNS drug causes irreversible inhibition of GABA transaminase?

a)

Vigabatrin

b)

Tiagabine

c)

Valproic acid

d)

Topiramate

133.

Which corticosteroid is most potent in suppressing ACTH release?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Prednisone

c)

Dexamethasone

d)

Triamcinolone

134.

Which antifungal inhibits squalene epoxidase?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Terbinafine

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Caspofungin

135.

Which anticancer agent is an M phase-specific microtubule stabilizer?

a)

Paclitaxel

b)

Vincristine

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Etoposide

136.

A 65-year-old male with chronic atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. He develops tuberculosis and is started on rifampin. After 2 weeks, his INR falls below the therapeutic range despite adherence to warfarin. Which mechanism best explains this drug interaction?

a)

Displacement of warfarin from plasma proteins

b)

Increased hepatic metabolism via CYP2C9 induction

c)

Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase

d)

Decreased absorption due to intestinal P-glycoprotein blockade

137.

A 32-year-old woman treated with lithium for bipolar disorder presents with nausea, tremors, and confusion after starting hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Her lithium levels are markedly elevated. Which mechanism most likely explains this?

a)

Thiazide diuretics increase lithium tubular reabsorption in the proximal tubule

b)

Lithium is displaced from albumin binding sites by hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide inhibits lithium hepatic metabolism

d)

Thiazides block lithium's renal secretion through organic anion transporters

138.

A patient on theophylline for COPD experiences severe nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, and seizures after starting erythromycin for pneumonia. Which mechanism underlies this interaction?

a)

Erythromycin induces CYP1A2, increasing theophylline metabolism

b)

Erythromycin inhibits CYP3A4, reducing theophylline clearance

c)

Erythromycin inhibits P-glycoprotein, increasing theophylline absorption

d)

Erythromycin displaces theophylline from tissue-binding sites

139.

A cancer patient on high-dose methotrexate develops acute kidney injury, leading to dangerously high methotrexate plasma levels. Which therapeutic intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Administer leucovorin rescue

b)

Give allopurinol to block xanthine oxidase

c)

Administer filgrastim to stimulate white cell recovery

d)

Initiate N-acetylcysteine infusion

140.

In a patient receiving digoxin for heart failure, the addition of amiodarone results in bradycardia, nausea, and visual disturbances. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Amiodarone displaces digoxin from plasma proteins

b)

Amiodarone inhibits renal P-glycoprotein-mediated digoxin elimination

c)

Amiodarone accelerates digoxin metabolism via CYP2D6 induction

d)

Amiodarone decreases intestinal absorption of digoxin

141.

A renal transplant recipient on cyclosporine develops life-threatening nephrotoxicity after starting ketoconazole for fungal infection. Which mechanism explains this?

a)

Ketoconazole induces CYP3A4, lowering cyclosporine levels

b)

Ketoconazole inhibits CYP3A4, increasing cyclosporine levels

c)

Ketoconazole enhances cyclosporine renal tubular reabsorption

d)

Ketoconazole increases cyclosporine protein binding in plasma

142.

A patient receiving gentamicin for septicemia develops severe hearing loss and vertigo. Which factor most likely increased his risk of this adverse drug reaction?

a)

Co-administration with loop diuretics

b)

Concurrent use of macrolides

c)

High plasma albumin concentration

d)

History of asthma

143.

A hypertensive patient on ACE inhibitors develops life-threatening hyperkalemia after being started on spironolactone for heart failure. Which mechanism explains this?

a)

Both drugs decrease potassium excretion by different pathways

b)

ACE inhibitors directly stimulate aldosterone secretion

c)

Spironolactone inhibits the RAAS system more than ACE inhibitors

d)

Potassium reabsorption is increased in the loop of Henle by both agents

144.

A patient develops severe serotonin syndrome after taking sumatriptan for migraine while on fluoxetine for depression. Which mechanism is responsible?

a)

CYP3A4 inhibition leading to sumatriptan accumulation

b)

Additive agonism at serotonin (5-HT1B/1D) receptors

c)

Inhibition of monoamine oxidase-B by fluoxetine

d)

Displacement of sumatriptan from plasma proteins by fluoxetine

145.

A patient with epilepsy on phenytoin develops gingival hyperplasia. Which mechanism best explains this adverse drug reaction?

a)

Increased fibroblast proliferation due to altered collagenase activity

b)

Direct cytotoxicity to gingival epithelial cells

c)

Immune-mediated hypersensitivity

d)

Accumulation of phenytoin metabolites in gingival tissues

146.

A patient develops a red-man syndrome reaction during vancomycin infusion. Which is the best preventive measure?

a)

Administer antihistamines before infusion

b)

Increase infusion rate to complete dosing quickly

c)

Switch to oral vancomycin

d)

Give corticosteroids before dosing

147.

A 45-year-old with epilepsy experiences increased seizure frequency after starting oral contraceptives. Which mechanism explains this?

a)

Oral contraceptives inhibit phenytoin metabolism

b)

Oral contraceptives induce CYP3A4, reducing phenytoin levels

c)

Phenytoin induces CYP3A4, increasing contraceptive metabolism

d)

Phenytoin inhibits progesterone binding to its receptor

148.

In the setting of aminoglycoside toxicity, which electrolyte disturbance is most likely?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Hypomagnesemia

d)

Hypernatremia

149.

A patient on isoniazid develops peripheral neuropathy after several months. What is the best preventive strategy?

a)

Co-administer pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

b)

Administer folic acid supplementation

c)

Reduce isoniazid dose by half

d)

Switch to rifampin

150.

A patient receiving MAO inhibitors develops hypertensive crisis after eating aged cheese. What is the mechanism?

a)

Tyramine-induced catecholamine release

b)

Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake

c)

Increased serotonin synthesis

d)

Direct α1-adrenergic receptor agonism

151.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is Stevens–Johnson syndrome most commonly associated with?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

152.

Which drug is most likely to cause “gray baby syndrome” due to immature glucuronidation?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Chloramphenicol

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Vancomycin

153.

Which combination can precipitate serotonin syndrome?

a)

SSRI + MAOI

b)

NSAID + ACE inhibitor

c)

Warfarin + Vitamin K

d)

Beta-blocker + Digoxin

154.

Which antibiotic can dangerously prolong the QT interval, especially with other QT-prolonging agents?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Penicillin G

155.

Which drug interaction leads to “cheese reaction” (hypertensive crisis)?

a)

MAOI + Tyramine-rich food

b)

SSRI + Grapefruit juice

c)

Aspirin + Alcohol

d)

Metformin + Cimetidine

156.

Which TDM parameter is most crucial for aminoglycosides?

a)

Peak level

b)

Trough level

c)

AUC

d)

Steady state

157.

Which anticonvulsant requires monitoring of trough levels to avoid toxicity?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Lamotrigine

c)

Levetiracetam

d)

Gabapentin

158.

Which drug combination can lead to “Red Man Syndrome”?

a)

Vancomycin rapid infusion

b)

Rifampin + INH

c)

Gentamicin + Furosemide

d)

Aspirin + Methotrexate

159.

Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of high-dose corticosteroids?

a)

Agranulocytosis

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Stevens–Johnson syndrome

d)

Ototoxicity

160.

Which drug causes dose-dependent gingival hyperplasia?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Amiodarone

161.

Which drug interaction increases the risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia?

a)

ACE inhibitor + Potassium-sparing diuretic

b)

Beta-blocker + NSAID

c)

Digoxin + Loop diuretic

d)

Warfarin + Rifampin

162.

Which ADR is most associated with isoniazid and can be prevented with pyridoxine?

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Peripheral neuropathy

c)

Optic neuritis

d)

Psychosis

163.

Which lab value is most important for vancomycin TDM?

a)

Peak plasma concentration

b)

Trough plasma concentration

c)

Clearance rate

d)

Protein binding

164.

Which anticoagulant requires INR monitoring?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Dabigatran

c)

Apixaban

d)

Fondaparinux

165.

Which drug interaction can cause lithium toxicity?

a)

Lithium + Thiazide diuretics

b)

Lithium + Beta-blockers

c)

Lithium + Aspirin

d)

Lithium + Penicillin

166.

Which drug can cause dose-dependent ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Rifampin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Azithromycin

167.

Which ADR is linked to ACE inhibitors and is mediated by bradykinin?

a)

Urticaria

b)

Angioedema

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Constipation

168.

Which combination is contraindicated due to risk of lactic acidosis?

a)

Metformin + Contrast media

b)

Metformin + Statins

c)

Aspirin + Beta-blockers

d)

Methotrexate + Folic acid

169.

Which ADR is associated with clozapine and requires regular CBC monitoring?

a)

Agranulocytosis

b)

Thrombocytopenia

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Cholestasis

170.

Which ADR is most typical of amiodarone therapy?

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Nephrolithiasis

c)

Constipation

d)

Agranulocytosis

171.

Which drug interaction increases rhabdomyolysis risk?

a)

Statin + Macrolide antibiotic

b)

Statin + Aspirin

c)

Statin + Beta-blocker

d)

Statin + ACE inhibitor

172.

Which anticonvulsant is associated with hepatotoxicity requiring LFT monitoring?

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Lamotrigine

c)

Levetiracetam

d)

Topiramate

173.

Which ADR is related to sulfonylureas and beta-blocker co-administration?

a)

Increased hypoglycemia risk

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hyperkalemia

174.

Which adverse effect is “idiosyncratic” rather than dose-dependent?

a)

Anaphylaxis to penicillin

b)

Aspirin-induced ulcers

c)

Aminoglycoside ototoxicity

d)

Methotrexate myelosuppression

175.

Which drug interaction increases bleeding risk significantly?

a)

Warfarin + NSAID

b)

Warfarin + Vitamin K

c)

Aspirin + Calcium carbonate

d)

Digoxin + Loop diuretic

176.

Which ADR is most associated with methotrexate toxicity?

a)

Bone marrow suppression

b)

Ototoxicity

c)

Retinopathy

d)

Cholestatic jaundice

177.

Which TDM is most crucial for preventing aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity?

a)

Trough levels

b)

Peak levels

c)

Loading dose

d)

Cmax/MIC ratio

178.

Which ADR is caused by chronic amiodarone use and is due to iodine content?

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hyponatremia

179.

Which drug interaction causes hypertensive crisis due to inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake?

a)

Cocaine + MAOI

b)

Lithium + SSRIs

c)

Rifampin + OCPs

d)

Metformin + Beta-blockers

180.

Which ADR is associated with halothane anesthesia?

a)

Fulminant hepatic necrosis

b)

Pulmonary edema

c)

Aplastic anemia

d)

Myopathy

181.

A 67-year-old male with a history of chronic atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin therapy for stroke prevention. Three weeks later, he is hospitalized with severe gastrointestinal bleeding. His INR is markedly elevated at 6.5. On review of his medication history, it is found that his physician had recently prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for potentiating the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism and altering gut flora synthesis of vitamin K?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Nitrofurantoin

d)

Amoxicillin

182.

A 52-year-old woman with bipolar disorder stabilized on lithium presents with confusion, tremors, and ataxia. Laboratory results show elevated serum lithium levels. She recently started on a new antihypertensive medication. Which of the following drugs most likely caused reduced renal clearance of lithium, precipitating toxicity?

a)

Amlodipine

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Losartan

d)

Atenolol

183.

A 70-year-old patient is receiving aminoglycoside therapy for a severe Gram-negative infection. The physician orders regular monitoring of serum drug concentrations to minimize nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Which pharmacokinetic property justifies measuring peak and trough levels of aminoglycosides?

a)

Large volume of distribution

b)

Time-dependent killing

c)

Narrow therapeutic index

d)

Extensive hepatic metabolism

184.

A 45-year-old man with epilepsy controlled on phenytoin begins therapy with isoniazid for latent tuberculosis. Three weeks later, he experiences ataxia, diplopia, and nystagmus. Which mechanism best explains this interaction?

a)

Isoniazid increases renal clearance of phenytoin

b)

Isoniazid inhibits hepatic metabolism of phenytoin

c)

Phenytoin displaces isoniazid from plasma proteins

d)

Isoniazid induces CYP3A4

185.

A patient with unstable angina is given sublingual nitroglycerin. He is also taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Shortly after administration, he collapses due to profound hypotension. Which mechanism best explains this interaction?
a) Excessive β2 receptor stimulation

a)
Increased heart rate due to β1 receptor activation
b)
Decreased blood volume from diuretic effects
c)
c) Excessive vasodilation due to synergistic effects of nitroglycerin and sildenafil
d)
Inhibition of nitric oxide synthesis by sildenafil
186.

. A patient on isoniazid therapy develops peripheral neuropathy after six months. Which vitamin supplementation could have prevented this ADR?

a)
Vitamin C
b)
Folic acid
c)
Vitamin D
d)
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
187.

A 35-year-old man with HIV infection is on ritonavir-boosted antiretroviral therapy. He develops Cushingoid features after receiving inhaled fluticasone for asthma. Which mechanism explains this ADR?

a)
Direct inhibition of adrenal function by fluticasone.
b)
Increased metabolism of corticosteroids due to ritonavir.
c)
Decreased absorption of inhaled medications due to HIV.
d)
Increased systemic absorption of corticosteroids due to ritonavir.
188.

A patient on digoxin therapy develops nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances after starting clarithromycin. Digoxin levels are elevated. Which mechanism best explains this drug–drug interaction?

a)
Inhibition of P-glycoprotein and CYP3A4 metabolism.
b)
Increased renal clearance of digoxin.
c)
Stimulation of CYP2D6 metabolism.
d)
Enhanced absorption of digoxin in the gut.
189.

. A renal transplant recipient is receiving tacrolimus. TDM shows elevated drug levels after starting verapamil for hypertension. Which mechanism explains this?

a)
Increased renal clearance of tacrolimus due to verapamil.
b)
Stimulation of CYP3A4 metabolism by verapamil.
c)
Direct competition between tacrolimus and verapamil for renal excretion.
d)
Inhibition of CYP3A4 metabolism by verapamil.
190.

A patient on chronic phenobarbital therapy develops subtherapeutic INR values after being started on warfarin. Which mechanism best explains this drug–drug interaction?

a)
Increased metabolism of warfarin due to enzyme induction by phenobarbital.
b)
Increased clearance of phenobarbital due to warfarin.
c)
Inhibition of warfarin metabolism by phenobarbital.
d)
Decreased absorption of warfarin due to phenobarbital.
191.

A patient receiving vancomycin develops sudden-onset erythema and pruritus over the upper body during infusion. Blood pressure drops mildly. Which immediate management step is most appropriate?

a)
Stop the infusion and administer antihistamines.
b)
Give a dose of corticosteroids right away.
c)
Administer intravenous fluids immediately.
d)
Continue the infusion and monitor vital signs.
192.

. A patient is treated with linezolid for vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus infection. Two weeks later, he develops confusion, hyperreflexia, and diaphoresis after starting sertraline for depression. Which potentially fatal ADR is most likely?

a)
Serotonin syndrome
b)
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
c)
Hypotensive crisis
d)
Acute kidney injury
193.

A patient is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. During follow-up, she complains of mouth ulcers and pancytopenia. Laboratory tests reveal macrocytic anemia. Which supplement could have prevented this ADR without reducing methotrexate efficacy?

a)
Vitamin C
b)
Iron supplements
c)
Folic acid
d)
Calcium carbonate
194.

. A 58-year-old man with coronary artery disease is prescribed simvastatin. Two weeks later, he develops severe muscle pain and dark-colored urine. His creatine kinase levels are markedly elevated. Review of his medication list shows that he is also taking a macrolide antibiotic. Which macrolide most likely caused this ADR by inhibiting statin metabolism?

a)
erythromycin
b)
doxycycline
c)
clarithromycin
d)
azithromycin
195.

A patient receiving gentamicin develops worsening renal function during therapy. TDM reveals a persistently elevated trough level despite dose adjustments. Which explanation best accounts for this finding

a)
Increased hepatic metabolism of gentamicin.
b)
Patient is taking a drug that enhances gentamicin clearance.
c)
Gentamicin is being administered via an incorrect route.
d)
Impaired renal clearance due to worsening renal function.
196.

. A 72-year-old male is being treated for atrial fibrillation with amiodarone. After six months, he develops shortness of breath, nonproductive cough, and diffuse crackles on auscultation. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive defect. Which adverse drug reaction is most likely?

a)
Cardiac toxicity due to amiodarone.
b)
Pulmonary toxicity (interstitial lung disease) due to amiodarone.
c)
Gastrointestinal upset from amiodarone.
d)
Hepatotoxicity leading to liver failure.
197.

A patient is started on an antiepileptic drug with known teratogenic potential. The physician orders serum drug levels to maintain efficacy while minimizing toxicity. Which drug is most consistent with this practice, requiring regular TDM due to its narrow therapeutic index and risk of neural tube defects?

a)
Valproate
b)
Phenytoin
c)
Lamotrigine
d)
Carbamazepine
198.

A 60-year-old woman is being treated with theophylline for chronic asthma. She presents to the emergency department with palpitations, tremors, and nausea after being prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which mechanism most likely explains her symptoms?

a)
Inhibition of theophylline metabolism by ciprofloxacin.
b)
Increased absorption of theophylline due to ciprofloxacin.
c)
Stimulation of theophylline excretion by ciprofloxacin.
d)
Direct cardiac toxicity from ciprofloxacin.
199.

. A patient undergoing organ transplantation is prescribed cyclosporine to prevent graft rejection. He develops elevated cyclosporine levels and nephrotoxicity after starting treatment for a fungal infection. Which antifungal drug is the most probable cause of this drug–drug interaction through CYP3A4 inhibition?

a)
Ketoconazole
b)
Voriconazole
c)
Itraconazole
d)
Fluconazole
200.

A patient with a history of heart failure is on digoxin therapy. He is admitted for worsening shortness of breath and is found to have hypokalemia. Which of the following drugs most likely precipitated digoxin toxicity by causing potassium loss?

a)
ACE inhibitors
b)
Beta-blockers
c)
Thiazide diuretics
d)
Loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide)