Font size
WorksheetsPharmacology grand quiz 25 aug
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Bioavailability refers to:
The rate of drug metabolism
The fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation
The volume of distribution
The drug's binding to plasma proteins
The main organ responsible for drug metabolism is:
Kidney
Liver
Lungs
Spleen
The time taken for the concentration of a drug in plasma to reduce by half is called:
Onset time
Peak time
Half-life
Duration of action
A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biological response is called a:
Partial agonist
Full agonist
Antagonist
Inverse agonist
The volume of distribution (Vd) indicates:
How widely a drug is distributed in body fluids/tissues
The rate of drug excretion
Drug potency
Protein binding capacity
Which of the following processes is not part of pharmacokinetics?
Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Receptor activation
The measure of drug safety is best indicated by:
Half-life
Therapeutic index
Bioavailability
Volume of distribution
Drugs that prevent the binding of an agonist to its receptor are called:
Antagonists
Partial agonists
Agonists
Prodrugs
Which factor can decrease the rate of drug absorption?
Large surface area
Good blood flow
Presence of food in the stomach
Lipid solubility of the drug
The maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose, is called:
Potency
Efficacy
Affinity
Bioavailability
A drug follows first-order kinetics. If the half-life is 4 hours, what fraction of the drug remains after 12 hours?
1/2
1/4
1/8
1/16
A competitive antagonist shifts the dose-response curve:
Downward without changing the slope
To the right without changing the maximal response
To the left and increases maximal response
Downward and to the right, decreasing maximal response
Which muscarinic receptor subtype is primarily responsible for increasing glandular secretions?
M1
M2
M3
M4
Hexamethonium blocks transmission at which site?
Muscarinic receptors
Nicotinic receptors at ganglia
Nicotinic receptors at neuromuscular junction
Adrenergic receptors
Which of the following drugs selectively stimulates β₂ receptors?
Salbutamol
Propranolol
Phenylephrine
Dopamine
Botulinum toxin causes paralysis by:
Blocking acetylcholine receptors
Inhibiting acetylcholine release
Blocking sodium channels
Stimulating GABA release
Which adrenergic receptor subtype, when activated, causes vasoconstriction?
α₁
α₂
β₁
β₂
A patient on propranolol is given epinephrine. Which effect is most likely reduced?
Bradycardia
Bronchodilation
Vasoconstriction
Reflex tachycardia
Which cholinesterase inhibitor is used to reverse non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade?
Atropine
Neostigmine
Succinylcholine
Pralidoxime
Succinylcholine causes muscle relaxation by:
Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
Persistent depolarization of nicotinic receptors
Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors
Inhibiting calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which drug inhibits norepinephrine reuptake at sympathetic nerve terminals?
Reserpine
Cocaine
Guanethidine
Methyldopa
Which muscarinic antagonist is used as a pre-anesthetic medication to reduce salivation?
Ipratropium
Atropine
Pilocarpine
Physostigmine
Which drug is a selective α₂ adrenergic agonist used in hypertension?
Phenylephrine
Clonidine
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
Which neuromuscular blocker is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase?
Pancuronium
Atracurium
Succinylcholine
Rocuronium
Which drug produces "first-dose" postural hypotension?
Atenolol
Prazosin
Propranolol
Clonidine
Which muscarinic agonist is used to stimulate bladder contraction in urinary retention?
Atropine
Bethanechol
Ipratropium
Tropicamide
The main mechanism of action of metyrosine is:
Inhibition of tyrosine hydroxylase
Inhibition of dopamine β-hydroxylase
Inhibition of monoamine oxidase
Inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter
Which β-blocker has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
Propranolol
Pindolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
Which drug blocks vesicular storage of norepinephrine?
Reserpine
Cocaine
Phenoxybenzamine
Ephedrine
Which adrenergic agonist has the greatest affinity for β₁ receptors?
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Which drug produces miosis and is used in the treatment of glaucoma?
Atropine
Pilocarpine
Tropicamide
Cyclopentolate
Which drug is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
Pyridostigmine
Edrophonium
Neostigmine
Succinylcholine
Which muscarinic antagonist is used to treat motion sickness?
Atropine
Scopolamine
Ipratropium
Glycopyrrolate
Which drug causes irreversible α-receptor blockade?
Phentolamine
Phenoxybenzamine
Prazosin
Yohimbine
Which drug acts as both an α and β adrenergic agonist?
Phenylephrine
Epinephrine
Salbutamol
Dobutamine
Which non-depolarizing NMJ blocker undergoes Hofmann elimination?
Rocuronium
Atracurium
Pancuronium
Vecuronium
Which drug can cross the blood-brain barrier to treat anticholinergic toxicity?
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Pralidoxime
Which calcium channel blocker has the most pronounced effect on cardiac conduction?
Nifedipine
Verapamil
Amlodipine
Felodipine
Which calcium channel blocker has the most pronounced effect on cardiac conduction?
Nifedipine
Verapamil
Amlodipine
Felodipine
Nitroprusside lowers blood pressure primarily by:
Reducing heart rate
Direct vasodilation via nitric oxide release
Beta-blockade
Calcium channel blockade
Which antiarrhythmic drug blocks potassium channels, prolonging the QT interval?
Lidocaine
Amiodarone
Propranolol
Verapamil
Dobutamine increases cardiac output by:
Increasing systemic vascular resistance
Stimulating β₁ receptors
Blocking α₁ receptors
Stimulating β₂ receptors
Which drug irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase?
Clopidogrel
Aspirin
Ticagrelor
Abciximab
Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis?
Beta-blockers
ACE inhibitors
Thiazide diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
The drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia is:
Adenosine
Amiodarone
Digoxin
Lidocaine
Which β-blocker is cardioselective?
Propranolol
Atenolol
Timolol
Nadolol
Which antihypertensive drug can cause lupus-like syndrome?
Hydralazine
Minoxidil
Methyldopa
Clonidine
Which potassium channel opener is used in severe hypertension?
Minoxidil
Labetalol
Verapamil
Esmolol
Which lipid-lowering drug inhibits intestinal absorption of cholesterol?
Atorvastatin
Ezetimibe
Niacin
Gemfibrozil
Which anticoagulant directly inhibits thrombin?
Warfarin
Dabigatran
Heparin
Apixaban
Which antianginal increases oxygen supply without reducing heart rate?
Nitroglycerin
Ranolazine
Atenolol
Verapamil
Which drug should be avoided in variant (Prinzmetal) angina?
Nitrates
Beta-blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Nicorandil
Which drug is preferred in pregnancy-induced hypertension?
Lisinopril
Methyldopa
Atenolol
Losartan
Which loop diuretic is safe in sulfa allergy?
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Ethacrynic acid
Torsemide
Which diuretic reduces intracranial pressure rapidly?
Mannitol
Spironolactone
Hydrochlorothiazide
Furosemide
Which asthma drug inhibits 5-lipoxygenase?
Montelukast
Zileuton
Salmeterol
Cromolyn
Which inhaled anesthetic can cause hepatitis?
Isoflurane
Halothane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Which antiemetic is a 5-HT₃ receptor antagonist?
Metoclopramide
Ondansetron
Promethazine
Domperidone
Which drug inhibits the Na⁺/K⁺/2Cl⁻ transporter in the thick ascending loop?
Furosemide
Amiloride
Hydrochlorothiazide
Acetazolamide
Which anti-asthmatic drug is a mast cell stabilizer?
Montelukast
Cromolyn sodium
Ipratropium
Fluticasone
Which PPI has the shortest half-life?
Omeprazole
Pantoprazole
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Which antidiarrheal is a μ-opioid receptor agonist?
Diphenoxylate
Loperamide
Codeine
Kaolin
Which drug is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease?
Misoprostol
NSAIDs
Sucralfate
Omeprazole
Which insulin preparation has the longest duration of action?
NPH insulin
Glargine
Lispro
Regular insulin
Which oral hypoglycemic drug causes lactic acidosis as a rare side effect?
Metformin
Glipizide
Pioglitazone
Repaglinide
Which thyroid drug inhibits both organification and peripheral conversion of T₄ to T₃?
Methimazole
Propylthiouracil
Levothyroxine
Liothyronine
Which corticosteroid has the highest mineralocorticoid activity?
Hydrocortisone
Fludrocortisone
Prednisolone
Dexamethasone
Which insulin secretagogue closes ATP-sensitive K⁺ channels in β-cells?
Metformin
Glibenclamide
Pioglitazone
Sitagliptin
Which thyroid preparation is preferred in myxedema coma?
Levothyroxine
Liothyronine
Methimazole
PTU
Which corticosteroid is preferred for fetal lung maturation?
Hydrocortisone
Betamethasone
Fludrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Which insulin preparation is given IV in diabetic ketoacidosis?
Regular insulin
NPH insulin
Lispro
Glargine
Which corticosteroid is least likely to cause sodium retention?
Dexamethasone
Prednisolone
Hydrocortisone
Fludrocortisone
Which antidiabetic increases insulin secretion via GLP-1 receptor stimulation?
Sitagliptin
Exenatide
Metformin
Glipizide
Which class III antiarrhythmic drug also has nonselective β-blocking properties?
Sotalol
Amiodarone
Dronedarone
Ibutilide
Which loop diuretic retains efficacy in patients with severe renal failure?
Torsemide
Ethacrynic acid
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Which β-blocker is preferred in heart failure due to its antioxidant and antiproliferative properties?
Atenolol
Bisoprolol
Carvedilol
Metoprolol
Which inhalational anesthetic causes the least airway irritation, making it suitable for induction in asthmatics?
Isoflurane
Desflurane
Sevoflurane
Halothane
Which proton pump inhibitor is least likely to cause CYP2C19-mediated drug interactions?
Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
Esomeprazole
Which thiazide diuretic is most potent in lowering blood pressure due to its long duration of action?
Chlorthalidone
Hydrochlorothiazide
Indapamide
Metolazone
Which corticosteroid has the greatest mineralocorticoid activity?
Hydrocortisone
Dexamethasone
Fludrocortisone
Prednisone
Which insulin preparation has no pronounced peak and provides steady basal insulin levels?
Insulin lispro
NPH insulin
Insulin glargine
Insulin aspart
Which drug reduces cardiac preload and afterload while also improving renal perfusion in acute heart failure?
Milrinone
Dobutamine
Nitroglycerin
Nesiritide
Which antiarrhythmic can cause lupus-like syndrome most frequently?
Procainamide
Quinidine
Disopyramide
Flecainide
Which corticosteroid is preferred in cerebral edema due to brain tumors?
Hydrocortisone
Dexamethasone
Prednisone
Methylprednisolone
Chronic systemic glucocorticoid therapy suppresses the HPA axis primarily by:
Inhibiting CRH release
Inhibiting ACTH release
Blocking cortisol receptors
Increasing aldosterone synthesis
Which steroid has the shortest duration of action?
Cortisone
Prednisone
Dexamethasone
Triamcinolone
The mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist used in primary hyperaldosteronism is:
Eplerenone
Fludrocortisone
Betamethasone
Triamcinolone
Glucocorticoids cause hyperglycemia mainly by:
Stimulating insulin release
Inhibiting lipolysis
Increasing hepatic gluconeogenesis
Blocking glycogen synthase
Which β-lactam antibiotic is stable against hydrolysis by AmpC β-lactamase?
Cefepime
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
Piperacillin
Which aminoglycoside is most active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Amikacin
Gentamicin
Tobramycin
Streptomycin
Vancomycin’s mechanism of action involves:
Inhibiting transpeptidase
Inhibiting transglycosylase
Binding 30S ribosome
Blocking DNA gyrase
Which macrolide has the best oral bioavailability?
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin
Roxithromycin
Rifampicin induces hepatic enzymes by activating:
CYP1A2
Pregnane X receptor (PXR)
CYP2C19
Glucuronyl transferase
Linezolid is avoided with SSRIs due to risk of:
QT prolongation
Serotonin syndrome
Agranulocytosis
Lactic acidosis
Which tetracycline is safest in renal failure?
Doxycycline
Minocycline
Tetracycline
Tigecycline
Which carbapenem has the highest seizure risk?
Meropenem
Ertapenem
Imipenem
Doripenem
Which antiviral requires activation by viral thymidine kinase?
Acyclovir
Ganciclovir
Tenofovir
Foscarnet
Foscarnet’s dose-limiting toxicity is:
Neutropenia
Nephrotoxicity
Myopathy
Hypothyroidism
Which neuraminidase inhibitor is inhaled?
Oseltamivir
Zanamivir
Peramivir
Baloxavir
Tenofovir is unique among NRTIs because:
It is a nucleotide analog
It inhibits reverse transcriptase noncompetitively
It causes lactic acidosis frequently
It requires CYP3A4 activation
Which hepatitis C drug targets the NS5A protein?
Sofosbuvir
Ledipasvir
Simeprevir
Ribavirin
Amphotericin B causes renal toxicity mainly by:
Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis
Increasing membrane permeability
Blocking DNA synthesis
Inhibiting squalene epoxidase
Voriconazole’s unique side effect is:
Hypokalemia
Visual disturbances
Gynecomastia
Nephrolithiasis
Caspofungin inhibits:
β-1,3-glucan synthase
Chitin synthase
Squalene epoxidase
Ergosterol demethylase
Terbinafine is fungicidal by:
Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis
Inhibiting squalene epoxidase
Binding tubulin
Disrupting RNA synthesis
Cisplatin toxicity is prevented with:
Mesna
Amifostine
Leucovorin
Dexrazoxane
Bleomycin’s dose-limiting toxicity:
Pulmonary fibrosis
Myelosuppression
Cardiotoxicity
Renal failure
Methotrexate toxicity is reduced by:
Amifostine
Leucovorin
Mesna
Allopurinol
Paclitaxel’s mechanism:
Depolymerizes microtubules
Hyperstabilizes microtubules
Inhibits topoisomerase I
Alkylates DNA
Trastuzumab targets:
VEGF
HER2
EGFR
PD-1
Trastuzumab targets:
VEGF
HER2
EGFR
PD-1
Basiliximab is used in:
Autoimmune arthritis
Renal transplant prophylaxis
Multiple sclerosis
Psoriasis
Etanercept acts by:
Blocking IL-1 receptor
Binding TNF-α
Blocking JAK-STAT
Inhibiting calcineurin
Cyclosporine inhibits:
mTOR
Calcineurin
JAK
PKC
Natalizumab blocks:
Integrin α4β1
VEGF receptor
CD20
CD52
Alemtuzumab targets:
CD20
CD52
CD3
CD25
Which local anesthetic is most cardiotoxic?
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Procaine
Mepivacaine
Which drug is first-line for absence seizures?
Phenytoin
Valproic acid
Ethosuximide
Carbamazepine
Clozapine carries the highest risk of:
Tardive dyskinesia
Agranulocytosis
Hyperprolactinemia
Hypertension
Which antidepressant inhibits both NE and dopamine reuptake?
Venlafaxine
Bupropion
Duloxetine
Amitriptyline
Ketamine’s anesthetic action is via blockade of:
NMDA receptor
AMPA receptor
GABA-A receptor
Glycine receptor
Benzodiazepine with shortest half-life useful for insomnia:
Diazepam
Temazepam
Triazolam
Lorazepam
Lamotrigine’s main dose-limiting toxicity:
Gingival hyperplasia
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Hirsutism
Weight gain
Which opioid is a partial μ agonist and κ antagonist?
Morphine
Buprenorphine
Fentanyl
Codeine
Which corticosteroid is preferred for fetal lung maturation due to better placental transfer?
Prednisolone
Betamethasone
Hydrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Which antibacterial inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase?
Rifampin
Ciprofloxacin
Chloramphenicol
Linezolid
Which antiviral requires phosphorylation by thymidine kinase for activation?
Acyclovir
Foscarnet
Cidofovir
Tenofovir
Which antifungal drug acts by binding to ergosterol and forming membrane pores?
Fluconazole
Terbinafine
Amphotericin B
Flucytosine
Which anticancer drug is most associated with cardiotoxicity due to free radical formation?
Doxorubicin
Cyclophosphamide
Methotrexate
Cisplatin
Which monoclonal antibody targets CD20 on B lymphocytes?
Rituximab
Trastuzumab
Alemtuzumab
Bevacizumab
Which benzodiazepine is preferred for status epilepticus due to rapid CNS entry?
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Midazolam
Clonazepam
Which CNS drug causes irreversible inhibition of GABA transaminase?
Vigabatrin
Tiagabine
Valproic acid
Topiramate
Which corticosteroid is most potent in suppressing ACTH release?
Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Dexamethasone
Triamcinolone
Which antifungal inhibits squalene epoxidase?
Amphotericin B
Terbinafine
Fluconazole
Caspofungin
Which anticancer agent is an M phase-specific microtubule stabilizer?
Paclitaxel
Vincristine
Methotrexate
Etoposide
A 65-year-old male with chronic atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. He develops tuberculosis and is started on rifampin. After 2 weeks, his INR falls below the therapeutic range despite adherence to warfarin. Which mechanism best explains this drug interaction?
Displacement of warfarin from plasma proteins
Increased hepatic metabolism via CYP2C9 induction
Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase
Decreased absorption due to intestinal P-glycoprotein blockade
A 32-year-old woman treated with lithium for bipolar disorder presents with nausea, tremors, and confusion after starting hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Her lithium levels are markedly elevated. Which mechanism most likely explains this?
Thiazide diuretics increase lithium tubular reabsorption in the proximal tubule
Lithium is displaced from albumin binding sites by hydrochlorothiazide
Hydrochlorothiazide inhibits lithium hepatic metabolism
Thiazides block lithium's renal secretion through organic anion transporters
A patient on theophylline for COPD experiences severe nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, and seizures after starting erythromycin for pneumonia. Which mechanism underlies this interaction?
Erythromycin induces CYP1A2, increasing theophylline metabolism
Erythromycin inhibits CYP3A4, reducing theophylline clearance
Erythromycin inhibits P-glycoprotein, increasing theophylline absorption
Erythromycin displaces theophylline from tissue-binding sites
A cancer patient on high-dose methotrexate develops acute kidney injury, leading to dangerously high methotrexate plasma levels. Which therapeutic intervention is most appropriate?
Administer leucovorin rescue
Give allopurinol to block xanthine oxidase
Administer filgrastim to stimulate white cell recovery
Initiate N-acetylcysteine infusion
In a patient receiving digoxin for heart failure, the addition of amiodarone results in bradycardia, nausea, and visual disturbances. What is the most likely cause?
Amiodarone displaces digoxin from plasma proteins
Amiodarone inhibits renal P-glycoprotein-mediated digoxin elimination
Amiodarone accelerates digoxin metabolism via CYP2D6 induction
Amiodarone decreases intestinal absorption of digoxin
A renal transplant recipient on cyclosporine develops life-threatening nephrotoxicity after starting ketoconazole for fungal infection. Which mechanism explains this?
Ketoconazole induces CYP3A4, lowering cyclosporine levels
Ketoconazole inhibits CYP3A4, increasing cyclosporine levels
Ketoconazole enhances cyclosporine renal tubular reabsorption
Ketoconazole increases cyclosporine protein binding in plasma
A patient receiving gentamicin for septicemia develops severe hearing loss and vertigo. Which factor most likely increased his risk of this adverse drug reaction?
Co-administration with loop diuretics
Concurrent use of macrolides
High plasma albumin concentration
History of asthma
A hypertensive patient on ACE inhibitors develops life-threatening hyperkalemia after being started on spironolactone for heart failure. Which mechanism explains this?
Both drugs decrease potassium excretion by different pathways
ACE inhibitors directly stimulate aldosterone secretion
Spironolactone inhibits the RAAS system more than ACE inhibitors
Potassium reabsorption is increased in the loop of Henle by both agents
A patient develops severe serotonin syndrome after taking sumatriptan for migraine while on fluoxetine for depression. Which mechanism is responsible?
CYP3A4 inhibition leading to sumatriptan accumulation
Additive agonism at serotonin (5-HT1B/1D) receptors
Inhibition of monoamine oxidase-B by fluoxetine
Displacement of sumatriptan from plasma proteins by fluoxetine
A patient with epilepsy on phenytoin develops gingival hyperplasia. Which mechanism best explains this adverse drug reaction?
Increased fibroblast proliferation due to altered collagenase activity
Direct cytotoxicity to gingival epithelial cells
Immune-mediated hypersensitivity
Accumulation of phenytoin metabolites in gingival tissues
A patient develops a red-man syndrome reaction during vancomycin infusion. Which is the best preventive measure?
Administer antihistamines before infusion
Increase infusion rate to complete dosing quickly
Switch to oral vancomycin
Give corticosteroids before dosing
A 45-year-old with epilepsy experiences increased seizure frequency after starting oral contraceptives. Which mechanism explains this?
Oral contraceptives inhibit phenytoin metabolism
Oral contraceptives induce CYP3A4, reducing phenytoin levels
Phenytoin induces CYP3A4, increasing contraceptive metabolism
Phenytoin inhibits progesterone binding to its receptor
In the setting of aminoglycoside toxicity, which electrolyte disturbance is most likely?
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypernatremia
A patient on isoniazid develops peripheral neuropathy after several months. What is the best preventive strategy?
Co-administer pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
Administer folic acid supplementation
Reduce isoniazid dose by half
Switch to rifampin
A patient receiving MAO inhibitors develops hypertensive crisis after eating aged cheese. What is the mechanism?
Tyramine-induced catecholamine release
Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
Increased serotonin synthesis
Direct α1-adrenergic receptor agonism
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is Stevens–Johnson syndrome most commonly associated with?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which drug is most likely to cause “gray baby syndrome” due to immature glucuronidation?
Gentamicin
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Vancomycin
Which combination can precipitate serotonin syndrome?
SSRI + MAOI
NSAID + ACE inhibitor
Warfarin + Vitamin K
Beta-blocker + Digoxin
Which antibiotic can dangerously prolong the QT interval, especially with other QT-prolonging agents?
Amoxicillin
Azithromycin
Tetracycline
Penicillin G
Which drug interaction leads to “cheese reaction” (hypertensive crisis)?
MAOI + Tyramine-rich food
SSRI + Grapefruit juice
Aspirin + Alcohol
Metformin + Cimetidine
Which TDM parameter is most crucial for aminoglycosides?
Peak level
Trough level
AUC
Steady state
Which anticonvulsant requires monitoring of trough levels to avoid toxicity?
Phenytoin
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Gabapentin
Which drug combination can lead to “Red Man Syndrome”?
Vancomycin rapid infusion
Rifampin + INH
Gentamicin + Furosemide
Aspirin + Methotrexate
Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of high-dose corticosteroids?
Agranulocytosis
Osteoporosis
Stevens–Johnson syndrome
Ototoxicity
Which drug causes dose-dependent gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin
Methotrexate
Carbamazepine
Amiodarone
Which drug interaction increases the risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia?
ACE inhibitor + Potassium-sparing diuretic
Beta-blocker + NSAID
Digoxin + Loop diuretic
Warfarin + Rifampin
Which ADR is most associated with isoniazid and can be prevented with pyridoxine?
Hepatitis
Peripheral neuropathy
Optic neuritis
Psychosis
Which lab value is most important for vancomycin TDM?
Peak plasma concentration
Trough plasma concentration
Clearance rate
Protein binding
Which anticoagulant requires INR monitoring?
Warfarin
Dabigatran
Apixaban
Fondaparinux
Which drug interaction can cause lithium toxicity?
Lithium + Thiazide diuretics
Lithium + Beta-blockers
Lithium + Aspirin
Lithium + Penicillin
Which drug can cause dose-dependent ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?
Gentamicin
Rifampin
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Which ADR is linked to ACE inhibitors and is mediated by bradykinin?
Urticaria
Angioedema
Hypokalemia
Constipation
Which combination is contraindicated due to risk of lactic acidosis?
Metformin + Contrast media
Metformin + Statins
Aspirin + Beta-blockers
Methotrexate + Folic acid
Which ADR is associated with clozapine and requires regular CBC monitoring?
Agranulocytosis
Thrombocytopenia
Hypothyroidism
Cholestasis
Which ADR is most typical of amiodarone therapy?
Pulmonary fibrosis
Nephrolithiasis
Constipation
Agranulocytosis
Which drug interaction increases rhabdomyolysis risk?
Statin + Macrolide antibiotic
Statin + Aspirin
Statin + Beta-blocker
Statin + ACE inhibitor
Which anticonvulsant is associated with hepatotoxicity requiring LFT monitoring?
Valproic acid
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Topiramate
Which ADR is related to sulfonylureas and beta-blocker co-administration?
Increased hypoglycemia risk
Hyperglycemia
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
Which adverse effect is “idiosyncratic” rather than dose-dependent?
Anaphylaxis to penicillin
Aspirin-induced ulcers
Aminoglycoside ototoxicity
Methotrexate myelosuppression
Which drug interaction increases bleeding risk significantly?
Warfarin + NSAID
Warfarin + Vitamin K
Aspirin + Calcium carbonate
Digoxin + Loop diuretic
Which ADR is most associated with methotrexate toxicity?
Bone marrow suppression
Ototoxicity
Retinopathy
Cholestatic jaundice
Which TDM is most crucial for preventing aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity?
Trough levels
Peak levels
Loading dose
Cmax/MIC ratio
Which ADR is caused by chronic amiodarone use and is due to iodine content?
Hypothyroidism
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Which drug interaction causes hypertensive crisis due to inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake?
Cocaine + MAOI
Lithium + SSRIs
Rifampin + OCPs
Metformin + Beta-blockers
Which ADR is associated with halothane anesthesia?
Fulminant hepatic necrosis
Pulmonary edema
Aplastic anemia
Myopathy
A 67-year-old male with a history of chronic atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin therapy for stroke prevention. Three weeks later, he is hospitalized with severe gastrointestinal bleeding. His INR is markedly elevated at 6.5. On review of his medication history, it is found that his physician had recently prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for potentiating the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism and altering gut flora synthesis of vitamin K?
Ciprofloxacin
Metronidazole
Nitrofurantoin
Amoxicillin
A 52-year-old woman with bipolar disorder stabilized on lithium presents with confusion, tremors, and ataxia. Laboratory results show elevated serum lithium levels. She recently started on a new antihypertensive medication. Which of the following drugs most likely caused reduced renal clearance of lithium, precipitating toxicity?
Amlodipine
Hydrochlorothiazide
Losartan
Atenolol
A 70-year-old patient is receiving aminoglycoside therapy for a severe Gram-negative infection. The physician orders regular monitoring of serum drug concentrations to minimize nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Which pharmacokinetic property justifies measuring peak and trough levels of aminoglycosides?
Large volume of distribution
Time-dependent killing
Narrow therapeutic index
Extensive hepatic metabolism
A 45-year-old man with epilepsy controlled on phenytoin begins therapy with isoniazid for latent tuberculosis. Three weeks later, he experiences ataxia, diplopia, and nystagmus. Which mechanism best explains this interaction?
Isoniazid increases renal clearance of phenytoin
Isoniazid inhibits hepatic metabolism of phenytoin
Phenytoin displaces isoniazid from plasma proteins
Isoniazid induces CYP3A4
A patient with unstable angina is given sublingual nitroglycerin. He is also taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Shortly after administration, he collapses due to profound hypotension. Which mechanism best explains this interaction?
a) Excessive β2 receptor stimulation
. A patient on isoniazid therapy develops peripheral neuropathy after six months. Which vitamin supplementation could have prevented this ADR?
A 35-year-old man with HIV infection is on ritonavir-boosted antiretroviral therapy. He develops Cushingoid features after receiving inhaled fluticasone for asthma. Which mechanism explains this ADR?
A patient on digoxin therapy develops nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances after starting clarithromycin. Digoxin levels are elevated. Which mechanism best explains this drug–drug interaction?
. A renal transplant recipient is receiving tacrolimus. TDM shows elevated drug levels after starting verapamil for hypertension. Which mechanism explains this?
A patient on chronic phenobarbital therapy develops subtherapeutic INR values after being started on warfarin. Which mechanism best explains this drug–drug interaction?
A patient receiving vancomycin develops sudden-onset erythema and pruritus over the upper body during infusion. Blood pressure drops mildly. Which immediate management step is most appropriate?
. A patient is treated with linezolid for vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus infection. Two weeks later, he develops confusion, hyperreflexia, and diaphoresis after starting sertraline for depression. Which potentially fatal ADR is most likely?
A patient is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. During follow-up, she complains of mouth ulcers and pancytopenia. Laboratory tests reveal macrocytic anemia. Which supplement could have prevented this ADR without reducing methotrexate efficacy?
. A 58-year-old man with coronary artery disease is prescribed simvastatin. Two weeks later, he develops severe muscle pain and dark-colored urine. His creatine kinase levels are markedly elevated. Review of his medication list shows that he is also taking a macrolide antibiotic. Which macrolide most likely caused this ADR by inhibiting statin metabolism?
A patient receiving gentamicin develops worsening renal function during therapy. TDM reveals a persistently elevated trough level despite dose adjustments. Which explanation best accounts for this finding
. A 72-year-old male is being treated for atrial fibrillation with amiodarone. After six months, he develops shortness of breath, nonproductive cough, and diffuse crackles on auscultation. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive defect. Which adverse drug reaction is most likely?
A patient is started on an antiepileptic drug with known teratogenic potential. The physician orders serum drug levels to maintain efficacy while minimizing toxicity. Which drug is most consistent with this practice, requiring regular TDM due to its narrow therapeutic index and risk of neural tube defects?
A 60-year-old woman is being treated with theophylline for chronic asthma. She presents to the emergency department with palpitations, tremors, and nausea after being prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which mechanism most likely explains her symptoms?
. A patient undergoing organ transplantation is prescribed cyclosporine to prevent graft rejection. He develops elevated cyclosporine levels and nephrotoxicity after starting treatment for a fungal infection. Which antifungal drug is the most probable cause of this drug–drug interaction through CYP3A4 inhibition?
A patient with a history of heart failure is on digoxin therapy. He is admitted for worsening shortness of breath and is found to have hypokalemia. Which of the following drugs most likely precipitated digoxin toxicity by causing potassium loss?
