wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Plant Engineering Quiz

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 3hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In industrial engineering, a plant refers to:

a)

A biological organism used in farming

b)

A place where manufacturing or processing is carried out

c)

A research laboratory only

d)

A retail outlet for selling products

2.

A manufacturing plant is primarily involved in:

a)

Providing consultation

b)

Selling readymade goods

c)

Processing raw materials into finished products

d)

Conducting legal operations

3.

Which of the following is the most important factor in selecting an industrial site?

a)

Political stability

b)

Availability of raw materials

c)

Proximity to schools

d)

Urban population

4.

Which of the following is not a factor affecting site selection?

a)

Transportation facilities

b)

Climatic condition

c)

Availability of recreational parks

d)

Availability of water

5.

A textile industry is most likely to be located near:

a)

Iron ore mines

b)

Sea ports

c)

Thermal power stations

d)

Cotton growing areas

6.

Which site location factor is related to the disposal of industrial waste?

a)

Water supply

b)

Labour availability

c)

Environmental regulations

d)

Raw materials

7.

Which of the following is considered while selecting a site for heavy industries?

a)

High population density

b)

Proximity to luxury hotels

c)

Availability of consumer market only

d)

Availability of land and power

8.

Government policies and incentives are crucial in site selection because they:

a)

Affect the company’s logo

b)

Determine worker salaries

c)

Influence investment and operational costs

d)

Decide production schedules

9.

Which of the following industries requires proximity to the market?

a)

Cement industry

b)

Steel plant

c)

Bakery and food processing industry

d)

Oil refinery

10.

Which factor is most important for a knowledge-based industry like IT?

a)

Mineral resources

b)

Availability of skilled labour

c)

River proximity

d)

Heavy machinery availability

11.

Plant layout refers to:

a)

The design of products in a factory

b)

The arrangement of machinery, equipment, and other facilities

c)

The structure of buildings

d)

The work schedule for employees

12.

The main objective of a good plant layout is to:

a)

Minimize taxation

b)

Minimize the cost of land

c)

Ensure smooth flow of materials and workers

d)

Maximize the number of machines

13.

A good plant layout helps to reduce:

a)

Equipment cost

b)

Material handling cost

c)

Salary of labour

d)

Number of departments

14.

In a process layout, equipment and machines are arranged based on:

a)

Sequence of operations

b)

Type of function or process

c)

Shape of the product

d)

Size of the machines

15.

Process layout is also known as:

a)

Functional layout

b)

Product layout

c)

Fixed-position layout

d)

Station layout

16.

Process layout is preferable when:

a)

Product demand is stable and high

b)

Production is standardized

c)

Products vary in design and processing needs

d)

Machinery is immobile

17.

Process layout is best suited for:

a)

Mass production

b)

Assembly line production

c)

Continuous production

d)

Job order production

18.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a process layout?

a)

Low work-in-progress

b)

Low flexibility

c)

High product standardization

d)

High material handling cost

19.

Which of the following typically uses a process layout?

a)

Automobile manufacturing

b)

Oil refinery

c)

Hospital

d)

Bottling plant

20.

Which of the following is an advantage of process layout?

a)

High output

b)

Less flexible

c)

Suitable for specialized products

d)

Low initial investment

21.

One major disadvantage of process layout is:

a)

Inflexibility in operations

b)

High volume production required

c)

Inefficient use of resources for varied tasks

d)

High idle time and material handling cost

22.

Product layout is also known as:

a)

Functional layout

b)

Line layout

c)

Fixed-position layout

d)

Process layout

23.

Product layout is most suitable for:

a)

Job production

b)

Custom production

c)

Mass production

d)

Low volume production

24.

In product layout, machines are arranged according to:

a)

Function performed

b)

Departments

c)

Sequence of operations

d)

Size of equipment

25.

Which of the following industries is most likely to use product layout?

a)

Construction

b)

Shipbuilding

c)

Tailoring unit

d)

Automobile assembly

26.

The main advantage of product layout is:

a)

High flexibility

b)

Low volume of output

c)

Lower initial cost

d)

Lower material handling cost

27.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of product layout?

a)

Lower productivity

b)

Less flexibility

c)

Reduced idle time of machines

d)

Easy supervision

28.

A failure of one machine in a product layout:

a)

Affects only that operation

b)

Halts the entire production line

c)

Increases productivity

d)

Reduces material costs

29.

In fixed position layout, the product:

a)

Moves along a conveyor line

b)

Moves from one department to another

c)

Remains stationary and workers/equipment come to it

d)

Is produced in batches

30.

Fixed position layout is most suitable for:

a)

Mass production of small parts

b)

Production of standardized goods

c)

Manufacturing of large and heavy products

d)

Small-scale job shops

31.

Which of the following uses a fixed position layout?

a)

Textile mill

b)

Hospital

c)

Bakery

d)

Shipbuilding

32.

One of the key characteristics of fixed position layout is:

a)

Product flows through machines

b)

Equipment is permanently placed

c)

Workers and machines move to the product

d)

Very high volume production

33.

An advantage of fixed position layout is:

a)

Low cost of material handling

b)

Easy to automate

c)

Flexibility for product customization

d)

Easy supervision

34.

A major limitation of fixed position layout is:

a)

Difficulty in material handling

b)

Low flexibility

c)

High equipment utilization

d)

Less space requirement

35.

The primary objective of plant maintenance is to:

a)

Increase the number of workers

b)

Reduce machine efficiency

c)

Ensure uninterrupted and efficient plant operation

d)

Increase maintenance cost

36.

Which of the following is a key benefit of effective plant maintenance?

a)

Reduced production quality

b)

Increased downtime

c)

Reduced equipment life

d)

Increased equipment reliability

37.

Which of the following is NOT a type of plant maintenance?

a)

Preventive maintenance

b)

Breakdown maintenance

c)

Productive maintenance

d)

Predictive maintenance

38.

Breakdown maintenance is also known as:

a)

Preventive maintenance

b)

Predictive maintenance

c)

Corrective maintenance

d)

Scheduled maintenance

39.

In breakdown maintenance, actions are taken:

a)

Before equipment fails

b)

Based on data analytics

c)

Continuously regardless of condition

d)

After equipment has failed

40.

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of breakdown maintenance?

a)

Low initial cost

b)

High unplanned downtime

c)

Reduced machine flexibility

d)

High planning requirement

41.

Breakdown maintenance is most suitable for:

a)

Critical systems

b)

Non-critical, low-cost equipment

c)

Continuous process industries

d)

High-tech automated systems

42.

Which of the following is NOT true about breakdown maintenance?

a)

It can lead to unexpected production stoppages

b)

It is reactive in nature

c)

It minimizes the risk of sudden failure

d)

It may increase maintenance costs in the long run

43.

Which of the following is a mechanical cause of equipment breakdown?

a)

Lack of operator training

b)

Corrosion or wear and tear

c)

Poor management planning

d)

Power fluctuation

44.

A common human-related cause of equipment failure is:

a)

Overheating of the system

b)

Poor lubrication

c)

Inadequate training of workers

d)

Low-quality raw materials

45.

Which of the following is an advantage of breakdown maintenance?

a)

Reduced equipment failure risk

b)

Minimal initial cost and planning

c)

Extended equipment life

d)

Scheduled repair and maintenance

46.

A major disadvantage of breakdown maintenance is:

a)

Reduced spare parts usage

b)

High inspection cost

c)

Unplanned downtime

d)

Complex scheduling

47.

Breakdown maintenance is most suitable when:

a)

Downtime is unacceptable

b)

Backup systems are available

c)

Equipment is mission-critical

d)

Spare parts are rare and expensive

48.

Which of the following is an example of breakdown maintenance?

a)

Replacing a motor only after it fails

b)

Oiling machines monthly as per schedule

c)

Ignoring unusual machine noise

d)

Rewiring a system after short-circuiting

49.

What is the main objective of preventive maintenance?

a)

To reduce the cost of spare parts

b)

To fix machines after failure

c)

To prevent breakdowns before they occur

d)

To replace old machines

50.

Preventive maintenance is performed:

a)

Only after a machine fails

b)

Without any schedule

c)

At regular intervals, regardless of machine condition

d)

Only when demanded by the operator

51.

Which of the following is an example of preventive maintenance?

a)

Replacing a motor only after it fails

b)

Oiling machines monthly as per schedule

c)

Ignoring unusual machine noise

d)

Rewiring a system after short-circuiting

52.

An advantage of preventive maintenance is:

a)

Increased unplanned downtime

b)

Reduced equipment lifespan

c)

Improved reliability and efficiency

d)

Fewer inspections required

53.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of preventive maintenance?

a)

Sudden failure is not addressed

b)

Higher initial cost and planning

c)

Equipment failure is unplanned

54.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of preventive maintenance?

a)

Sudden failure is not addressed

b)

Higher initial cost and planning

c)

Equipment failure is unpredictable

d)

No need for skilled technicians

55.

Scheduled maintenance refers to:

a)

Repairs carried out only after failure

b)

Maintenance performed without any plan

c)

Maintenance done at predefined intervals

d)

Maintenance performed randomly by operators

56.

Which of the following is true about scheduled maintenance?

a)

It causes frequent emergency repairs

b)

It is only useful for low-cost equipment

c)

It helps ensure continuous and reliable operation

d)

It ignores equipment usage conditions

57.

One major benefit of scheduled maintenance is:

a)

It eliminates the need for inspection

b)

It reduces downtime due to unexpected failures

c)

It increases emergency repair frequency

d)

It lowers the overall lifespan of equipment

58.

Scheduled maintenance improves:

a)

Breakdown frequency

b)

Operator dependency

c)

Equipment reliability and availability

d)

Training costs

59.

Which of the following best illustrates scheduled maintenance?

a)

Fixing a burst pipe when it leaks

b)

Changing engine oil every 5000 km

c)

Replacing a bulb only when it burns out

d)

Repairing a machine after it suddenly stops

60.

Scheduled maintenance is most useful for:

a)

Randomly used tools

b)

Systems with unpredictable usage

c)

Regularly operating critical machines

d)

Disposable components

61.

The primary purpose of plant safety is to:

a)

Reduce worker salaries

b)

Increase production rate

c)

Prevent accidents and injuries

d)

Lower energy usage

62.

Which of the following is the most important in ensuring plant safety?

a)

Higher profits

b)

Quick production

c)

Following safety protocols and procedures

d)

Use of manual labor

63.

The term PPE in plant safety stands for:

a)

Power Protective Equipment

b)

Personal Protective Equipment

c)

Pressure Prevention Equipment

d)

Plant Protection Equipment

64.

Industrial safety procedures are primarily designed to:

a)

Improve product quality

b)

Increase machine speed

c)

Protect workers and prevent accidents

d)

Reduce overtime hours

65.

The first step in implementing safety procedures is to:

a)

Buy expensive tools

b)

Conduct a hazard identification and risk assessment

c)

Hire more workers

d)

Fire untrained employees

66.

Which of the following is NOT a part of industrial safety procedures?

a)

Emergency evacuation drills

b)

Use of personal protective equipment

c)

Disabling safety alarms

d)

Machine guarding

67.

Which of the following is a key part of fire safety procedure?

a)

Installing high-power machines

b)

Storing flammable materials near heaters

c)

Keeping fire extinguishers accessible

d)

Turning off alarms to avoid panic

68.

Emergency exit routes in industries should be:

a)

Blocked with stored materials

b)

Narrow and dark

c)

Located inside locked rooms

d)

Clearly marked and free of obstructions

69.

Who is responsible for following safety procedures in an industry?

a)

Only safety officers

b)

Only machine operators

c)

Every employee

d)

Only factory manager

70.

Safety data sheets (SDS) are used to:

a)

Track attendance

b)

Provide information about hazardous materials

c)

List employee holidays

d)

Measure product weight

71.

Safety signs and symbols in plants are used to:

a)

Decorate the workplace

b)

Replace supervision

c)

Warn and guide employees about hazards

d)

Distract workers

72.

Why is regular safety training important in plants?

a)

To reduce worker attendance

b)

To ensure employees are aware of and follow safety procedures

c)

To avoid legal obligations

d)

To increase machine speed

73.

Improper handling in the workplace often results in:

a)

Increased productivity

b)

Improved teamwork

c)

Accidents and injuries

d)

Better machine efficiency

74.

Which of the following is an example of improper material handling?

a)

Using a forklift with proper load balance

b)

Lifting heavy loads manually without assistance

c)

Wearing gloves while handling sharp objects

d)

Using trolleys to move loads

75.

Improper handling of tools can lead to:

a)

Machine upgrades

b)

Reduced workload

c)

Equipment damage and personal injury

d)

Better maintenance records

76.

Which of the following is NOT a common result of improper handling?

a)

Equipment damage

b)

Reduced insurance claims

c)

Workplace injuries

d)

Operational delays

77.

What is the best way to avoid injury while lifting heavy loads?

a)

Lift quickly to reduce strain

b)

Bend at the waist and pull

c)

Use proper posture or mechanical aids

d)

Ask someone else to do it

78.

Which action can reduce the risk of improper handling injuries?

a)

Ignoring safety rules

b)

Rushing to complete tasks

c)

Providing handling training to workers

d)

Using defective equipment

79.

Improper tool handling can be avoided by:

a)

Using tools while tired

b)

Sharing tools without inspection

c)

Ignoring manufacturer instructions

d)

Following proper tool use and storage procedures

80.

An industrial accident is defined as:

a)

A planned event in a factory

b)

An unexpected event causing injury, damage, or loss in an industrial setting

c)

A new manufacturing method

d)

A machine breakdown without consequences

81.

The most common cause of industrial accidents is:

a)

Proper equipment handling

b)

Weather changes

c)

Human error or negligence

d)

Over-inspection

82.

Fatigue or stress among workers may result in:

a)

Faster output

b)

Fewer mistakes

c)

Reduced safety awareness and increased risk

d)

Better focus

83.

A common mechanical cause of accidents is:

a)

Proper machine maintenance

b)

Use of guards and sensors

c)

Faulty or poorly maintained equipment

d)

Lubrication of parts

84.

Slippery floors and poor housekeeping can lead to:

a)

Smoother workflow

b)

Better cleanliness

c)

Easier movement of carts

d)

Slips, trips, and falls

85.

Noise, heat, and poor lighting are examples of:

a)

Comfort factors

b)

Environmental hazards

c)

Visual aids

d)

Engineering tools

86.

Lack of supervision and monitoring may result in:

a)

Early detection of problems

b)

Improved accountability

c)

Violation of safety protocols

d)

Efficient safety audits

87.

Improper storage of chemicals may cause:

a)

Fires, spills, or toxic exposure

b)

Faster access during emergencies

c)

No major issues

d)

Enhanced safety

88.

Which of the following behaviours increases the chance of an accident?

a)

Reporting unsafe conditions

b)

Rushing through tasks

c)

Following safety protocols

d)

Attending safety drills

89.

A broken machine guard is an example of:

a)

Efficient design

b)

A safety upgrade

c)

A mechanical hazard

d)

A decorative part

90.

Which of the following can be blamed on poor safety management?

a)

Timely inspections

b)

Regular safety drills

c)

Absence of emergency response plans

d)

Use of safety signage

91.

One major administrative failure that leads to accidents is:

a)

Frequent safety audits

b)

Inadequate training programs

c)

Use of licensed tools

d)

Providing PPEs

92.

Poor signage and unclear instructions result in:

a)

Better visual design

b)

Enhanced alertness

c)

Confusion and higher accident risk

d)

Efficient workflow

93.

Which of the following is a common cause of fire in industrial plants?

a)

Regular machine lubrication

b)

Overuse of water in processes

c)

Using fire-retardant materials

d)

Poor storage and handling of flammable materials

94.

A common cause of explosions in chemical industries is:

a)

Good ventilation

b)

Improper mixing of incompatible chemicals

c)

Routine safety checks

d)

Proper labeling of containers

95.

One of the leading causes of back injuries in the workplace is:

a)

Taking frequent breaks

b)

Sitting with straight posture

c)

Lifting heavy loads improperly

d)

Using conveyor belts

96.

Which of the following environmental conditions can contribute to accidents?

a)

Well-lit areas

b)

Proper ventilation

c)

Excessive heat and poor lighting

d)

Clean air filters

97.

Wet or oily floors in production areas may cause:

a)

Increased productivity

b)

Slips and falls

c)

Safer cleaning

d)

Reduced movement

98.

Industrial noise above safe limits may lead to:

a)

Better focus

b)

Temporary teamwork improvement

c)

Hearing loss and communication issues

d)

Less absenteeism

99.

Which of the following is a direct cost of an industrial accident?

a)

Cost of employee training

b)

Medical expenses for the injured worker

c)

Loss of company reputation

d)

Increased insurance premium

100.

Direct costs of an accident are also known as:

a)

Visible costs

b)

Hidden costs

c)

Future costs

d)

Avoidable costs

101.

Which one is NOT considered a direct cost of an industrial accident?

a)

Compensation paid to injured employees

b)

Cost of damaged equipment

c)

Decreased employee morale

d)

First aid and hospitalization

102.

Replacement cost for damaged machinery due to an accident is:

a)

A long-term investment

b)

A direct cost

c)

An indirect cost

d)

A capital cost

103.

Legal fees and penalties paid immediately after an accident fall under:

a)

Administrative costs

b)

Indirect costs

c)

Direct costs

d)

Social costs

104.

Why are direct costs of industrial accidents easier to track?

a)

They are speculative in nature

b)

They are internal to the company culture

c)

They do not affect company accounts

d)

They appear as actual financial transactions or bills

105.

Which of the following is an example of an indirect cost of an industrial accident?

a)

Hospital bill of the injured worker

b)

Cost of replacing broken tools

c)

Loss of employee morale

d)

First aid treatment

106.

Indirect costs of accidents are also called:

a)

Insured costs

b)

Visible costs

c)

Hidden costs

d)

Scheduled costs

107.

Which one of the following is NOT an indirect cost?

a)

Downtime and production delays

b)

Cost of damaged property

c)

Reduced efficiency of coworkers

d)

Investigation and administrative time

108.

Loss of reputation and business impact due to repeated accidents is a:

a)

Fixed overhead

b)

Tangible asset

c)

Direct cost

d)

Indirect cost

109.

Which of the following best describes the nature of indirect costs?

a)

Fixed, measurable, and reimbursable

b)

Short-term and equipment-focused

c)

Long-term, hidden, and affect productivity

d)

Always negligible

110.

Accident proneness refers to:

a)

Tendency of equipment to malfunction

b)

A worker's natural ability to avoid danger

c)

The tendency of some individuals to be involved in accidents more frequently than others

d)

A safety measure to reduce risks

111.

The concept of accident proneness is most closely related to:

a)

Ergonomics

b)

Psychology and behaviour

c)

Machine design

d)

Economic performance

112.

Which of the following is not generally considered a cause of accident proneness?

a)

Emotional instability

b)

Fatigue

c)

Proper safety training

d)

Lack of attention

113.

Which personal factor can increase accident proneness?

a)

Good concentration

b)

Poor vision

c)

Adequate rest

d)

Positive attitude

114.

A worker under stress is more likely to experience:

a)

Improved judgment

b)

Better reaction time

c)

Increased accident proneness

d)

Enhanced performance

115.

Which measure can help reduce accident proneness?

a)

Ignoring unsafe behaviour

b)

Conducting regular fitness-for-duty checks

c)

Allowing long, continuous working hours

d)

Neglecting safety protocols

116.

Accident proneness can be minimized by:

a)

Hiring only experienced workers

b)

Regular performance bonuses

c)

Better ergonomics, training, and supervision

d)

Increasing production targets

117.

Which personality trait is often associated with accident-prone individuals?

a)

Calmness

b)

High alertness

c)

Carelessness

d)

Patience

118.

The most effective way to prevent industrial accidents is:

a)

Increasing working hours

b)

Strict punishment for workers

c)

Reducing maintenance

d)

Implementing proper safety measures and training

119.

Which of the following is NOT a preventive measure against accidents?

a)

Conducting safety drills

b)

Providing personal protective equipment (PPE)

c)

Ignoring minor safety violations

d)

Regular machine maintenance

120.

Which of the following helps prevent mechanical accidents?

a)

Removing machine guards

b)

Regular lubrication and inspection

c)

Overloading equipment

d)

Operating machines without training

121.

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Helmets

b)

Gloves

c)

Safety goggles

d)

Office chairs

122.

Which factor plays a key role in reducing human error at work?

a)

Longer work hours

b)

Stressful environment

c)

Proper rest and breaks

d)

Frequent equipment upgrades

123.

The objective of accident prevention programs is to:

a)

Create a safe and productive work environment

b)

Maximize insurance claims

c)

Punish unsafe workers

d)

Avoid responsibility

124.

An industrial dispute is defined as a dispute between:

a)

Two government departments

b)

Employer and employee

c)

Two companies

d)

Two customers

125.

Which of the following is the most common cause of industrial disputes?

a)

Canteen facilities

b)

Wage and salary issues

c)

Promotion of managers

d)

Recreational activities

126.

Lack of safety measures at the workplace is a cause of:

a)

Economic disputes

b)

Environmental issues

c)

Welfare disputes

d)

Health and safety disputes

127.

Non-payment of bonus is classified as a:

a)

Technical issue

b)

Economic cause of dispute

c)

Social security issue

d)

Legal violation only

128.

Lack of recognition and appreciation can cause disputes due to:

a)

Economic dissatisfaction

b)

Psychological and motivational factors

c)

Poor safety conditions

d)

Work overload

129.

Unjust dismissal of a worker may result in:

a)

Increased profits

b)

Better workforce discipline

c)

Industrial dispute

d)

More recruitment

130.

Which of the following can be a legal cause of industrial dispute?

a)

Worker’s low productivity

b)

Violation of labour laws

c)

Overqualified employees

d)

Automation of work

131.

A mutual discussion between employers and workers to resolve issues is known as:

a)

Collective bargaining

b)

Mediation

c)

Arbitration

d)

Conciliation

132.

Which of the following ensures a win-win situation for both employers and employees?

a)

Lockout

b)

Collective bargaining

c)

Court litigation

d)

Strike

133.

Which of the following is NOT a formal method of dispute settlement under the law?

a)

Mediation

b)

Arbitration

c)

Lockout

d)

Collective bargaining

134.

Which of the following is a method of settling industrial disputes?

a)

Strike

b)

Corralling

c)

Conciliation

d)

Lockout

135.

Which authority is appointed by the government to mediate between employer and employees in a dispute?

a)

Arbitrator

b)

Conciliation Officer

c)

High Court Judge

d)

Company Secretary

136.

In conciliation, the role of the Conciliation Officer is to:

a)

Enforce punishment

b)

Take sides

c)

Mediate and help reach a mutual agreement

d)

Approve company profits

137.

Voluntary method of dispute resolution where both parties agree to follow the decision of a third party is called:

a)

Litigation

b)

Conciliation

c)

Arbitration

d)

Lockout

138.

Which method of dispute settlement is considered non-binding unless both parties agree beforehand?

a)

Arbitration (Voluntary)

b)

Adjudication

c)

Tribunal Award

d)

Labour Court ruling

139.

Which body is responsible for adjudication of industrial disputes:

a)

Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal

b)

High Court

c)

Trade union

d)

Parliament

140.

The main objective of the Factories Act is to ensure:

a)

Higher profits for factories

b)

Safety, health, and welfare of workers

c)

Faster production

d)

Export efficiency

141.

Which section of the Factories Act, 1948 deals with 'Health' provisions?

a)

Sections 11 to 20

b)

Sections 21 to 30

c)

Sections 1 to 10

d)

Sections 31 to 40

142.

The provision regarding 'disposal of wastes and effluents' falls under:

a)

Safety provisions

b)

Welfare provisions

c)

Health provisions

d)

Environmental rules

143.

Which of the following is NOT a health-related provision under the Act?

a)

Cleanliness

b)

Ventilation and temperature

c)

Protection against dangerous fumes

d)

First aid appliances

144.

Provision for adequate ventilation and maintaining reasonable temperature is aimed at:

a)

Reducing machine wear

b)

Ensuring air conditioning

c)

Comfort and health of workers

d)

Preventing electrical hazards

145.

The minimum number of spittoons required in a factory depends on:

a)

Number of machines

b)

Number of workers

c)

Number of hours worked

d)

Type of raw material used

146.

In case of overcrowding in the factory, which provision of the Health section applies?

a)

Section 11

b)

Section 16

c)

Section 18

d)

Section 20

147.

Improper cleanliness in factories can lead to violations of which section of the Factories Act?

a)

Section 11

b)

Section 21

c)

Section 45

d)

Section 79

148.

Which section of the Factories Act deals with welfare provisions?

a)

Sections 11 to 20

b)

Sections 21 to 30

c)

Sections 42 to 50

d)

Sections 51 to 60

149.

In every factory where more than _____ workers are ordinarily employed, a canteen must be provided.

a)

100

b)

150

c)

200

d)

250

150.

A creche is mandatory in factories where more than _____ women workers are employed.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

50

151.

In a factory employing 500 or more workers, the appointment of a Welfare Officer is:

a)

Optional

b)

Compulsory

c)

Subject to factory rules

d)

Required only if women are employed

152.

Under which section is the appointment of Welfare Officers mentioned?

a)

Section 45

b)

Section 49

c)

Section 50

d)

Section 43

Similar Resources on Wayground

Банк жүйесі туралы тест

152 questions

Банк жүйесі туралы тест

quiz

Worksheet

•

University