WorksheetsGCC Mock Test 10
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which emergency treatment is appropriate for the client who suddenly develops ventricular fibrillations?
a)
Cardioversion
b)
Intubation
c)
Defibrillation
d)
Anticonvulsant medication
e)
-
2.
When reviewing the laboratory values of a patient recently diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukemia, which fi nding might the nurse expect to find?
a)
Elevated sedimentation rate
b)
Uncontrolled proliferation of granulocytes
c)
Thrombocytopenia and increased lymphocytes
d)
Elevated aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels
e)
-
3.
The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?
a)
The client selects a balanced diet from the menu.
b)
The client’s hematocrit improves.
c)
The client’s tissue turgor improves.
d)
The client gains weight.
e)
-
4.
The nurse caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
a)
Decreased urinary output
b)
Hypersomnolence
c)
Absence of knee jerk reflex
d)
Decreased respiratory rate
e)
-
5.
A patient became seriously ill after a nurse gave him the wrong medication. After his recovery, he filed a lawsuit. Who is most likely to be held liable?
a)
No one because it was an accident
b)
The hospital
c)
The nurse
d)
The nurse and the hospital
e)
-
6.
The nurse is most likely to be an effective educator of clients when:
a)
The nurse has complete content expertise.
b)
The nurse displays listening skills and receives feedback.
c)
The relationship between nurse and client is formal and impersonal.
d)
The nurse understands that good educators are born, not made.
e)
-
7.
The nurse cares for a client recovering from a subdural hematoma. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform to prevent foot drop and contractures?
a)
Apply high-top sneakers.
b)
Administer low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
c)
Encourage the client to ambulate.
d)
Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs).
e)
-
8.
Which of the following signs is characteristic of the child with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?
a)
The use of Gower’s maneuver to rise to a standing position
b)
Bilateral knee pain located at the tibial tubercle
c)
Concave curvature of the lumbar spine
d)
Aseptic necrosis of the head of the femur
e)
-
9.
A client has a broken lower leg with a nonweightbearing cast. Which crutch gait would be most appropriate for the nurse to teach?
a)
Swing-through.
b)
Two-point.
c)
Three-point.
d)
Four-point alternating.
e)
-
10.
Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic, gram-positive bacillus that forms spores. It is found in soil, dust, rust, and the feces of animals and humans. These spores are highly resilient to extremes in temperatures, moisture, and chemical substances. Once exposed to anaerobic conditions, such as the environment associated with wounds, tissue necrosis, or foreign bodies, the spores can germinate. Which organism is this?
a)
Folliculitis.
b)
Osteomyelitis.
c)
Rabies.
d)
Tetanus
e)
-
11.
Which of the following would the nurse perform when giving medication via an NG tube?
a)
Ascertain tube patency and placement.
b)
Position the client dorsal recumbent.
c)
Reconnect the tube to suction immediately after administration of the drug.
d)
Administer the drug as rapidly as possible to prevent clogging the tube.
e)
-
12.
The nurse cares for a client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus type 1 who is admitted to hospital for treatment of ketoacidosis. Which client behavior most likely contributed to the development of ketoacidosis?
a)
Taking too much insulin.
b)
Failing to take insulin regularly.
c)
Not following sick day instructions.
d)
Exercising too vigorously.
e)
-
13.
An example of internal family coping strategies includes:
a)
Maintaining active links with community groups and organizations.
b)
Role flexibility.
c)
Seeking and using spiritual supports.
d)
Seeking information and professional help.
e)
-
14.
A client has returned to his room following an esophagoscopy. Before offering fluids, the nurse should give priority to assessing the client’s:
a)
Level of consciousness
b)
Gag reflex
c)
Urinary output
d)
Movement of extremities
e)
-
15.
A nurse can expect to see which signs and symptoms when a patient overproduces adrenocortical hormone?
a)
Arrested growth and obesity
b)
Weight loss and heat intolerance
c)
Changes in skin texture and low body temperature
d)
Polyuria and dehydration
e)
-
16.
At different stages of life, families must master certain developmental tasks in order to maintain psychological health. Families with young adults who are launching into society have family developmental tasks to master including:
a)
Coping with energy depletion.
b)
Maintaining kinship ties.
c)
Maintaining a supportive home base.
d)
Thinking about the future, education, and work.
e)
-
17.
At different stages of life, families must master certain developmental tasks in order to maintain psychological health. Families with young adults who are launching into society have family developmental tasks to master including:
a)
Coping with energy depletion.
b)
Maintaining kinship ties.
c)
Maintaining a supportive home base.
d)
Thinking about the future, education, and work.
e)
-
18.
The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old following revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. An expected nursing intervention is:
a)
Request for an x-ray to evaluate shunt placement
b)
Daily measurement of head circumference
c)
Frequent palpation of the fontanels
d)
Maintaining the child in a prone position
e)
-
19.
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has a sacral pressure ulcer with a wet-to-dry dressing. Which guideline is appropriate when caring for a patient with a wet-to-dry dressing?
a)
The wound should remain moist from the dressing.
b)
The wet-to-dry dressing should be tightly packed into the wound.
c)
The dressing should be allowed to dry before it’s removed.
d)
. A plastic sheet-type dressing should cover the wet dressing.
e)
-
20.
A nurse is charting at the nurses’ station when a client uses the call light to ask for assistance to the bathroom.As the nurse answers the call light, a second client uses the call system to say, “I think I need some help! My IV site is bleeding a lot!”What criteria should the nurse use to prioritize these two client calls for assistance?
a)
The client who called for assistance first should receive assistance first. The bleeding IV is probably not life threatening.
b)
The client who called for assistance to the bathroom should be seen first. This client might attempt to get up alone if no one arrives to help.
c)
The client who reported the bleeding IV should be seen first. There is no way to know without examining the IV site if it is a central or peripheral IV, how much blood was lost, or what medications might be infusing through the IV.
d)
The nurse could choose to assist either client first. Both are of equal acuity and impact on client safety.
e)
-
21.
Which religion believes in final judgment that determines heaven or hell?
a)
Buddhism.
b)
Christianity.
c)
Hinduism.
d)
Judaism.
e)
-
22.
What diagnostic test would be used to evaluate the presence of rhabdomyolysis?
a)
Glycosylated hemoglobin
b)
Serum troponin
c)
Serum myoglobin
d)
Bone biopsy
e)
-
23.
The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy?
a)
Low birth weight
b)
Large for gestational age
c)
Preterm birth, but appropriate size for gestation
d)
Growth retardation in weight and length
e)
-
24.
A client asks the nurse why taking folic acid is so important before and during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the client that:
a)
“Folic acid is important in preventing neural tube defects in newborns and preventing anemia in mothers.”
b)
“Eating foods with moderate amounts of folic acid helps regulate blood glucose levels.”
c)
“Folic acid consumption helps with the absorption of iron during pregnancy.”
d)
“Folic acid is needed to promote blood clotting and collagen formation in the newborn.”
e)
-
25.
Which emergency treatment is appropriate for the client who suddenly develops ventricular fibrillations?
a)
Cardioversion
b)
Intubation
c)
Defibrillation
d)
Anticonvulsant medication
e)
-
26.
The nurse is teaching a patient and his family about dietary practices related to Parkinson’s disease. A priority for the nurse to address is risk of:
a)
fluid overload and drooling.
b)
aspiration and anorexia.
c)
choking and diarrhea.
d)
dysphagia and constipation.
e)
-
27.
The two types of surgery primarily used to promote weight loss are restrictive and malabsorptive-restrictive. Which of the following is an example of restrictive weight-loss surgery?
a)
Gastric bypass
b)
Adjustable gastric banding
c)
Roux-en-Y
d)
Biliopancreatic diversion
e)
-
28.
An infant is hospitalized for treatment of botulism. Which factor is associated with botulism in the infant?
a)
The infant sucks on his fingers and toes.
b)
The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey.
c)
The infant was switched to soy-based formula.
d)
The infant’s older sibling has an aquarium.
e)
-
29.
A patient with a small, well-defined breast nodule asks the nurse about her treatment options. Which treatments would be considered for this patient?
a)
Lumpectomy and radiation
b)
Partial mastectomy and radiation
c)
Partial mastectomy and chemotherapy
d)
Total mastectomy and chemotherapy
e)
-
30.
When the nurse checks the fundus of a client on the first postpartum day, she notes that the fundus is firm, at the level of the umbilicus, and is displaced to the right. The next action the nurse should take is to:
a)
Check the client for bladder distention
b)
Assess the blood pressure for hypotension
c)
Determine whether an oxytoxic drug was given
d)
Check for the expulsion of small clots
e)
-
31.
A patient was given morphine for pain. He is sleeping and has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute. If action is not taken quickly, what reaction might he have?
a)
An asthma attack
b)
Respiratory arrest
c)
Seizure
d)
Waking up on his own
e)
-
32.
The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue the infusion of Pitocin. Which finding indicates that the Pitocin is having the desired effect?
a)
The fundus is deviated to the left.
b)
The fundus is firm and in the midline.
c)
The fundus is boggy.
d)
The fundus is two finger breadths below the umbilicus.
e)
-
33.
The client with a pacemaker should be taught to:
a)
Report ankle edema
b)
Check his blood pressure daily
c)
Refrain from using a microwave oven
d)
Monitor his pulse rate
e)
-
34.
The nurse is assessing a client immediately following delivery. The nurse notes that the client’s fundus is boggy. The nurse’s next action should be to:
a)
Assess for bladder distention
b)
Notify the physician
c)
Gently massage the fundus
d)
Administer pain medication
e)
-
35.
The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy?
a)
Low birth weight
b)
Large for gestational age
c)
Preterm birth, but appropriate size for gestation
d)
Growth retardation in weight and length
e)
-
36.
A friend contacts a nurse at work and states, “Our friend, _______, has just been in a car accident and is in your emergency room. I am so worried. Can you check your hospital computer system and tell me the extent of the injuries?” What is the most appropriate response by the nurse to the concerned friend?
a)
I did not know about the accident, but I can’t look that information up for you. Every client’s health information is confidential and is protected by law. Unless I am caring for that person, I have no right to access their health information. I recommend that you contact the family for information.
b)
I will look the information up, but do not tell anyone that I did. Health information is confidential and is protected by law.
c)
OK, let me see here—the CAT scan looks terrible! You had better come to the emergency department as fast as you can!
d)
I can’t look that up for you. I will get into trouble. Call the emergency department and see if they will give you any information.
e)
-
37.
A client is status post-thyroidectomy. The client complains of paresthesia and leg cramps. The nurse reviews the client’s lab results and notes hypocalcemia. The nurse realizes the reason for the hypocalcemia is:
a)
Decreased intake of dairy products due to postoperative nausea.
b)
Removal of the thyroid gland.
c)
Inadvertent removal of the parathyroid gland with thyroidectomy.
d)
Hyperphosphatemia.
e)
-
38.
A surgical client’s primary care physician has written orders to arrange for the client’s discharge to home the next day. The client’s daughter approaches the case manager regarding the discharge. What statement by the case manager to the client’s daughter demonstrates appropriate referral of the client for additional care and services?
a)
I will set up a home health care evaluation before discharge. The home health agency is wonderful at arranging for home care of clients, dressing changes, and assistance with the medication regimen. The home health case manager will contact you today, and I will follow-up with you to be sure everything is arranged before discharge.
b)
I will give you a list of home health care agencies to call for additional assistance after discharge from the facility.
c)
The physical and occupational therapy teams have documented in their evaluations that your parent should be capable of self-care after discharge home from this facility.You are worrying unnecessarily.
d)
Is there any way that you can take some time off from work and help your parent out during the first week or two at home after discharge from the hospital?
e)
-
39.
The client is admitted to the unit. Vaginal exam reveals that she is 3cm dilated. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect her to make?
a)
“I can’t decide what to name the baby.”
b)
“It feels good to push with each contraction.”
c)
“Don’t touch me. I’m trying to concentrate.”
d)
“When can I get my epidural?”
e)
-
40.
What term describes the softening of tissue by wetting or soaking?
a)
Eschar
b)
Maceration
c)
Sloughing
d)
Angiogenesis
e)
-
41.
The nurse cares for a postoperative mastectomy client. A wound drain is attached to a Hemovac drainage system.Which action should the nurse take?
a)
Apply pressure around the drain insertion site to promote drainage.
b)
Clamp the catheter when emptying the Hemovac drain.
c)
Flush the drainage catheter if it becomes obstructed.
d)
Assess the color and amount of drainage in the Hemovac chamber.
e)
-
42.
A client hospitalized with MRSA (methicillin-resistant staph aureus) is placed on contact precautions. Which statement is true regarding precautions for infections spread by contact?
a)
The client should be placed in a room with negative pressure.
b)
Infection requires close contact; therefore, the door may remain open.
c)
Transmission is highly likely, so the client should wear a mask at all times.
d)
Infection requires skin-to-skin contact and is prevented by handwashing, gloves, and a gown.
e)
-
43.
A client who has glaucoma is to have miotic eyedrops instilled in both eyes. The nurse knows that the purpose of the medication is to:
a)
Anesthetize the cornea
b)
Dilate the pupils
c)
Constrict the pupils
d)
Paralyze the muscles of accommodation
e)
-
44.
An elderly female is admitted with a fractured right femoral neck. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find?
a)
Free movement of the right leg
b)
Abduction of the right leg
c)
Internal rotation of the right hip
d)
Shortening of the right leg
e)
-
45.
A patient became seriously ill after a nurse gave him the wrong medication. After his recovery, he filed a lawsuit. Who is most likely to be held liable?
a)
No one because it was an accident
b)
The hospital
c)
The nurse
d)
The nurse and the hospital
e)
-
46.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which finding is usually associated with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a)
Visual disturbances, including diplopia
b)
Ascending paralysis and loss of motor function
c)
Cogwheel rigidity and loss of coordination
d)
Progressive weakness that is worse at the day’s
e)
-
47.
In what type of electrolyte imbalance would the nurse observe tall, tented T waves; a widened QRS complex; and a prolonged PR interval on the patient’s ECG?
a)
Hypokalemia
b)
Hypocalcemia
c)
Hypercalcemia
d)
Hyperkalemia
e)
-
48.
Which religion believes in final judgment that determines heaven or hell?
a)
Buddhism.
b)
Christianity.
c)
Hinduism.
d)
Judaism.
e)
-
49.
An elderly client is complaining if increasing trips to the bathroom to urinate. The client’s estimated coffee intake is 3 cups per day. What is the best explanation the nurse can provide to the client?
a)
The increased urine production is most likely due to a urinary tract infection.
b)
Coffee is causing the increased urination due to your increased fluid intake. This is completely normal and nothing to be concerned about.
c)
Coffee is causing the increased urination. Coffee contains caffeine that causes diuresis, or increased urine formation. Simply decreasing the number of cups of coffee you drink each day, and limiting the consumption of caffeinated beverages to the morning hours, should help decrease your trips to the bathroom.
d)
Drinking coffee increases the circulating plasma in the body and this increases the urine formation. Simply decreasing the number of cups of coffee you are drinking should help.
e)
-
50.
A patient received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body?
a)
. 9%
b)
0.18
c)
0.27
d)
0.36
e)
-
51.
Guided imagery is a form of alternative therapy. Guided imagery can frequently be used by the nurse to decrease stress, pain, and anxiety.Additional benefits of guided imagery include:
a)
Decreased client satisfaction.
b)
Decreased side effects.
c)
Increased length of stay.
d)
Increased hospital costs.
e)
-
52.
A client hospitalized with MRSA (methicillin-resistant staph aureus) is placed on contact precautions. Which statement is true regarding precautions for infections spread by contact?
a)
The client should be placed in a room with negative pressure.
b)
Infection requires close contact; therefore, the door may remain open.
c)
Transmission is highly likely, so the client should wear a mask at all times.
d)
Infection requires skin-to-skin contact and is prevented by handwashing, gloves, and a gown.
e)
-
53.
Guided imagery is a form of alternative therapy. Guided imagery can frequently be used by the nurse to decrease stress, pain, and anxiety.Additional benefits of guided imagery include:
a)
Decreased client satisfaction.
b)
Decreased side effects.
c)
Increased length of stay.
d)
Increased hospital costs.
e)
-
54.
A client with a diagnosis of human papillomavirus (HPV) is at risk for which of the following?
a)
Lymphoma
b)
Vaginal cancer
c)
Leukemia
d)
Systemic lupus
e)
-
55.
To reduce the possibility of having a baby with a neural tube defect, the client should be told to increase her intake of folic acid. Dietary sources of folic acid include:
a)
Meat, liver, eggs
b)
Pork, fish, chicken
c)
Oranges, cabbage, cantaloupe
d)
Dried beans, sweet potatoes, Brussels sprouts
e)
-
56.
The physician has ordered an injection of RhoGam for the postpartum client whose blood type is A negative but whose baby is O positive. To provide postpartum prophylaxis, RhoGam should be administered:
a)
Within 72 hours of delivery
b)
Within 1 week of delivery
c)
Within 2 weeks of delivery
d)
Within 1 month of delivery
e)
-
57.
The nurse performs a follow-up assessment of a client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustained massive head injuries. The client is weaned off the ventilator and is breathing independently. The nurse notices the client’s respirations have a rhythmic crescendo and decrescendo of rate and depth of respiration and include brief periods of apnea. This type of respiratory pattern is:
a)
Apneustic.
b)
Ataxic.
c)
Cheyne-Stokes.
d)
Cluster.
e)
-
58.
Which encephalitis is found predominantly west of the Mississippi River and occurs most often during the months of June and July?
a)
Eastern equine encephalitis.
b)
St. Louis encephalitis.
c)
Venezuelan equine encephalitis.
d)
Western equine encephalitis.
e)
-
59.
What term describes the softening of tissue by wetting or soaking?
a)
Eschar
b)
Maceration
c)
Sloughing
d)
Angiogenesis
e)
-
60.
A client is admitted to the unit 3 hours after an injury with seconddegree burns to the face, neck, and head. The nurse would be most concerned with the client developing which of the following?
a)
Hypovolemia
b)
Laryngeal edema
c)
Hypernatremia
d)
Hyperkalemia
e)
-
61.
A client who has glaucoma is to have miotic eyedrops instilled in both eyes. The nurse knows that the purpose of the medication is to:
a)
Anesthetize the cornea
b)
Dilate the pupils
c)
Constrict the pupils
d)
Paralyze the muscles of accommodation
e)
-
62.
A student nurse is having difficulty determining the liver span of a client. The experienced nurse educates the student:
a)
Since the liver span varies considerably between individuals, its measurement is of little value.
b)
To percuss in the midclavicular line from the nipple line downward and the iliac crest upward.
c)
To palpate the position of the liver first, and then attempt to percuss its position.
d)
That having the client flex his knees will relax the abdominal musculature.
e)
-
63.
A 2-month-old child receives a dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intramuscularly. Which is the preferred site of injection for this client?
a)
Vastus lateralis.
b)
Dorsogluteal.
c)
Ventrogluteal.
d)
Deltoid.
e)
-
64.
A patient, age 27, is admitted with complaints of severe fatigue, muscle weakness, and anorexia. He states he is recovering from the flu and has had severe nausea, frequent vomiting, and diarrhea. Blood is drawn for serum electrolyte measurements. Based on the patient’s symptoms, which finding should the nurse expect the laboratory report to show?
a)
Below normal calcium level
b)
Below normal sodium level
c)
Below normal potassium level
d)
Above normal calcium level
e)
-
65.
A client with a subdural hematoma is receiving Mannitol and Lasix. The nurse recognizes that these two drugs are given to reverse which effect?
a)
Energy failure
b)
Excessive intracellular calcium accumulation
c)
Cerebral edema
d)
Excessive glutamate release
e)
-
66.
A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
a)
“I will keep candy with me just in case my blood sugar drops.”
b)
“I need to stay out of the sun as much as possible.”
c)
“I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.”
d)
“I always wear my medical identification.”
e)
-
67.
The nurse performs an assessment on an elderly client. The nurse notes the client performs pill movement of the hand. The nurse suspects which disorder?
a)
Myasthenia gravis.
b)
Huntington’s chorea.
c)
Parkinson’s disease.
d)
Residual effect of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA).
e)
-
68.
While performing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury, the licensed practical nurse notes a positive Babinski reflex. The nurse should:
a)
Recognize that the client’s condition is improving
b)
Reposition the client and check reflexes again
c)
Do nothing because the finding is an expected one
d)
Notify the charge nurse of the finding
e)
-
69.
Which emergency treatment is appropriate for the client who suddenly develops ventricular fibrillations?
a)
Cardioversion
b)
Intubation
c)
Defibrillation
d)
Anticonvulsant medication
e)
-
70.
Jugular vein distension (JVD) is most prominent in:
a)
Heart failure.
b)
Myocardial infarction (MI).
c)
Pneumothorax.
d)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
e)
-
71.
A 2-month-old child receives a dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intramuscularly. Which is the preferred site of injection for this client?
a)
Vastus lateralis.
b)
Dorsogluteal.
c)
Ventrogluteal.
d)
Deltoid.
e)
-
72.
A patient is admitted to the health care facility with a possible electrolyte imbalance. The patient is disoriented and weak, has an irregular pulse, and takes hydrochlorothiazide. The patient most likely suffers from:
a)
hypernatremia.
b)
hyponatremia.
c)
hyperkalemia.
d)
hypokalemia.
e)
-
73.
While performing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury, the licensed practical nurse notes a positive Babinski reflex. The nurse should:
a)
Recognize that the client’s condition is improving
b)
Reposition the client and check reflexes again
c)
Do nothing because the finding is an expected one
d)
Notify the charge nurse of the finding
e)
-
74.
The LPN/LVN is describing a 24 hour urine collection to a client. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?
a)
Void and save the urine at the start of the collection period to begin the process
b)
Wash the perineal area with soap and water before each void
c)
Collect the urine in a sterilized container or receptacle
d)
Empty the bladder at the end of the collection period and save this urine
e)
-
75.
The nurse is evaluating a patient postoperatively for infection. Which of the following would be most indicative of infection?
a)
The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
b)
A rectal temperature of 100° F (37.8° C)
c)
Redness, warmth, and tenderness in the incision area
d)
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 8,000/µl.
e)
-
76.
The most accurate information to give parents regarding when to engage a child in an organized athletic activity is:
a)
Participation depends on the ability to run without falling.
b)
A child with impaired vision should not play sports.
c)
The parents should wait until the child asks to play sports.
d)
The average child is ready to participate in sports at 6 to 7 years of age.
e)
-
77.
Which sign or symptom typically signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a)
Abdominal pain
b)
Absent pedal pulses
c)
Angina
d)
Lower back pain
e)
-
78.
The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?
a)
The client selects a balanced diet from the menu.
b)
The client’s hematocrit improves.
c)
The client’s tissue turgor improves.
d)
The client gains weight.
e)
-
79.
A patient is scheduled to have a descending colostomy. He is anxious and has many questions concerning the surgery, the care of a stoma, and lifestyle changes. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to refer the patient to which member of the health care team?
a)
Social worker
b)
Registered dietitian
c)
Occupational therapist
d)
Enterostomal nurse therapist
e)
-
80.
A patient is scheduled to have a descending colostomy. He is anxious and has many questions concerning the surgery, the care of a stoma, and lifestyle changes. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to refer the patient to which member of the health care team?
a)
Social worker
b)
Registered dietitian
c)
Occupational therapist
d)
Enterostomal nurse therapist
e)
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81.
There are multiple theories of management utilized in nursing. Management theories generally fall under one of two distinctly different and opposing schools of thought with regard to the management of people.What are the two current prevailing theories of modern management?
a)
The scientific theory of management and the human relations-based theory of management.
b)
The human relations-based theory of management and the democratic theory of management.
c)
The scientific theory of management and the theocratic theory of management.
d)
The democratic theory of management and the leadership theory of management.
e)
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82.
An infant is hospitalized for treatment of botulism. Which factor is associated with botulism in the infant?
a)
The infant sucks on his fingers and toes.
b)
The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey.
c)
The infant was switched to soy-based formula.
d)
The infant’s older sibling has an aquarium.
e)
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83.
A client receiving a magnetic resonance imaging procedure should have which of the following implemented?
a)
Informed consent and atropine 0.4mg
b)
Injection site scrub for 15 minutes
c)
Removal of any jewelry and inquiry regarding metal implants
d)
Administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50mg by mouth
e)
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84.
The 5-minute Apgar of a baby delivered by C-section is recorded as 9. The most likely reason for this score is:
a)
The mottled appearance of the trunk
b)
The presence of conjunctival hemorrhages
c)
Cyanosis of the hands and feet
d)
Respiratory rate of 20–28 per minute
e)
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85.
The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
a)
The 18-year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae
b)
The infant with meningitis
c)
The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago
d)
The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago
e)
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86.
Which physiologic effects of a pulmonary embolism would initially affect oxygenation?
a)
A blood clot blocks ventilation, but perfusion is unaffected.
b)
A blood clot blocks ventilation, producing hypoxia despite normal perfusion.
c)
A blood clot blocks perfusion and ventilation, producing profound hypoxia.
d)
A blood clot blocks perfusion, producing hypoxia despite normal or supernormal ventilation.
e)
-
87.
The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
a)
The 18-year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae
b)
The infant with meningitis
c)
The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago
d)
The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago
e)
-
88.
The nurse has given dietary instructions about food to be included in a low-purine diet. Which selection by the client with gout would indicate that teaching has been ineffective?
a)
Cabbage
b)
An apple
c)
Peach cobbler
d)
Spinach
e)
-
89.
A client has sustained damage to the preoccipital lobe. The nurse should remain particularly alert for which of the following problems?
a)
Visual impairment
b)
Swallowing difficulty
c)
Impaired judgment
d)
Hearing impairment
e)
-
90.
A patient, age 19, is HIV-positive. When would a diagnosis of AIDS be confirmed?
a)
When the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is positive
b)
When the Western blot test is positive
c)
When he is diagnosed with malignant (non-Hodgkin’s) lymphoma
d)
When seroconversion takes place
e)
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91.
A surgical client’s primary care physician has written orders to arrange for the client’s discharge to home the next day. The client’s daughter approaches the case manager regarding the discharge. What statement by the case manager to the client’s daughter demonstrates appropriate referral of the client for additional care and services?
a)
I will set up a home health care evaluation before discharge. The home health agency is wonderful at arranging for home care of clients, dressing changes, and assistance with the medication regimen. The home health case manager will contact you today, and I will follow-up with you to be sure everything is arranged before discharge.
b)
I will give you a list of home health care agencies to call for additional assistance after discharge from the facility.
c)
The physical and occupational therapy teams have documented in their evaluations that your parent should be capable of self-care after discharge home from this facility.You are worrying unnecessarily.
d)
Is there any way that you can take some time off from work and help your parent out during the first week or two at home after discharge from the hospital?
e)
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92.
A multigravid client at 36 weeks’ gestation has been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata. Which of the following should the nurse include when teaching the client about the disorder and current therapies?
a)
Cryotherapy may be used to remove the warts.
b)
Podophyllin solution may be used to decrease the size of the warts.
c)
A 25% trichloroacetic acid solution can eradicate the disorder.
d)
Condylomata acuminata has been associated with ovarian cancer.
e)
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93.
Which type of shock is known for decreased intravascular volume resulting from loss of blood or plasma?
a)
Cardiogenic shock.
b)
Hypovolemic shock.
c)
Neurogenic shock.
d)
Obstructive shock.
e)
-
94.
To reduce the risk of SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome), the nurse should tell parents to place the infant:
a)
Prone while he is sleeping
b)
Side-lying while he is awake
c)
On his back while he is sleeping
d)
Prone while he is awake
e)
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95.
Jugular vein distension (JVD) is most prominent in:
a)
Heart failure.
b)
Myocardial infarction (MI).
c)
Pneumothorax.
d)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
e)
-
96.
Jugular vein distension (JVD) is most prominent in:
a)
Heart failure.
b)
Myocardial infarction (MI).
c)
Pneumothorax.
d)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
e)
-
97.
The nurse caring for a client with hyperthyroidism would expect which group of clinical manifestations to be exhibited?
a)
Confusion, weakness, and increased weight
b)
Shortness of breath, dyspnea, and decreased libido
c)
Restlessness, fatigue, and weight loss
d)
Diuresis, hypokalemia, and tachycardia
e)
-
98.
A client is admitted to the unit 3 hours after an injury with seconddegree burns to the face, neck, and head. The nurse would be most concerned with the client developing which of the following?
a)
Hypovolemia
b)
Laryngeal edema
c)
Hypernatremia
d)
Hyperkalemia
e)
-
99.
A key nursing task is to administer injections to clients. This requires the nurse’s knowledge of needle sizes and lengths.Which needle size is the largest?
a)
25 gauge.
b)
22 gauge.
c)
20 gauge.
d)
18 gauge.
e)
-
100.
The nurse is caring for a client with a basal cell epithelioma. The nurse recognizes that the risk factors for basal cell carcinoma include having fair skin and:
a)
Sun exposure
b)
Smoking
c)
Ingesting alcohol
d)
Ingesting food preservatives
e)
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100 %
