WorksheetsGCC Mock Test 13
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A client experiences nausea and vomiting for over 24 hours. The nurse notices that the client is becoming confused and lethargic. As the nurse goes to call the physician, the client has a seizure. Which electrolyte abnormality should the nurse expect to see?
a)
Hypocalcemia.
b)
Hyponatremia.
c)
Increased lipase.
d)
Hyperkalemia.
e)
-
2.
Which one of the following factors has the greatest influence on the recovery and sobriety of a client with a chemical addiction?
a)
The family’s understanding of the client’s addiction
b)
The quality of the treatment program and follow-up
c)
The client’s own desire to become drug-free
d)
The nursing staff’s attitude toward addiction
e)
-
3.
The nurse is caring for a 22-year-old G 2, P 2 client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation after delivering a dead fetus. Which findings are the highest priority to report to the health care provider?
a)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) of 30 seconds.
b)
Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL.
c)
Urinary output of 25 mL in the past hour.
d)
Platelets at 149,000/mm3.
e)
-
4.
A 24-year-old female client is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia and requires an allogeneic bone marrow transplant. The nurse determines the client understands the treatment when the client states:
a)
I’ll have to stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks after the transplant.
b)
I’ll finally be able to have children after my disease is cured.
c)
I’ll have to have chemotherapy before my transplant.
d)
I usually don’t have nausea, so I shouldn’t have a problem with it during my treatment.
e)
-
5.
The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with diverticulitis who has been placed on a low-roughage diet. Which food would have to be eliminated from this client’s diet?
a)
Roasted chicken
b)
Noodles
c)
Cooked broccoli
d)
Custard
e)
-
6.
A client is admitted to the hospital due to complications of cardiomyopathy. The client states, “I am always being admitted to the hospital for the same problem.” The nurse knows that which recurring condition develops in clients with cardiomyopathy?
a)
Heart failure.
b)
Hypertension.
c)
Myocardial infarction.
d)
Anemia.
e)
-
7.
The primary cause of anemia in a client with chronic renal failure is:
a)
Poor iron absorption
b)
Destruction of red blood cells
c)
Lack of intrinsic factor
d)
Insufficient erythropoietin
e)
-
8.
A primigravida, age 42, is 6 weeks pregnant. Based on the client’s age, her infant is at risk for:
a)
Down syndrome
b)
Respiratory distress syndrome
c)
Turner’s syndrome
d)
Pathological jaundice
e)
-
9.
An intubated client admitted to the intensive care unit appears anxious and fearful of the equipment in the room. The nurse observes this and takes the time to explain each piece of equipment and its role in providing care to the client. This is an example of the nurse acting as a client advocate by:
a)
Providing information to the client and fostering a sense of security.
b)
Promoting client privacy.
c)
Assuring client safety.
d)
Ensuring the client’s wishes for treatment are followed.
e)
-
10.
During a Preparation for Parenting class, one of the participants asks the nurse, “How will I know if I am really in labor?” The nurse should tell the participant which of the following about true labor contractions?
a)
“Walking around helps to decrease true contractions.”
b)
“True labor contractions may disappear with ambulation, rest, or sleep.”
c)
“The duration and frequency of true labor contractions remain the same.”
d)
“True labor contractions are felt first in the lower back, then the abdomen.”
e)
-
11.
A student nurse is having difficulty determining the liver span of a client. The experienced nurse educates the student:
a)
Since the liver span varies considerably between individuals, its measurement is of little value.
b)
To percuss in the midclavicular line from the nipple line downward and the iliac crest upward.
c)
To palpate the position of the liver first, and then attempt to percuss its position.
d)
That having the client flex his knees will relax the abdominal musculature.
e)
-
12.
A hospitalized patient needs a central I.V. catheter inserted. The physician places the catheter in the subclavian vein. Shortly afterward, the patient develops shortness of breath and appears restless. Which action should the nurse perform first?
a)
Administer a sedative.
b)
Advise the patient to calm down.
c)
Auscultate for breath sounds.
d)
Check to see if the patient can have medication.
e)
-
13.
Which of the following findings is associated with right-sided heart failure?
a)
Shortness of breath
b)
Nocturnal polyuria
c)
Daytime oliguria
d)
Crackles in the lungs
e)
-
14.
A client tells the nurse,“There’s no point in quitting cigarette smoking at my age. I have smoked for 40 years.” The nurse:
a)
Understands that this is accurate since the client already has pulmonary disease.
b)
Tells the client that the progression of pulmonary disease may be halted with smoking cessation.
c)
Encourages the client to switch to smokeless tobacco use.
d)
Discusses the combination of pulmonary diseases that are the result of cigarette smoking.
e)
-
15.
A client in the intensive care unit is alert and oriented, but loud and verbally abusive to all health care personnel who enter the client’s room. Multiple staff members including the charge nurse have spoken to the client about the inappropriate behavior, but all attempts have been ineffective. The client has lorazepam (Ativan) IV ordered as needed for disorientation and agitation. Which client right would be violated if the nurse were to administer the medication to the client under these circumstances?
a)
The client’s right to self-determination.
b)
The client’s right to freedom from unreasonable restraint.
c)
No client right is violated in this scenario.
d)
The client’s right to considerate and respectful care.
e)
-
16.
The nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
a)
Negligence
b)
Tort
c)
Assault
d)
Malpractice
e)
-
17.
A client is admitted for suspected bladder cancer. Which one of the following factors is most significant in the client’s diagnosis?
a)
Smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 30 years
b)
Taking hormone-replacement therapy
c)
Eating foods with preservatives
d)
Past employment involving asbestos
e)
-
18.
A client with pancreatic cancer has an infusion of TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition). The doctor has ordered a sliding scale insulin. The most likely explanation for this order is:
a)
Total Parenteral Nutrition leads to negative nitrogen balance and elevated glucose levels.
b)
Total Parenteral Nutrition cannot be managed with oral hypoglycemics.
c)
Total Parenteral Nutrition is a high-glucose solution that often elevates the blood glucose levels.
d)
Total Parenteral Nutrition leads to further pancreatic disease.
e)
-
19.
As winter approaches, the nurse counsels an elderly client:
a)
To remain indoors as much as possible.
b)
That he needs thermal protection when outdoors.
c)
To consider spending the winter in a milder climate.
d)
That he will likely become ill if he does not remain in an environment with a constant temperature.
e)
-
20.
The nurse cares for a client post-thyroidectomy. The nurse notices the client experiences muscle twitches.Upon questioning, the client complains of numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. The nurse suspects which electrolyte disturbance?
a)
Hyponatremia.
b)
Hyperkalemia.
c)
Hypocalcemia.
d)
Hypermagnesemia.
e)
-
21.
Several pregnant clients are waiting to be seen in the triage area of the obstetrical unit. Which client should the nurse see first?
a)
A client at 13 weeks’ gestation experiencing nausea and vomiting three times a day with +1 ketones in her urine.
b)
A client at 37 weeks’ gestation who is an insulin-dependent diabetic and experiencing 3 to 4 fetal movements per day.
c)
A client at 32 weeks’ gestation who has preeclampsia and +3 proteinuria who is returning for evaluation of epigastric pain.
d)
A primigravida at 17 weeks’ gestation complaining of not feeling fetal movement at this point in her pregnancy.
e)
-
22.
A client complains of being stung by a yellow jacket which caused “whelps” on the skin and light-headedness. The nurse knows first-line treatment consists of:
a)
Cool compresses.
b)
Intravenous access.
c)
Supplemental oxygen therapy.
d)
Tetanus injection.
e)
-
23.
The nurse is assessing a client immediately following delivery. The nurse notes that the client’s fundus is boggy. The nurse’s next action should be to:
a)
Assess for bladder distention
b)
Notify the physician
c)
Gently massage the fundus
d)
Administer pain medication
e)
-
24.
The LPN is assigned to care for a client with a fractured femur. Which of the following should be reported to the charge nurse immediately?
a)
The client complains of chest pain and feelings of apprehension
b)
Ecchymosis is noted on the side of the injured leg
c)
The client’s oral temperature of 99.2°F
d)
The client complains of Level 2 pain on a scale of 1 to 5
e)
-
25.
Young children living in housing that was built before the 1970s are at risk for:
a)
Lead poisoning
b)
Pernicious anemia
c)
Iron poisoning
d)
Sprue
e)
-
26.
It is essential that the nurse have which piece of equipment at the bedside of a client on a ventilator?
a)
Cardiac monitor
b)
Intravenous controller
c)
Manual resuscitator
d)
Oxygen by nasal cannula
e)
-
27.
The nurse auscultates breath sounds in a client. The nurse knows an incorrect method for auscultation is:
a)
Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
b)
Placing the diaphragm directly on the client’s skin.
c)
Asking the client to breathe deeply and slowly through the mouth.
d)
Ask the client to lie flat in bed.
e)
-
28.
The most effective method to decrease morbidity and mortality of stroke is prevention.What is the most effective method of stroke prevention?
a)
Administering platelet inhibitors to prevent clot formation.
b)
Undergoing transluminal angioplasty to open a stenosed artery and improve blood flow.
c)
Maintaining normal weight, exercising, and controlling comorbid conditions.
d)
Administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).
e)
-
29.
A patient is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse should expect clinical signs and symptoms similar to:
a)
hypovolemic shock.
b)
sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
c)
benzodiazepine overdose.
d)
Addison’s disease.
e)
-
30.
The doctor has prescribed aspirin 325mg daily for a client with transient ischemic attacks. The nurse knows that aspirin was prescribed to:
a)
Prevent headaches
b)
Boost coagulation
c)
Prevent cerebral anoxia
d)
Keep platelets from clumping together
e)
-
31.
A client has eye ointment instilled in both eyes. Which action should the nurse take immediately after medication administration?
a)
Have the client squeeze the eyes shut tightly.
b)
Apply some of the ointment to the eyelid.
c)
Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct.
d)
Have the client lie flat for 10 minutes.
e)
-
32.
A removal of the left lower lobe of the lung is performed on a client with lung cancer. Which post-operative measure would usually be included in the plan?
a)
Closed chest drainage
b)
A tracheostomy
c)
A mediastenal tube
d)
Percussion vibration and drainage
e)
-
33.
A patient, age 16, has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is in the hospital for regulation of his disease. He tells the nurse he feels hungry, thirsty, tired, and weak, and he frequently asks to use the bathroom. What should the nurse do first?
a)
Administer the patient’s prescribed insulin.
b)
Notify the practitioner immediately.
c)
Determine the patient’s blood glucose level.
d)
Give an additional snack with the patient’s next meal.
e)
-
34.
Which nursing action is most appropriate immediately following the removal of a nasogastric tube?
a)
Providing mouth care
b)
Auscultating bowel sounds
c)
Offering fluids
d)
Checking for abdominal distention
e)
-
35.
A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of-Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse: ❍ D.
a)
Handles the cast with the fingertips
b)
Bivalves the cast
c)
Dries the cast with a hair dryer
d)
Allows 24 hours before bearing weight
e)
-
36.
The nurse who works in the emergency department cares for a client who was bitten by a stray cat. Which gram-negative causative organism is found in 75% of cat bite wound infections?
a)
Bacteroides.
b)
Fusobacterium.
c)
Pasteurella.
d)
Prevotella.
e)
-
37.
The client returns to the recovery room following repair of an intrathoracic aneurysm. Which finding would require further investigation?
a)
Pedal pulses bounding and regular
b)
Urinary output 20mL in the past hour
c)
Blood pressure 108/50
d)
Oxygen saturation 97%
e)
-
38.
A multigravid client at 34 weeks’ gestation visits the hospital because she suspects that her water has broken. After testing the leaking fluid with nitrazine paper, the nurse confirms that the client’s membranes have ruptured when the paper turns which of the following colors?
a)
Yellow.
b)
Green.
c)
Blue.
d)
Red.
e)
-
39.
A patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after undergoing internal fixation of a left femoral neck fracture. The nurse should place the patient in which position?
a)
On his left side with his right knee bent
b)
On his back with two pillows between his legs
c)
On his right side with his left knee bent
d)
Sitting at a 90-degree angle
e)
-
40.
The nurse educator knows that a client will understand and recall material better if the learning environment includes problem-based as well as knowledge-based activities. Which is an example of a problem-based activity?
a)
The client recalls the symptoms of the client’s disease.
b)
The client comprehends the client’s medication regimen.
c)
The client can analyze the client’s glucometer value and determine what action is needed.
d)
The client performs a self-care activity accurately.
e)
-
41.
Which of the following laboratory results would cause the most concern in the immunosuppressed client?
a)
A sodium level of 50mg/dL
b)
A blood glucose of 110mg/dL
c)
A platelet count of 100,000/cu mm
d)
A white cell count of 5,000/cu mm
e)
-
42.
A patient, age 58, is admitted with complaints of anorexia, weight loss, and general body wasting. After a diagnostic workup, he is diagnosed with Addison’s disease. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of Addison’s disease?
a)
Release of adrenocortical hormones is increased.
b)
Release of adrenocortical hormones is decreased.
c)
Release of adrenal medullary hormones is decreased.
d)
A tumor develops in the adrenal gland.
e)
-
43.
Infants born to diabetic mothers are often described as large for gestational age. The primary reason for the infant’s large size is:
a)
Overstimulation of the thyroid
b)
Maternal hyperglycemia
c)
Improved maternal nutrition
d)
Increased production of the pituitary
e)
-
44.
A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm is admitted in preparation for surgery. Which of the following should be reported to the doctor?
a)
An elevated white blood cell count
b)
An abdominal bruit
c)
A negative Babinski reflex
d)
Pupils that are equal and reactive to light
e)
-
45.
The physician has ordered a daily dose of Tagamet (cimetidine) for a client with gastric ulcers. The nurse should administer the medication:
a)
Before breakfast
b)
After breakfast
c)
At bedtime
d)
At noon
e)
-
46.
When drawing blood from a central venous access device, how many milliliters of blood should the nurse discard before drawing the laboratory specimen?
a)
3 milliliters.
b)
10 milliliters.
c)
20 milliliters.
d)
30 milliliters.
e)
-
47.
Clients unlikely to abstain from alcohol are not appropriate candidates for treatment with disulfiram (Antabuse), nor are clients with:
a)
A sedentary occupation.
b)
Chronic hepatitis.
c)
Latex allergy.
d)
Significant cardiac disease.
e)
-
48.
The two types of surgery primarily used to promote weight loss are restrictive and malabsorptive-restrictive. Which of the following is an example of restrictive weight-loss surgery?
a)
Gastric bypass
b)
Adjustable gastric banding
c)
Roux-en-Y
d)
Biliopancreatic diversion
e)
-
49.
When performing Leopold’s maneuvers on a primigravid client at 22 weeks’ gestation, the nurse performs the first maneuver to do which of the following?
a)
Locate the fetal back and spine.
b)
Determine what is in the fundus.
c)
Determine whether the fetal head is at the pelvic inlet.
d)
Identify the degree of fetal descent and flexion.
e)
-
50.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with possible pernicious anemia. Which data would support this diagnosis?
a)
A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
b)
Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
c)
A red, beefy tongue
d)
A hemoglobin level of 12.0gm/dL
e)
-
51.
A client is admitted to the emergency room with symptoms of delirium tremens. After admitting the client to a private room, the priority nursing intervention is to:
a)
Obtain a history of his alcohol use
b)
Provide seizure precautions
c)
Keep the room cool and dark
d)
Administer thiamine and zinc
e)
-
52.
A client is to undergo a bone marrow aspiration. The nurse plans to include which statement in the client preparation?
a)
“You will be sitting on the side of the bed during the procedure.”
b)
“Portions of the procedure will cause pain or discomfort.”
c)
“You will be given some medication to cause amnesia of the test.”
d)
“You will not be able to drink fluids for 24 hours before the study.”
e)
-
53.
The patient’s intake and output record contains the following information: milk, 180 mL; orange juice, 60 mL; one serving scrambled eggs; one slice toast; one can Ensure oral nutritional supplement, 240 mL; I.V. dextrose 5% in water at 100 mL/hour; 50 mL water after twice daily medications. Medications are given at 9:00 a.m. and 9:00 p.m. What is the patient’s total intake for the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift?
a)
1,000 mL
b)
1,250 mL
c)
1,330 mL
d)
1,380 mL
e)
-
54.
The nurse studies an electrocardiogram (EKG) and notices a U-wave. The nurse suspects that this is caused by:
a)
Hypermagnesemia.
b)
Hypocalcemia.
c)
Hypokalemia.
d)
Hyponatremia.
e)
-
55.
When performing an assessment, the nurse identifies the following signs and symptoms: impaired coordination, decreased muscle strength, limited range of motion, and reluctance to move. These signs and symptoms indicate which nursing diagnosis?
a)
Health-seeking behaviors
b)
Impaired physical mobility
c)
Disturbed sensory perception
d)
Deficient knowledge
e)
-
56.
The physician has ordered a minimal bacteria diet for a client with neutropenia. The client should be taught to avoid eating:
a)
Fruits
b)
Salt
c)
Pepper
d)
Ketchup
e)
-
57.
Assessment reveals that the fetus of a multigravid client is at + 1 station and 8 cm dilated. Based on these data, the nurse should first:
a)
Ask anesthesia to increase epidural rate.
b)
Assist the client to push if she feels the need to do so.
c)
Encourage the client to breathe through the urge to push.
d)
Support family members in providing comfort measures.
e)
-
58.
The nurse is providing care for a 10-month-old infant diagnosed with a Wilms tumor. Most parents report feeling a mass when:
a)
The infant is diapered or bathed
b)
The infant raises his arms
c)
The infant has finished a bottle
d)
The infant tries to sit
e)
-
59.
The nurse employed in the emergency room is responsible for triage of four clients injured in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following clients should receive priority in care?
a)
A 10-year-old with lacerations of the face
b)
A 15-year-old with sternal bruises
c)
A 34-year-old with a fractured femur
d)
A 50-year-old with dislocation of the elbow
e)
-
60.
An infant is in need of intravenous access. The nurse makes an observation about scalp veins. Which statement indicates the nurse is knowledgeable about this type of venous access?
a)
The vein has to be cannulated in a downward fashion toward the neck.
b)
These veins are good to have, but I can’t give anything very fast through them.
c)
I remember that you are not supposed to use a tourniquet on these veins.
d)
Once I see a flash of blood, I need to advance the needle and cannula 1/8 inch.
e)
-
61.
A client presents in the emergency department with acute onset of fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea/vomiting, and mental status changes. From which condition is the client most likely suffering?
a)
Bacterial meningitis.
b)
Peritonsillar abscess.
c)
Pharyngitis.
d)
Rhinosinusitis.
e)
-
62.
A 6-year-old with cystic fibrosis has an order for pancreatic replacement. The nurse knows that the medication will be given:
a)
At bedtime
b)
With meals and snacks
c)
Twice daily
d)
Daily in the morning
e)
-
63.
A 2-month-old infant has just received her first Tetramune injection. The nurse should tell the mother that the immunization:
a)
Will need to be repeated when the child is 4 years of age
b)
Is given to determine whether the child is susceptible to pertussis
c)
Is one of a series of injections that protects against dpt and Hib
d)
Is a one-time injection that protects against MMR and varicella
e)
-
64.
When assessing a patient with glaucoma, the nurse would expect which of the following findings?
a)
Complaints of double vision
b)
Complaints of halos around lights
c)
An IOP of 15 mm Hg
d)
A soft globe on palpation
e)
-
65.
During a yearly physical examination, a client tells the nurse that the client “is stressed to the max” by work and family obligations. First, the nurse:
a)
Encourages the client to speak with the physician.
b)
Suggests the client obtain a prescription for sleep aid medication.
c)
Discusses positive options for stress reduction.
d)
Counsels the client to consider a career change.
e)
-
66.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency room after a fall. X-rays reveal that the client has several fractured bones in the foot. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate for the fractured foot?
a)
Application of a short inclusive spica cast
b)
Stabilization with a plaster-of-Paris cast
c)
Surgery with Kirschner wire implantation
d)
No bandages to be used to correct the fractured foot
e)
-
67.
Which electrolyte imbalances should be of concern for the client taking digoxin (Lanoxin)?
a)
Hypokalemia.
b)
Hyponatremia.
c)
Hypomagnesemia.
d)
Hypocalcemia.
e)
-
68.
The mother of a 3-month-old with esophageal reflux asks the nurse what she can do to lessen the baby’s reflux. The nurse should tell the mother to:
a)
Feed the baby only when he is hungry
b)
Burp the baby after the feeding is completed
c)
Place the baby supine with head elevated
d)
Burp the baby frequently throughout the feeding
e)
-
69.
When auscultating the chest of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse should expect to hear which type of sounds over areas of consolidation?
a)
Bronchial
b)
Bronchovesicular
c)
Tubular
d)
Vesicular
e)
-
70.
A patient, age 72, has otosclerosis and is scheduled for a stapedectomy. During preoperative teaching, the nurse should give him which instruction?
a)
“Cough and sneeze with your mouth closed.”
b)
“Try to get up and walk around as soon as you return from the operating room.”
c)
“Lie on the bed with your operative ear facing up.”
d)
“Turn your head rapidly to prevent dizziness.”
e)
-
71.
When measuring the fundal height of a primigravid client at 20 weeks’ gestation, the nurse will locate the fundal height at which of the following points?
a)
Halfway between the client’s symphysis pubis and umbilicus.
b)
At about the level of the client’s umbilicus
c)
Between the client’s umbilicus and xiphoid process.
d)
Near the client’s xiphoid process and compressing the diaphragm.
e)
-
72.
Diuretics are ordered for a patient. What would be the best time of day for the nurse to schedule this medication?
a)
. Anytime
b)
Nighttime
c)
Morning
d)
Noon
e)
-
73.
The physician has ordered Basalgel (aluminum carbonate gel) for a client with recurrent indigestion. The nurse should teach the client common side effects of the medication, which include:
a)
Constipation
b)
Urinary retention
c)
Diarrhea
d)
Confusion
e)
-
74.
A multigravid client at 34 weeks’ gestation is being treated with indomethacin (Indocin) to halt preterm labor. If the client delivers a preterm infant, the nurse should notify the nursery personnel about this therapy because of the possibility for which of the following?
a)
Pulmonary hypertension.
b)
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
c)
Hyperbilirubinemia.
d)
Cardiomyopathy.
e)
-
75.
A 19-year-old nulligravid client visiting the clinic for a routine examination asks the nurse about cervical mucus changes that occur during the menstrual cycle. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect to include in the client’s teaching plan?
a)
About midway through the menstrual cycle, cervical mucus is thick and sticky.
b)
During ovulation, the cervix remains dry without any mucus production.
c)
As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear.
d)
Cervical mucus disappears immediately after ovulation, resuming with menses.
e)
-
76.
Health care facilities store a large portion of their clients’ health information on the facility’s health information system. Each health care team member with a need to access health information is given a password or log in code. How closely is access to a facility’s health information system monitored?
a)
Access is not monitored. After receiving a log in code and password, each employee accesses health information on the honor system.
b)
Access is monitored intermittently.
c)
Access of the health information system is monitored closely and constantly for inappropriate use of the system and health information stored on the system. There is a record of every log in, date, time and the information accessed.
d)
Access is monitored only during business office hours when the system usage is the highest.
e)
-
77.
The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy, the nurse should:
a)
Administer a bolus of IV fluid
b)
Administer pain medication
c)
Administer an antiemetic
d)
Allow the patient a chance to eat
e)
-
78.
A male client and his partner have decided not to have more children. The client requests information about permanent, male birth control options. The nurse explains:
a)
Vasectomy is a highly effective and safe surgical procedure.
b)
Abstinence should be considered rather than vasectomy.
c)
Permanent solutions, such as vasectomy, cannot be reversed.
d)
Vasectomy is a surgical procedure covered by insurance.
e)
-
79.
Which of the following laboratory results would cause the most concern in the immunosuppressed client?
a)
A sodium level of 50mg/dL
b)
A blood glucose of 110mg/dL
c)
A platelet count of 100,000/cu mm
d)
A white cell count of 5,000/cu mm
e)
-
80.
A client is receiving external radiation for cancer of the larynx. As a result of the treatment, the client will most likely complain of:
a)
Generalized pruritis
b)
Dyspnea
c)
Sore throat
d)
Bone pain
e)
-
81.
A client with a fractured hip is being taught correct use of the walker. The nurse is aware that the correct use of the walker is achieved if the:
a)
Palms rest lightly on the handles
b)
Elbows are flexed 0°
c)
Client walks to the front of the walker
d)
Client carries the walker
e)
-
82.
A client with a history of clots is receiving Lovenox (enoxaparin). Which drug is given to counteract the effects of enoxaparin?
a)
Calcium gluconate
b)
Aquamephyton
c)
Methergine
d)
Protamine sulfate
e)
-
83.
Studies show that collaboration between the members of a multidisciplinary health care team improves quality of client care, decreases length of stay in health care facilities, and decreases the cost of health care to the client.Which members of the multidisciplinary team are responsible for collaboration in client care?
a)
The primary care physician and the case manager.
b)
The primary nurse and the case manager.
c)
All members of the multidisciplinary health care team.
d)
The primary care physician, all consulting physicians, and the case manager.
e)
-
84.
A newborn of 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome 3 hours after birth. An assessment finding in the newborn with respiratory distress syndrome is:
a)
Feeding difficulties
b)
Nasal flaring
c)
Increased blood pressure
d)
Temperature instability
e)
-
85.
When performing Leopold’s maneuvers on a primigravid client at 22 weeks’ gestation, the nurse performs the first maneuver to do which of the following?
a)
Locate the fetal back and spine.
b)
Determine what is in the fundus.
c)
Determine whether the fetal head is at the pelvic inlet.
d)
Identify the degree of fetal descent and flexion.
e)
-
86.
Which of the following would be included in the teaching plan about pregnancy-related breast changes for a primigravid client?
a)
Growth of the milk ducts is greatest during the first 8 weeks of gestation.
b)
Enlargement of the breasts indicates adequate levels of progesterone.
c)
Colostrum is usually secreted by about the 16th week of gestation.
d)
Darkening of the areola occurs during the last month of pregnancy.
e)
-
87.
A key nursing task is to administer injections to clients. This requires the nurse’s knowledge of needle sizes and lengths.Which needle size is the largest?
a)
25 gauge.
b)
22 gauge.
c)
20 gauge.
d)
18 gauge.
e)
-
88.
A client is scheduled to have in vitro fertilization (IVF) as an infertility treatment. Which of the following client statements about IVF indicates that the client understands this procedure?
a)
“IVF requires supplemental estrogen to enhance the implantation process.”
b)
“The pregnancy rate with IVF is higher than that with gamete intrafallopian transfer.”
c)
“IVF involves bypassing the blocked or absent fallopian tubes.”
d)
“Both ova and sperm are instilled into the open end of a fallopian tube.”
e)
-
89.
An 82-year-old female client is prescribed meperidine (Demerol) to be given every 4 hours as needed for pain. Why should the nurse question this order?
a)
The older adult cannot rate his or her pain well, and therefore may overdose on the medication.
b)
The older adult may not excrete metabolites of this medication easily due to the normal aging process.
c)
The older adult always has a decrease in liver function and will not metabolize the medication readily.
d)
The older adult has sensory deprivations and may not tolerate normal side effects of this medication.
e)
-
90.
A primagravid client at 16 weeks’ gestation has had an amniocentesis and has received teaching concerning signs and symptoms to report. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?
a)
“I need to call if I start to leak fluid from my vagina.”
b)
“If I start bleeding, I will need to call back.”
c)
“If my baby does not move, I need to call my health care provider.”
d)
“If I start running a fever, I should let the office know.”
e)
-
91.
Which of the following findings is associated with fluid overload in the child with renal disease?
a)
Sluggish capillary refill and slow heart rate
b)
Distention of the jugular veins and pitting edema
c)
Decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate
d)
Increased blood pressure and bilateral wheezes
e)
-
92.
38. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?
a)
The client receiving chemotherapy
b)
The client post–coronary bypass
c)
The client with a TURP
d)
The client with diverticulitis
e)
-
93.
The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with atelectasis. Which intervention should be included in the client’s plan of care?
a)
Administer oxygen at 2 litre per minute.
b)
Encourage use of incentive spirometry every hour.
c)
Cough and deep breathe every 4 hours.
d)
Have the client ambulate once a day.
e)
-
94.
A client with a spinal cord injury complains of severe headache. The nurse finds the client to be diaphoretic, hypertensive, and bradycardiac. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia.Which is the nurse’s first action?
a)
Elevate the head of the bed.
b)
Check vital signs.
c)
Notify the physician.
d)
Check the client’s bladder for distension.
e)
-
95.
The nurse knows that risk factors for glaucoma include:
a)
Asian-American race.
b)
Decreased intraocular pressure.
c)
Diabetes.
d)
Younger age.
e)
-
96.
The physician has prescribed Xanax (alprazolam) for a client with acute anxiety. The nurse should teach the client to avoid:
a)
Sun exposure
b)
Drinking beer
c)
Eating cheese
d)
Taking aspirin
e)
-
97.
A client has just returned home and the hospice nurse is visiting for the first time. The client complains of a lot of pain. In addition to the physician and the nurse, what member of the care team will assist in providing comfort therapies for this client?
a)
The physical therapist.
b)
The nutritionist.
c)
The massage therapist.
d)
The occupational therapist.
e)
-
98.
A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment would assist the client with a total hip replacement with prevention of dislocation of the prosthesis?
a)
An abduction pillow
b)
A straight chair
c)
A pair of crutches
d)
A soft mattress
e)
-
99.
The client has a prescription for a calcium carbonate compound to neutralize stomach acid. The nurse should assess the client for:
a)
Constipation
b)
Hyperphosphatemia
c)
Hypomagnesemia
d)
Diarrhea
e)
-
100.
Which skin condition is characterized by erythematous plaques with an adherent silvery scale usually appearing over the extensor surfaces of the extremities, including lesions on the palms, soles, scalp, umbilicus, and genital areas?
a)
Impetigo.
b)
Molluscum contagiosum.
c)
Pityriasis rosea.
d)
Psoriasis.
e)
-
100 %
