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WorksheetsGCC 26 - 50
Total questions: 25
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The nurse is planning care for a group of pregnant clients. Which of the following clients should be referred to a health care provider immediately?
a)
A woman who is at 10 weeks’ gestation, is having nausea and vomiting, and has +1 ketones in her urine.
b)
A woman who is at 37 weeks’ gestation and has insulin-dependent diabetes experiencing 2-3 hyperglycemic episodes weekly.
c)
A woman at 32 weeks’ gestation and is preeclamptic with +3 proteinuria.
d)
A primigravida at 15 weeks’ gestation who reports she is not feeling fetal movement.
2.
The nurse discovers a new stage II pressure ulcer on a client’s coccyx area during the bath. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in order to initiate appropriate care for the client?
a)
The nurse should notify the physician immediately of the client’s new area of skin breakdown.
b)
The nurse should place a nursing consultation to the wound care nurse for evaluation of the client’s skin breakdown.
c)
The nurse should immediately call a “code skin.” The skin care team will come quickly to evaluate the client’s skin newly identified skin breakdown.
d)
The nurse should notify the client’s family members immediately of the client’s new area of skin breakdown.
3.
Hospital policy recommends that all children under the age of 3 years be placed in a crib. When providing care for a child in a crib, the nurse should give priority to:
a)
Keeping the side rails locked at the halfway point
b)
Maintaining one hand on the child whenever side rails are down
c)
Positioning the child farther away from the lowered side rail
d)
Telling the parent that the side rails can stay down as long as someone is in the room
4.
The nurse assesses for cyanosis in a dark-skinned client. Which is the best site to assess for cyanosis in this client?
a)
Soles of the feet.
b)
Palms of the hands.
c)
Conjunctiva.
d)
Earlobes
5.
A 6-month-old client is placed on strict bed rest following a hernia repair. Which toy is best suited to the client?
a)
Colorful crib mobile
b)
Hand-held electronic games
c)
Cars in a plastic container
d)
30-piece jigsaw puzzle
6.
Which disease process releases enough insulin to prevent ketosis but not enough to prevent hyperglycemia?
a)
Diabetes insipidus
b)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
c)
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
d)
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)
7.
A patient, age 32, is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The practitioner orders a biopsy of his facial lesions; the preliminary biopsy report indicates Kaposi’s sarcoma. Which of the following would be the nurse’s best approach?
a)
Tell the patient that Kaposi’s sarcoma is common in people with AIDS.
b)
Pretend not to notice the lesions on the patient’s face.
c)
Inform the patient of the biopsy results, and support him emotionally.
d)
Explore the patient’s feelings about his facial disfigurement.
8.
A client is sent for a computerized tomography (CT) scan with dye injection. The nurse explains to the client:
a)
The test will take 3 hours.
b)
The client cannot eat 12 hours prior to the procedure.
c)
The client will be unconscious during the procedure.
d)
The client may feel a warm, flushing sensation when the dye is injected.
9.
The nurse knows a true statement regarding intra-arterial catheters is:
a)
There is no such thing as an intra-arterial catheter. Central lines are only placed in the venous system.
b)
Intra-arterial lines are used to provide chemotherapeutic agents in high concentrations
c)
Intra-arterial catheters are always placed in the large femoral artery for any treatment.
d)
An intra-arterial line can cause a tear in the adventitia of the artery.
10.
The glycosylated hemoglobin of a 40-year-old client with diabetes mellitus is 2.5%. The nurse understands that:
a)
The client can have a higher-calorie diet.
b)
The client has good control of her diabetes.
c)
The client requires adjustment in her insulin dose.
d)
The client has poor control of her diabetes.
11.
The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
a)
A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150ccs drainage
b)
A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
c)
A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102°F
d)
A client with a fractured hip in Buck’s traction
12.
The physician has instructed the client with gout to avoid protein sources of purine. Which protein source is high in purine?
a)
Dried beans
b)
Nuts
c)
Cheese
d)
Eggs
13.
A thin, malnourished elderly client is admitted from home with a diagnosis of altered mental status and dehydration. During the admission assessment, the client’s spouse informs the nurse that the client’s mobility has declined and home care has become increasingly difficult for the spouse as the only caregiver. What response by the nurse demonstrates appropriate use of referral to address the spouse/caregiver’s concerns and meet the needs of the client?
a)
I will place a referral to the dietitian so that you can receive information on nutrition and feeding techniques for your spouse.
b)
I should place a referral to the Adult Protective Services agency to evaluate your home care situation before your spouse is discharged.
c)
I will place a referral to the physical therapist to evaluate your spouse for mobility issues.
d)
I will place referrals to the case manager, the dietitian, and client-family services for your spouse. These members of the health care team will evaluate the level of care that your spouse requires and help you with information and resources to provide that care.
14.
The nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The most common cause of basal cell carcinoma is:
a)
Immunosuppression.
b)
Radiation exposure.
c)
Sun exposure.
d)
Burns.
15.
The nurse is administering medication to an elderly client who has no visitors. The nurse enters the room, quickly giving the client a cup of medications and pouring some water. The client takes the pills and, as the client hands the medication cup back to the nurse, grabs onto the nurse’s hand tightly. What is the most logical rationale for the client’s action?
a)
The client is confused and wants help.
b)
The client is scared and lonely and grabs the nurse’s hand for comfort.
c)
The client would like to talk with the nurse and initiates this communication by grabbing the nurse’s hand.
d)
The client would like to reminisce with the nurse.
16.
A client with AIDS complains of a weight loss of 20 pounds in the past month. Which diet is suggested for the client with AIDS?
a)
High calorie, high protein, high fat
b)
High calorie, high carbohydrate, low protein
c)
High calorie, low carbohydrate, high fat
d)
High calorie, high protein, low fat
17.
A client is admitted for suspected bladder cancer. Which one of the following factors is most significant in the client's diagnosis?
a)
Smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 30 years
b)
Taking hormone-replacement therapy
c)
Eating foods with preservatives
d)
Past employment involving asbestos
18.
The nurse is suspected of charting the administration of a medication that he did not give. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:
a)
Call the Board of Nursing
b)
File a formal reprimand
c)
Terminate the nurse
d)
Charge the nurse with a tort
19.
A client with Alzheimer's disease has been prescribed donepezil (Aricept). Which information should the nurse include when explaining about Aricept?
a)
Take the medication with meals.
b)
The medicine can cause dizziness, so rise slowly.
c)
If a dose is skipped, take two the next time.
d)
The pill can cause an increase in heart rate.
20.
Signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include:
a)
Increased pulse.
b)
Lowered systolic pressure.
c)
Narrowed pulse pressure.
d)
Papilledema.
21.
A 29-year-old multigravida at 37 weeks' gestation is being treated for severe preeclampsia and has magnesium sulfate infusing at 3 g/hour. The nurse has determined the priority nursing diagnosis to be: risk for central nervous system injury related to hypertension, edema of cerebrum. To maintain safety for this client, the nurse should:
a)
Maintain continuous fetal monitoring.
b)
Encourage family members to remain at bedside.
c)
Assess reflexes, clonus, visual disturbances, and headache.
d)
Monitor maternal liver studies every 4 hours.
22.
Which interaction style describes a nurse who cannot clearly separate her own emotional responses from the patient's needs and wants?
a)
Holistic
b)
Defensive
c)
Sympathetic
d)
Silence
23.
A client with glaucoma has been prescribed Timoptic (timolol) eyedrops. Timoptic should be used with caution in the client with a history of:
a)
Diabetes
b)
Gastric ulcers
c)
Emphysema
d)
Pancreatitis
24.
The nurse is planning shift duties. Which is the least appropriate task for the nursing assistant?
a)
Assisting a COPD client admitted 2 days ago to get up in the chair
b)
Feeding a client with bronchitis who has an old paralysis on the right side
c)
Accompanying a discharged emphysema client to the transportation area
d)
Assessing an emphysema client complaining of difficulty breathing
25.
A client with a fractured hip is being taught correct use of the walker. The nurse is aware that the correct use of the walker is achieved if the:
a)
Palms rest lightly on the handles
b)
Elbows are flexed 0°
c)
Client walks to the front of the walker
d)
Client carries the walker
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