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Worksheets

C14....

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which fire alarm component serves as the brain of alarm systems? (608)

a)

fire alarm control units (FACU)

b)

power supply

c)

initiating devices

d)

notification appliances

2.

What are some other functions of the Fire Alarm Control Unit (FACU)? (608)

Select all that apply.

a)

Provide two-way firefighter communication

b)

Provide remote annunciator integration

c)

Control elevators, HVAC, and other fire protection features

d)

Provide public address messages and mass notification alerts

e)

Activate fire suppression systems

3.

Which component's power supply usually comes from the building's main power connection to the local utility provider? (609)

a)

Electrical distribution system

b)
Backup generator
c)

Primary power supply

d)
Solar panel system
4.

The most common types of alarm-signaling systems used for signaling a fire alarm in a structure are ____. (610)

a)

audible notification appliances

b)

visual notification appliances

c)

textual notification appliances

d)

tactile notification appliances

5.

Which component sends a signal to the FACU using either hard-wire systems or a signal conveyed by radio wave over a special frequency? (610)

a)
Fire alarm control panel
b)

Power supply

c)

Initiating device

d)

Notification appliance

6.

Which component can consist of batteries with chargers, engine-driven generators with a storage battery, or multiple engine-driven generators? (611)

a)

Secondary power supply

b)

Primary power supply

c)

Initiating device

d)

Notification appliance

7.

Which type of fire detection and alarm system specialty signal indicates an off-normal condition of the complete fire-protection system? (613)

a)

Alarm

b)

Supervisory

c)

Trouble

d)

Warning

8.

How many types of specialty signals are most fire detection and alarm systems equipped with? (613)

a)
2
b)
4
c)
3
d)
1
9.

Which type of specialty signal indicates the loss of primary power or failure or removal of an initiating device? (613)

a)

alarm signal

b)

trouble signal

c)

supervisory signal

10.

A/An ________ is a warning of a fire emergency or dangerous condition that demands immediate attention. (613)

a)

supervisory signal

b)

alarm signal

c)

warning signal

d)

trouble signal

11.

Which alarm system is designed to provide notification to building occupants only on the immediate premises? (614)

a)

Local alarm system (Protected premises)

b)

Central alarm system

c)

Remote alarm system

d)

Proprietary alarm system

12.

The type of fire detection and alarm system required depends on the _____ (614).

a)

Type of occupancy of the building

b)

Occupancy load

c)

Number of means of egress

d)

Automatic sprinkler system

13.

The simplest type of protected premises alarm system is a/an _______. (615)

a)

conventional alarm system

b)
carbon monoxide detector
c)
smoke detector
d)

intrusion alarm

14.

Which of the following BEST describes a zoned conventional alarm system? (616)

a)

An annunciator panel, FACU, or printout visibly indicates the location of an operating alarm-initiating device

b)

Displays the exact location of each initiating device

c)

Designed to provide notification to building occupants on immediate premises

d)

Smoke detector sends a signal to the FACU and all alarm-signaling devices operate simultaneously

15.

Which supervising station is recognized as the most reliable? (618)

a)

Primary

b)

Remote

c)

Proprietary

d)

Central

16.

Which supervising station is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high-rise structures, and groups of commonly-owned facilities? (619)

a)

Proprietary

b)
Remote Station
c)
Local Station
d)
Mobile Station
17.

Which supervising station does not provide inspection, testing, and maintenance services? (619)

a)

Remote

b)

Proprietary

c)

Central

18.

Which of the following statements about public emergency alarm reporting systems is MOST accurate? (621)

a)

Power interruptions may result in the alarm only sounded locally

b)

There will be no power interruptions due to secondary power source

c)

Alarm indication will automatically go to dispatch

d)

Alarm indication will be on immediate premise

19.

In some communities, fire alarm signals from a protected premise are transmitted directly to ________ using a municipal alarm box or leased telephone line. (621)

a)

911

b)

the fire department

c)

city hall

d)

dispatch department

20.

Which type of emergency communications system is MOST helpful to fire suppression personnel operating in a building? (622)

a)

Two-way communication system

b)
Emergency siren alert system
c)
One-way intercom system
d)
Smoke signal system
21.

The type of emergency communications system used to provide emergency communication to a large number of people on a wide-scale basis is a _____. (622)

a)
Emergency Alert System
b)
Mass Notification System
c)
Public Address System
d)
Crisis Communication Network
22.

Automatic alarm-initiating devices are more commonly known as ___. (623)

a)

detectors

b)

smoke damper

c)

flame signature

d)

alarm signal

23.

Which type of fire service detection systems are among the oldest still in service? (624)

a)

Smoke detection devices

b)

Heat detection devices

c)

Carbon monoxide detectors

d)

Sprinkler systems

24.

Which type of automatic initiating devices are relatively inexpensive and least prone to nuisance alarms? (624)

a)
Ionization smoke detectors
b)

Heat detection devices

c)
Carbon monoxide detectors
d)
Photoelectric smoke detectors
25.

What do heat detectors require in order to be effective? (624)

a)

Smoke detector

b)

Proper installation

c)

Regular maintenance

d)

Temperature settings

26.

Which type of fixed temperature heat detector uses two types of metal with different heat-expansion ratios? (625)

a)

fusible links/frangible bulbs

b)

bimetallic

c)

continuous-line heat detector

d)

pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector

27.

The one style of heat detection device that can be used to detect conditions over a wide area is a ______. (626)

a)

continuous-line detector

b)

pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector

c)

bimetallic heat detector

d)

fusible links/frangible bulb

28.

On which principle of physics does a rate-of-rise heat detector operate? (627)

a)

Fires rapidly increase the temperature of a given areas

b)

Fires produce magnetic induction

c)

Fires are comprised of several chemical reactions

d)

Fires produce dangerous pressure changes

29.

Which type of rate-of-rise heat detector can monitor large areas of a building? (627)

a)
Ionization smoke detectors
b)

Aspirating smoke detectors (ASD's)

c)
Manual pull stations
d)

Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detector

30.

Which rate-of-rise heat detector is designed for use in areas subject to regular, but slow, temperature changes? (628)

a)

Rate-compensation heat detector

b)
Photoelectric heat detector
c)

Fixed temperature heat detector

d)
Ionization heat detector
31.

What heat detector consists of one or more thermistors that produce a marked change in electrical resistance when exposed to heat?

a)

Rate-compensation

b)

Electronic Spot-Type

c)

Pneumatic Rate-of-Rise Line

d)

Pneumatic Rate-of-Rise Spot

32.

________ serve the purpose of early detection, notification, and reaction. (629)

a)

smoke detectors

b)

heat detectors

c)

fire alarms

d)

manually actuated alarm-initiating device

33.

Which type of smoke detector works on all types of fires and usually responds more quickly to smoldering fires than ionization smoke detection? (630)

a)
Combination smoke detector
b)
Heat detector
c)
Ionization smoke detector
d)
Photoelectric smoke detector
34.

The preferred type of automatic alarm device in residential residences and health and institutional care facilities is a ________ (630).

a)
motion sensor
b)
water leak detector
c)

smoke detector

d)
carbon monoxide detector
35.

Which type of smoke detector contains a sensing chamber consisting of two electrically charged plates and a radioactive source? (631)

a)
Photoelectric smoke detector
b)
Heat detector
c)
Combination smoke detector
d)
Ionization smoke detector
36.

_____ are installed in the return or supply ducts or plenums of HVAC system and they will shut down the system upon the detection of smoke. (630)

a)

Duct smoke detector

b)

Video-based detector

c)

Flame detector

d)

Rate-compensation heat detector

37.

Which detector operates on the principle of detecting changes in a digital video from a camera?

a)

Video-based detector

b)

Duct smoke detector

c)

Ionization smoke detector

d)

Photoelectric smoke detector

38.

Which type of flame detector is effective in monitoring large areas such as aircraft hangars and computer rooms? (633)

a)

infrared detectors

b)

ultra violet (UV) detectors

c)

combination detector

d)

waterflow detector

39.

Which type of flame detector is activated by bright light sources? (633)

a)

infrared

b)

ultraviolet

c)

ionization

d)

photoelectric

40.

What does an infrared detector require to prevent accidental activation? (634)

a)

flickering action of a flame

b)

presence of sunlight

c)

manual push of a button

d)

video images

41.

What are manually actuated fire alarm boxes commonly called? (635)

a)

Manual pull stations

b)

Manual fire stations

c)

Manual power stations

d)

Manual alarm stations

42.

Manual pull stations are usually _______ in color with white lettering that specifies what they are and how they are to be used. (635)

a)
green
b)
blue
c)
red
d)
yellow
43.

When should automatic alarm-initiating devices be checked? (639)

a)

After installation, after a fire, and at scheduled times based on guidelines

b)

Only after a fire

c)

When fusible link must be reinstalled

d)

After the pressure pump is used

44.

Multistory facilities should have at least ____ pull station(s) on each floor. (636)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

Which type of manual pull station may be confusing to certain occupant/operators? (636)

a)

Double-action

b)

Push button

c)

Rotary

d)

Slide

46.

What should an inspector do when conditions that may trigger an unwanted alarm or environmental conditions that may negatively affect a system are recognized? (637)

a)
Assume the system will self-correct without intervention.
b)

Recommend corrective action

c)
Wait for the next scheduled inspection to address the issue.
d)
Ignore the conditions and proceed as normal.
47.

Inspectors should check the FACU to verify ____ (638).

a)
user manuals
b)

all parts are operating properly

c)
maintenance records
d)
installation procedures
48.

What should an inspector look for when inspecting manual pull stations and audible or visual warning devices? (637)

a)

Components are not blocked or obstructed in any way

b)

Check for changes in a building

c)

Verify that the monitoring system is operational

d)

Verify that all equipment are free of dust, dirt, and paint

49.

What is the periodic testing of fire detection and alarm signaling systems called? (637)

a)
Smoke Detector Maintenance
b)
Fire Safety Inspection
c)

Service Test

d)
Alarm System Review
50.

What should an inspector do if they recognize conditions that may trigger an unwanted alarm? (637)

a)

Recommend corrective action

b)

Issue a stop work order

c)

Call the manufacturer

d)

Issue a minor citation

51.

Most of the time, who has to test fire alarm systems on their own and document results? (638)

a)
Administrative staff
b)
Firefighters
c)
Security guards
d)

Occupants

52.

What can be used to test restorable heat detectors during a test? (639)

a)
Smoke detector
b)
Water spray
c)

Hair dryers and electrical heat guns

d)
Thermal camera
53.

Smoke detectors need to be tested ___ with the manufacturer's recommendations. (640)

a)

semiannually

b)

annually

c)

quarterly

d)

monthly

54.

A permanent record of all detector tests must be maintained for at least ____. (640)

a)
5 years
b)
1 year
c)
3 years
d)
10 years
55.

Who should test flame and gas detection devices? (640)

a)

highly trained individuals

b)

fire inspectors

c)

building owner/occupant

d)

insurance companies

56.

If an alarm signaling system uses backup electrical generators, how long should a generator run under load for a monthly test? (641)

a)
1 hour
b)
15 minutes
c)
45 minutes
d)
30 minutes
57.

For central station systems, test signaling equipment should be tested on a ____ basis. (641)

a)

monthly

b)

annual

c)

semiannually

d)

quaterly

58.

For auxiliary fire alarm systems, the occupant should visually inspect and actively test systems _____. (641)

a)

monthly

b)

annually

c)

quarterly

d)

semiannually

59.

Remote station and proprietary systems should be tested according to requirements established by ______. (641)

a)

regulatory bodies

b)

industry standards

c)

agency having jurisdiction (AHJ)

d)
company policies
60.

All components of emergency voice/alarm systems should be tested at least ___ (642).

a)

annually

b)

semiannually

c)

quarterly

d)

biannually

61.

The owner/occupant should conduct functional tests of emergency voice/alarm systems ____. (642)

a)

quarterly

b)

monthly

c)

annually

d)

semiannually

62.

What document is sometimes required in order to prevent an inspector from checking a system that may not be installed correctly? (642)

a)

record of completion from the system installer/

manufacturer

b)

acceptance testing letter

c)

approval form from the fire marshal

d)

record of completion from the building owner

63.

Which activity is MOST likely to be witnessed by an inspector during acceptance testing? (642)

a)

Inspection of conduits and solid connections and proper support

b)

Acceptance tests at the manufacturing plant

c)

Installation of fire alarm systems

d)

Alarm signal inspection tests

64.

Which component's acceptance testing includes operating all interactive controls to verify that they control the system as designed? (643)

a)

Fire alarm control unit (FACU)

b)

Power supplies

c)

Alarm signals

d)

Alarm-initiating and occupant notification devices

65.

Only after _____ the parts of the system have successfully passed the tests should a system certification be issued. (643)

a)

some

b)

the main parts

c)

all

d)

none

66.

Acceptance testing is performed: _____ (642)

a)

every year

b)

every month

c)

before installed and occupancy

d)

after installation and prior to occupancy

67.

Which of the following should witness acceptance tests? (642)

Select all that apply

a)

representatives of the building owner/occupant

b)

the fire department

c)

system installer/manufacturer

d)

construction crews

e)

building code enforcement

68.

Which component's acceptance testing includes testing pull stations, detectors, bells, and strobe lights? (643)

a)

Alarm, supervisory, and trouble signals

b)

Fire alarm control unit (FACU)

c)

Alarm initiating and occupant notification devices and circuits

d)

Power supplies

69.

In additions to horns, bells, and strobes, notifications may also include ____. (643-644)

a)

voice evacuation systems

b)

visual displays on the floor

c)

textile support on the walls

d)

text messaging services

70.

The level of loudness is a measurement of sound pressure measured in ____. (644)

a)
hertz
b)
volts
c)
watts
d)
decibels
71.

Where are occupant evacuation notification graphic displays often located? (644)

a)

The back of the building

b)

Near the front entrance

c)

Inside fire pump room

d)

Near means of egress

72.

Which type of fire notification signaling appliances are most commonly used in a structure? (644)

a)

Audible

b)

Tactile

c)

Textual

d)

Tactile

73.

Integrated audible and visual signals are used to accommodate ____. (644)

a)

the hearing and visually impaired

b)

the physically impaired

c)

the mentally impaired

d)

the emotionally impaired

74.

A measurement for the audible occupant notification of fire is required to be made at ____. (644)

a)

5 feet above the floor

b)

12 feet above the floor

c)

3 feet above the floor

d)

6 feet above the floor

75.

In order for audible fire notification appliances to alert the building occupants, the appliance must be ____. (644)

a)

loud enough to be heard

b)

bright enough to be seen

c)

high enough to be seen in the top of the room

d)

close enough to the door

76.

Where are rotating beacons used for occupant evacuation notification? (644)

a)

Large industrial and commercial complexes

b)

Small business

c)

Municipal buildings

d)

Storage facilities

77.

The total sound pressure produced by audible occupant notification of fire appliances must not exceed ____. (644)

a)

120 dBA

b)

130 dBA

c)

115 dBA

d)

125 dBA

78.

NFPA 72 requires the sound level of an audible device to be at least 15 dBA above the average or normal sound level or ____ above the maximum sound level that lasts at least one minute in the protected occupancy. (644)

a)

5 dBA

b)

6 dBA

c)

7 dBA

d)

8 dBA

79.

Almost all fire detection and alarm system installations require the use of ___. (644)

a)

audible signals

b)

visual signals

c)

textile signals

d)

textual signals

80.

If the ambient sound in a building is above 105 dBA, the building must ____. (644)

a)

have visible notification

b)

have audible notification

c)

have textile notification

d)

have textual notification

81.

The requirement for specific visual fire notification appliances comes from ____. (645)

a)

adopted building code

b)

adopted fire code

c)

adopted electrical code

d)

manufacturer's recommendations

82.

Strobe requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) apply to new construction and ____ (645).

a)

renovations to portions of buildings open to the general public

b)

old construction

c)

emergency exits

d)

elevator hoistways

83.

Plans for the complete fire detection and alarm system should be submitted for review and approval by the ____ (646).

a)

local authorities

b)

fire marshal

c)

business owner

d)

third party agency

84.

When more than two strobes are in the field of vision, the strobes used for notification of fire must be synchronized to flash _____. (646)

a)

at the same time

b)

alternating times

c)

every 5 seconds

d)

every 10 seconds

85.

Where required, visual notification appliances must be installed in corridors that are less than _______ (646).

a)

20 feet wide

b)

15 feet wide

c)

25 feet wide

d)

10 feet wide

86.

The minimum candela rating for visual notification appliances mounted in corridors is ___ (646).

a)

15 cd

b)

10 cd

c)

20 cd

d)

25 cd

87.

What needs to be done any time there is a change to fire detection and alarm-signaling software? (647)

a)

The system should be completely tested

b)

The fire inspector should resubmit forms

c)

Building owner should inform the fire department

d)

The system should be visually checked by trained personnel

88.

On newer fire detection and alarm systems where the system installer used computers to program panels, where should design configurations be kept? (647)

a)

On site

b)

At City Hall

c)

With the Fire Department

d)

Mailed to manufacturer

89.

Which heat sensing fire detector color coding is 400-499 degrees and classified as "very extra high"?

a)

Uncolored

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Blue

90.

Which heat-sensing fire detector color coding is 500-575 degrees and classified as "ultra high"?

a)

orange

b)

green

c)

red

d)

blue

91.

Which heat-sensing fire detector color coding is 325-399 degrees and classified as "extra high"?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Orange

d)

Blue

92.

Which heat-sensing fire detector color coding is 250-324 degrees and classified as "high"?

a)

white

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

green

93.

What heat-sensing fire detector color coding is 175-249 degrees and it classified as intermediate?

a)

White

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

Green

94.

Which heat-sensing fire detector coding is 135-174 degrees and classified as "ordinary"?

a)

uncolored

b)

red

c)

white

d)

green

95.

Which heat-sensing fire detector color coding has a temperature rating of 100-134 degrees and classified as "low"?

a)

uncolored

b)

red

c)

green

d)

white