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WorksheetsGCC 1851 - 1875
Total questions: 25
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Before administering a nasogastric feeding to a client hospitalized following a CVA, the nurse aspirates 40mL of residual. The nurse should:
a)
Replace the aspirate and administer the feeding
b)
Discard the aspirate and withhold the feeding
c)
Discard the aspirate and begin the feeding
d)
Replace the aspirate and withhold the feeding
e)
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2.
Which physiologic effects of a pulmonary embolism would initially affect oxygenation?
a)
A blood clot blocks ventilation, but perfusion is unaffected.
b)
A blood clot blocks ventilation, producing hypoxia despite normal perfusion.
c)
A blood clot blocks perfusion and ventilation, producing profound hypoxia.
d)
A blood clot blocks perfusion, producing hypoxia despite normal or supernormal ventilation.
e)
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3.
An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?
a)
Discard the solution and order a new bag
b)
Warm the solution
c)
Continue the infusion and document the finding
d)
Discontinue the medication
e)
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4.
A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of-Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse:
a)
Handles the cast with the fingertips
b)
Bivalves the cast
c)
Dries the cast with a hair dryer
d)
Allows 24 hours before bearing weight
e)
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5.
Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic, gram-positive bacillus that forms spores. It is found in soil, dust, rust, and the feces of animals and humans. These spores are highly resilient to extremes in temperatures, moisture, and chemical substances. Once exposed to anaerobic conditions, such as the environment associated with wounds, tissue necrosis, or foreign bodies, the spores can germinate. Which organism is this?
a)
Folliculitis.
b)
Osteomyelitis.
c)
Rabies.
d)
Tetanus
e)
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6.
A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
a)
I will keep candy with me just in case my blood sugar drops.
b)
I need to stay out of the sun as much as possible.
c)
I often skip dinner because I don't feel hungry.
d)
I always wear my medical identification.
e)
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7.
The nurse has taken the blood pressure of a client hospitalized with methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. Which action by the nurse indicates an understanding regarding the care of clients with MRSA?
a)
The nurse leaves the stethoscope in the client's room for future use.
b)
The nurse cleans the stethoscope with alcohol and returns it to the exam room.
c)
The nurse uses the stethoscope to assess the blood pressure of other assigned clients.
d)
The nurse cleans the stethoscope with water, dries it, and returns it to the nurse's station.
e)
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8.
When meperidine (Demerol) is used too often for chronic pain, a metabolite known as normeperidine can build up in the body. The nurse knows one of the effects of this metabolite is:
a)
Hypertension.
b)
Hyperthermia.
c)
Diplopia.
d)
Seizures.
e)
-
9.
A patient, age 19, is HIV-positive. When would a diagnosis of AIDS be confirmed?
a)
When the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is positive
b)
When the Western blot test is positive
c)
When he is diagnosed with malignant (non-Hodgkin's) lymphoma
d)
When seroconversion takes place
e)
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10.
A patient was given morphine for pain. He is sleeping and has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute. If action is not taken quickly, what reaction might he have?
a)
An asthma attack
b)
Respiratory arrest
c)
Seizure
d)
Waking up on his own
e)
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11.
A 2-month-old child receives a dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intramuscularly. Which is the preferred site of injection for this client?
a)
Vastus lateralis.
b)
Dorsogluteal.
c)
Ventrogluteal.
d)
Deltoid.
e)
-
12.
An obstetrical client decides to have an epidural anesthetic to relieve pain during labor. Following administration of the anesthesia, the nurse should:
a)
Monitor the client for seizures
b)
Monitor the client for orthostatic hypotension
c)
Monitor the client for respiratory depression
d)
Monitor the client for hematuria
e)
-
13.
As clients age, the nurse should remember that self-care practices by the client:
a)
Result in a failure of the client to utilize medical services.
b)
Have little or no effect on mortality, but do reduce the overall rate of illness.
c)
Are limited in the ability to influence health and well-being.
d)
Promote health of the client now and in the future.
e)
-
14.
A client has sustained damage to the preoccipital lobe. The nurse should remain particularly alert for which of the following problems?
a)
Visual impairment
b)
Swallowing difficulty
c)
Impaired judgment
d)
Hearing impairment
e)
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15.
The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy?
a)
Low birth weight
b)
Large for gestational age
c)
Preterm birth, but appropriate size for gestation
d)
Growth retardation in weight and length
e)
-
16.
The two types of surgery primarily used to promote weight loss are restrictive and malabsorptive-restrictive. Which of the following is an example of restrictive weight-loss surgery?
a)
Gastric bypass
b)
Adjustable gastric banding
c)
Roux-en-Y
d)
Biliopancreatic diversion
e)
-
17.
Following a positive pregnancy test, a client begins discussing the changes that will occur in the next several months with the nurse. The nurse should include which of the following information about changes the client can anticipate in the first trimester?
a)
Differentiating the self from the fetus.
b)
Enjoying the role of nurturer.
c)
Preparing for the reality of parenthood.
d)
Experiencing ambivalence about pregnancy.
e)
-
18.
A client is status post-thyroidectomy. The client complains of paresthesia and leg cramps. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes hypocalcemia. The nurse realizes the reason for the hypocalcemia is:
a)
Decreased intake of dairy products due to postoperative nausea.
b)
Removal of the thyroid gland.
c)
Inadvertent removal of the parathyroid gland with thyroidectomy.
d)
Hyperphosphatemia.
e)
-
19.
The nurse cares for a client recovering from a subdural hematoma. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform to prevent foot drop and contractures?
a)
Apply high-top sneakers.
b)
Administer low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
c)
Encourage the client to ambulate.
d)
Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs).
e)
-
20.
A patient received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body?
a)
0.09
b)
0.18
c)
0.27
d)
0.36
e)
-
21.
A patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after undergoing internal fixation of a left femoral neck fracture. The nurse should place the patient in which position?
a)
On his left side with his right knee bent
b)
On his back with two pillows between his legs
c)
On his right side with his left knee bent
d)
Sitting at a 90-degree angle
e)
-
22.
A client with a diagnosis of passive-aggressive personality disorder is seen at the local mental health clinic. A common characteristic of persons with passive-aggressive personality disorder is:
a)
Superior intelligence
b)
Underlying hostility
c)
Dependence on others
d)
Ability to share feelings
e)
-
23.
A client receives a nitroglycerin drip.Which is a true statement regarding the use of this medication in intravenous therapy?
a)
Vented tubing is needed to administer this medication.
b)
A glass bottle and vented tubing are needed to administer this medication.
c)
Admixture must be done under a laminar flow hood with proper handling techniques.
d)
This medication cannot be given through small diameter catheters in elderly clients.
e)
-
24.
Guided imagery is a form of alternative therapy. Guided imagery can frequently be used by the nurse to decrease stress, pain, and anxiety.Additional benefits of guided imagery include:
a)
Decreased client satisfaction.
b)
Decreased side effects.
c)
Increased length of stay.
d)
Increased hospital costs.
e)
-
25.
Lipid emulsions for total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and partial parenteral nutrition (PPN) originate from different fat products.Which is a true statement regarding lipid emulsions?
a)
Intralipid originates from safflower oil.
b)
Liposyn III is created from safflower oil.
c)
Liposyn II is a combination of safflower and soybean oil.
d)
Interlipid comes from soybean oil.
e)
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