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ECG115 Exam 2 Review

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Junctional rhythms have an intrinsic rate of:

a)

40-60 bpm

b)

20-40 bpm

c)

10-20 bpm

d)

60-100 bpm

2.

Which of the following dysrhythmias is NOT considered part of the supraventricular tachycardia classification?

a)

atrial fibrillation

b)

sinus tachycardia

c)

ventricular tachycardia

d)

junctional tachycardia

3.

In this rhythm, the SA node fails to initiate the electrical activity, and the rhythm is established by the backup pacemaker site.

a)

sinus rhythm

b)

junctional rhythm

c)

atrial rhythm

d)

ventricular rhythm

4.

The (a)   on the ECG is primarily affected by junctional rhythms.

5.

Which type of heart block is sometimes referred to as Wenckebach.

a)

1st degree HB

b)

2nd degree type 1 HB

c)

2nd degree type 2 HB

d)

3rd degree HB

6.

In a first-degree AV block, all sinus impulses get through to the ventricles.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which of the following AV blocks have consistent PR intervals? Select all that apply.

a)

1st degree HB

b)

2nd degree type 1 HB

c)

2nd degree type 2 HB

d)

3rd degree HB

8.

In Mobitz II second-degree AV block, where do the P waves originate?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

9.

A third degree heart block is best characterized by:

a)

no relationship between P waves & QRS complexes

b)

a steady relationship between the P waves & QRS complexes

c)

a prolonged but regular PR interval

d)

a progressively increasing PR interval

10.

Wenckebach is characterized by:

a)

consistent PR intervals

b)

wide bizarre QRS complexes

c)

absent P waves

d)

gradually prolonging PR intervals

11.

A first-degree heart block is best characterized by:

a)

a completely normal EKG

b)

no relationship between QRS complexes & P waves

c)

a progressively increased PR interval, then a missing QRS, in a cyclical pattern

d)

a prolonged PR interval

12.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

b)

Junctional Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Tachycardia

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

13.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Junctional bradycardia

b)

Premature junctional contractions

c)

Junctional escape rhythm

d)

Accelerated junctional rhythm

14.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Accelerated junctional rhythm

b)

Junctional bradycardia

c)

Premature junctional contractions

d)

Junctional tachycardia

15.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Third-degree AV block

b)

Second-degree Type I AV block

c)

Second-degree Type II AV block

d)

First-degree AV block

16.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Third-degree AV block

b)

Second-degree Type I AV block

c)

Second-degree Type II AV block

d)

First-degree AV block

17.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Third-degree AV block

b)

Second-degree Type I AV block

c)

Second-degree Type II AV block

d)

First-degree AV block

18.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Accelerated junctional rhythm

b)

Premature junctional contractions

c)

Junctional escape rhythm

d)

Junctional tachycardia

19.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Third-degree AV block

b)

Second-degree Type I AV block

c)

Second-degree Type II AV block

d)

First-degree AV block

20.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

Accelerated junctional rhythm

b)

Junctional bradycardia

c)

Premature junctional contractions

d)

Junctional escapte rhythm

e)

Junctional tachycardia

21.

Which rhythm results in abnormally wide QRS (>0.12s) with a slur caused by pre-excitation?

a)

SVT

b)

WPW

c)

A-Fib

d)

A-Flutter

22.

Increased automaticity and reentry circuits are two examples of mechanisms by which arrhythmias are generated.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which of the following rhythms is indicated by the EKG tracing provided?

a)

atrial pacing

b)

atrioventricular pacing

c)

biventricular pacing

d)

atriobiventricular pacing

24.

A dual chamber pacemaker has

a)

the ability to defibrillate the heart

b)

electrodes in the right atrium and right ventricle

c)

a pacing wire in the RV only

d)

leads in the RA and both ventricles

25.

Which of the following correctly describes this EKG rhythm?

a)

atrial flutter

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

ventricular tachycardia

d)

ventricular fibrillation

26.

Which of the following correctly describes this EKG rhythm?

a)

atrial flutter

b)

atrial fibrillation

c)

ventricular tachycardia

d)

ventricular fibrillation

27.

Which of the following correctly describes this EKG?

a)

monomorphic (unifocal) ventricular tachycardia

b)

polymorphic (multifocal) ventricular tachycardia

28.

The electrocardiogram rhythm strip shows the following:

The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16s and the QRS complex measures 0.06s. The overall heart rate is 64 bpm. This cardiac rhythm is which of the following?

a)

normal sinus rhythm

b)

sinus bradycardia

c)

sick sinus syndrome

d)

first-degree heart block

29.

The electrocardiogram rhythm strip shows the following:

There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but does not exceed 100 bpm. Which of the following cardiac rhythms is this?

a)

PVCs

b)

VFib

c)

VTach

d)

Sinus Tach

30.

A sonographer is viewing the cardiac monitor in a patient's room and notes that the patient has just gone into ventricular tachycardia. The patient is awake, alert, and has good skin color. The tech would prepare to do which of the following?

a)

immediately defibrillate

b)

start chest compressions

c)

prepare for cardioversion

d)

assess the patient's pulse and blood pressure

31.

A patient is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. Which of the following assessments are priority to evaluate if the patient is experiencing changes in cardiac output?

a)

blood pressure & peripheral perfusion

b)

sensation of palpitations

c)

causative factors such as caffeine

d)

precipitating factors such as infection

32.

This EKG tracing shows which of the following rhythms?

a)

atrial pacing

b)

ventricular pacing with failure to capture

c)

atrioventricular pacing with failure to sense

d)

atriobiventricular pacing with failure to pace

33.

A healthcare worker notes that a patient with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves or definable QRS complexes. Instead, there are coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. This rhythm is?

a)

VTach

b)

VFib

c)

AFib

d)

Asystole

34.

A sonographer is performing a complete echocardiogram on a patient who has sustained an MI. During the scan, the sonographer notes eight PVCs in one minute on the cardiac monitor. The patient is receiving oxygen. The sonographer's first course of action should be to:

a)

notify the nurse caring for the patient

b)

continue the scan until completed

c)

increase the patient's oxygen therapy

d)

request the nurse bring the patient pain medication

35.

Which of the following correctly describes the EKG?

a)

PVCs

b)

PJCs

c)

PACs

d)

None of the above

36.

Match the PVC types with the corresponding pattern/explanation.

a)

six or more PVCs per minute

1.

frequent PVCs

b)

all complexes have a similar shape, originating from only one irritable focus

2.

unifocal PVC

c)

every other complex is a PVC

3.

bigeminy

d)

every third complex is a PVC

4.

trigeminy

e)

PVCs have varied shapes and forms, originating from more than one irritable foci

5.

multifocal PVC

37.

Identify the rhythm.

a)

Torsades de Pointes

b)

VTach

c)

VFib

d)

None of the above

38.

Identify the rhythm.

a)

agonal rhythm

b)

atrial escape rhythm

c)

asystole

d)

sinus exit block

39.

Identify the rhythm.

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Right Bundle Branch Block

c)

Left Bundle Branch Block

d)

Complete Heart Block

40.

Which of the following does NOT cause PVCs?

a)

stress

b)

caffeine/alcohol

c)

ischemia

d)

pacemaker insertion

e)

hypoxia

41.

If ventricular fibrillation is not corrected, the patient will decline into (a)   .

42.

(a)   refers to the changes that occur on a 12-lead ECG as a result of the position of the heart within the patient's chest?

43.

What is the most common axis deviation?

a)

left

b)

right

c)

extreme right

d)

extreme left

44.

Match the leads with the corresponding portion of the heart viewed.

a)

septal wall

1.

Leads V1 and V2

b)

anterior wall

2.

Leads V3 and V4

c)

lateral wall

3.

Leads I, aVL, V5, and V6

d)

inferior wall

4.

Leads II, III, and aVF

45.

Match the coronary artery & branch with the corresponding portion of the heart viewed.

a)

anterior wall of LV

1.

LCA - left anterior descending

b)

septal wall of LV

2.

LCA - septal branch

c)

inferior wall of LV

3.

RCA - posterior descending

d)

lateral wall of LV

4.

LCA - left circumflex

46.

Which two leads do we refer to when determining axis deviation? Select all that apply.

a)

Lead I

b)

Lead II

c)

Lead III

d)

aVF

e)

aVL

47.

Which is NOT a cause of left axis deviation?

a)

LVH

b)

pregnancy

c)

obesity

d)

emphysema

e)

tall, thin adults & children

48.

Which part of the heart does the standard 12-lead ECG focus on directly?

a)

RA

b)

RV

c)

LV

d)

LA

49.

Which of these are factors that determine the seriousness of a Myocardial Infarction? Select all that apply.

a)

coronary arteries involved

b)

location & extent of infarction

c)

vital heart structures involved

d)

time

e)

age

50.

Which is the most helpful indicator for differentiating between a myocardial injury and myocardial infarction?

a)

pathologic Q wave

b)

physiologic Q wave

c)

T wave inversion

d)

ST elevation

51.

An extreme right axis deviation can be caused by situs inversus or dextrocardia.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Infarction must be seen in at least ___ anatomically contiguous leads.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

only required to see it in 1 lead

53.

When totaled, how many millimeters is the minimum necessary to clinical suspect hypertrophy?

a)

3 mm

b)

5 mm

c)

3.5mm

d)

35mm

54.

Where does the initial electrical impulse originate from in a junctional rhythm?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Bundle of HIS

d)

Purkinje fibers

55.

The sonographer notices the rhythm on the echo machine changes from normal sinus to ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following interventions should they do next?

a)

assess if the patient is awake and/or has a pulse

b)

request the nurse assigned to the patient call a rapid response

c)

run to get the crash cart and oxygen tank

d)

immediately call a code blue and start CPR

56.

In LVH, more electricity flows through the heart. In practical terms, how will the QRS complexes appear?

a)

wider than normal and bizarre

b)

narrower than normal and bizarre

c)

taller and deeper than normal

d)

shorter and wider than normal

57.

How many electrodes are used in a 12-lead EKG?

a)

6

b)

10

c)

12

d)

13

58.

Put the steps to 12-lead ECG interpretation in the correct order.

a)

Determine the rhythm & regularity, then calculate the atrial & ventricular rate

b)

Identify the P wave morphology, then measure the PR interval

c)

Measure the QRS duration & analyze the configuration

d)

Evaluate the leads in a group

e)

Identify morphological changes

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)