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Phlebotomy Study Guide

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Microorganisms that cause diseases

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Pathogens

d)

Fungi

2.

What kind of blood do arteries and arterioles carry?

a)

Deoxygenated blood

b)

Oxygenated blood

c)

Mixed blood

d)

Plasma

3.

If an infant is screaming during a CBC test, the

a)

Test should be stopped immediately

b)

Infant should be comforted

c)

Blood flow may be affected

d)

Test should be continued without concern

4.

During a phlebotomy procedure, which of the following is the correct order of draw to prevent cross-contamination of additives between tubes?

a)

Red, Blue, Green

b)

Blue, Red, Green

c)

Green, Red, Blue

d)

Red, Green, Blue

5.

OSHA requires that healthcare professionals receive a vaccine for:

a)

Influenza

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Measles

d)

Tuberculosis

6.

Glycolysis occurs faster in newborns.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The first tube collected with a butterfly will underfill due to air in the line.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

If the needle passes completely through the vein, you must pull it out of the arm and try another vein.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Which tube is drawn last in a standard venipuncture procedure?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Gray

10.

Microorganism cultures are collected in ___________tubes.

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Green

11.

Which would be considered a pre-analytical error?

a)

Incorrect patient identification

b)

Wrong test ordered

c)

Incorrect test interpretation

d)

Incorrect result reporting

12.

Light blue tubes must be filled ___ with blood.

a)

To the line

b)

Halfway

c)

Completely full

d)

One-third

e)

Just a drop

13.

Which is a test of the urinary system?

a)

Blood culture

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Glucose tolerance test

d)

Complete blood count

14.

The following were collected for a routine venipuncture. Which item is incorrect?

a)

EDTA tube

b)

Sodium citrate tube

c)

Blood culture bottle

d)

Urine sample

15.

What is the first link in the chain of infection?

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Infectious agent

c)

Portal of entry

d)

Reservoir

16.

Another name for thrombocytes is ___________.

a)

Platelets

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Plasma

17.

Which tube does not contain EDTA?

a)

Lavender top

b)

Light blue top

c)

Green top

d)

Red top

18.

The OGTT test diagnoses ___________.

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Asthma

d)

Arthritis

19.

Blood cultures are collected in a ___________ tube.

a)

Yellow top

b)

Red top

c)

Blue top

d)

Green top

20.

What is the most important step in preventing infections?

a)

Wearing gloves

b)

Hand hygiene

c)

Using disinfectants

d)

Wearing masks

21.

Which tube contains sodium citrate?

a)

Lavender top

b)

Light blue top

c)

Green top

d)

Red top

22.

A person should refrain from eating for how many hours before a fasting blood test?

a)

4 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

23.

The Good Samaritan Law empowers healthcare professionals to administer medical assistance beyond their usual scope of practice without facing legal repercussions or being subject to lawsuits.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

This organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing.

a)

CDC

b)

WHO

c)

CLSI

d)

FDA

25.

Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture?

a)

Blood

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Peritoneal fluid

26.

Which tube is used for a sickle cell screen?

a)

Lavender top

b)

Light blue top

c)

Green top

d)

Red top

27.

The most important step in a routine venipuncture.

a)

Identifying the patient

b)

Selecting the correct needle size

c)

Applying a tourniquet

d)

Labeling the specimen tube

28.

Arteries have valves that prevent the blood from flowing back.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the recommended depth of a heel puncture on an infant?

a)

1.5 mm

b)

2.0 mm

c)

2.5 mm

d)

3.0 mm

30.

In a routine venipuncture, which tube should be drawn before the red tube?

a)

Green tube

b)

Lavender tube

c)

Blue tube

d)

Yellow tube

31.

Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood?

a)

Collapsed vein

b)

Incorrect needle size

c)

Patient fasting

d)

Improper tube inversion

32.

A CBC would be sent to what lab section?

a)

Chemistry

b)

Hematology

c)

Microbiology

d)

Immunology

33.

Repeated venipuncture in the same vein can cause:

a)

Hematoma

b)

Infection

c)

Sclerosis

d)

Bruising

34.

Bacteria and parasites belong to which type of hazard?

a)

Chemical

b)

Biological

c)

Physical

d)

Radiological

35.

Which is NOT a common symptom of shock?

a)

Rapid pulse

b)

Cold, clammy skin

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Weakness

36.

Which tube is used for PTT?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Lavender

37.

Lavender and Green tubes should all be inverted how many times each?

a)

5 times

b)

6 times

c)

8 times

d)

10 times

38.

An NP culture swab is collected to help diagnose:

a)

Viral infections

b)

Bacterial infections

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Parasitic infections

39.

Cortisol peaks at what time of day?

a)

Morning

b)

Noon

c)

Afternoon

d)

Night

40.

A patient in the Oncology Dept. is probably being treated for:

a)

Heart disease

b)

Cancer

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

41.

Which WBC carries histamine?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

42.

Sclerosed veins feel:

a)

Soft

b)

Hard

c)

Warm

d)

Cold

43.

When you explain the venipuncture procedure to the patient and they agree to the test it is called _______.

a)

Consent

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Prescription

d)

Refusal

44.

What part of the infant is a PKU test performed on?

a)

Heel

b)

Arm

c)

Finger

d)

Toe

45.

The test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway is called ___________.

a)

APTT test

b)

PT test

c)

Bleeding time

d)

Clotting time

46.

Sputum is collected to diagnose

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Diabetes

c)

Anemia

d)

Hypertension

47.

The ability of the body to achieve "steady state."

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Metabolism

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Stability

48.

What tube is used for ESR?

a)

Lavender top

b)

Red top

c)

Blue top

d)

Green top

49.

Capillary puncture reference ranges are higher for this analyte.

a)

Glucose

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

50.

Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen?

a)

Gray top

b)

Yellow top

c)

Red top

d)

Blue top

51.

Oxygen-poor blood enters the heart through the right atrium.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

A clean catch test is collected in a:

a)

Sterile container

b)

Non-sterile container

c)

Plastic bag

d)

Glass jar

53.

To measure the diurnal variation of cortisol hormone, what kind of specimen would be required?

a)

Blood

b)

Urine

c)

Saliva

d)

Sweat

54.

The first phase of hemostasis is _______________.

a)

Vascular spasm

b)

Platelet plug formation

c)

Coagulation

d)

Fibrinolysis

55.

Which tube would you use to measure lactic acid?

a)

Gray top

b)

Red top

c)

Blue top

d)

Green top

56.

Which vein in the antecubital fossa is usually easiest to palpate in an obese patient?

a)

Cephalic vein

b)

Basilic vein

c)

Median cubital vein

d)

Radial vein

57.

Which body plane divides the body in equal portions?

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Coronal plane

c)

Transverse plane

d)

Midsagittal plane

58.

What percentage of formed elements are erythrocytes?

a)

45%

b)

55%

c)

60%

d)

70%

59.

What is the preferred site for venipuncture?

a)

Dorsal hand vein

b)

Cephalic vein

c)

Basilic vein

d)

Median cubital vein

60.

Which represents the proper order of blood flow?

a)

Arteries, capillaries, veins

b)

Veins, capillaries, arteries

c)

Capillaries, veins, arteries

d)

Arteries, veins, capillaries

61.

Which blood vessel is NOT part of systemic circulation?

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Superior vena cava

d)

Inferior vena cava

62.

The most common complication of phlebotomy.

a)

Infection

b)

Hematoma

c)

Nerve damage

d)

Arterial puncture

63.

Invert a gray tube ________ times.

a)

8-10

b)

2-3

c)

15-20

d)

20-25

64.

How many inches above the site should the tourniquet be tied?

a)

1-2 inches

b)

3-4 inches

c)

5-6 inches

d)

7-8 inches

65.

Which needle has the largest gauge?

a)

18 gauge

b)

20 gauge

c)

22 gauge

d)

25 gauge

66.

Crooked or winding veins are also called _______________.

a)

Tortuous veins

b)

Straight veins

c)

Collapsed veins

d)

Dilated veins

67.

The heart disorder characterized by fluid buildup in the lungs.

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Cardiomyopathy

68.

Another name for RBC's:

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Thrombocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

69.

How many times should a yellow top tube be inverted?

a)

5 times

b)

8 times

c)

10 times

d)

12 times

70.

The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is

a)

Timing

b)

Volume

c)

Sterility

d)

Temperature

71.

Sodium Citrate tubes have what color stoppers?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

72.

If someone is cyanotic their skin may appear:

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Green

73.

20%-40% of WBCs are composed of _____________.

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

74.

Where do blood cells originate?

a)

Heart

b)

Liver

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Spleen

75.

A urine C & S is ordered to detect

a)

Blood sugar levels

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

Protein levels

d)

Hormone levels

76.

To check for trace elements, a phlebotomist would use a _____ tube.

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Royal blue

77.

Which of the following is not considered Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Lab coat

d)

Stethoscope

78.

Another name for blood in the urine:

a)

Hematuria

b)

Hemoptysis

c)

Hemostasis

d)

Hematoma

79.

What special handling does an ABG require?

a)

Room temperature storage

b)

Immediate freezing

c)

Kept on ice

d)

Exposure to light

80.

What is the primary reason for inverting anticoagulant tubes after collection?

a)

To mix the blood with the anticoagulant

b)

To prevent clotting

c)

To increase temperature

d)

To separate plasma

81.

The breakdown and removal of a clot in the hemostasis process is ___________.

a)

Fibrinolysis

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Coagulation

d)

Agglutination

82.

Which test must be performed on whole blood?

a)

Serum glucose test

b)

Complete blood count

c)

Urinalysis

d)

Lipid panel

83.

Fluid aspirated from the peritoneal cavity is called ___________.

a)

Peritoneal fluid

b)

Pleural fluid

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Cerebrospinal fluid

84.

What is the correct sequence for putting on Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) to ensure maximum safety and effectiveness?

a)

Gloves, gown, mask, goggles

b)

Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

c)

Mask, gloves, gown, goggles

d)

Goggles, mask, gloves, gown

85.

The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is:

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

c)

Contraction

d)

Ejection

86.

Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of which of the following on RBCs?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Antigens

c)

Enzymes

d)

Hormones

87.

What special handling does a cold agglutinin test require?

a)

Keep at room temperature

b)

Keep warm

c)

Keep refrigerated

d)

Keep frozen

88.

According to CLSI, which tube is filled last when using a syringe?

a)

Light blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Lavender

89.

There is a 9 to 1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a light blue tube.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Using a butterfly may be necessary if the vein collapses with the evacuated tube system.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

If a patient refuses treatment you should:

a)

Force the treatment

b)

Respect their decision

c)

Ignore their refusal

d)

Call security

92.

Which would be considered a post-analytical error?

a)

Incorrect patient identification

b)

Delayed specimen processing

c)

Wrong test ordered

d)

Incorrect sample collection

93.

A drug known to interfere with urine tests should be discontinued how many hours prior to the test?

a)

24-48 hours

b)

48-72 hours

c)

72-96 hours

d)

96-120 hours

94.

Which test requires a 24-hour urine specimen?

a)

Glucose tolerance test

b)

Creatinine clearance test

c)

Complete blood count

d)

Lipid profile

95.

An example of a nosocomial infection is:

a)

Common cold

b)

Influenza

c)

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

d)

Chickenpox

96.

When someone is in shock, you should:

a)

Keep them warm

b)

Keep them cool

c)

Give them water

d)

Elevate their legs

97.

Which is NOT a reason the tourniquet is used?

a)

To stop bleeding

b)

To make veins more visible

c)

To slow blood flow

d)

To prevent blood from clotting

98.

Contact, droplet, and airborne are types of:

a)

Infections

b)

Transmission-based precautions

c)

Vaccinations

d)

Antibiotics

99.

Failing to provide reasonable standards of care, causing someone to suffer an injury is known as:

a)

Negligence

b)

Malpractice

c)

Battery

d)

Assault