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Medical Terminology Quiz

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does "inspection" mean?

a)

Palpating the body

b)

Careful observation or visual examination

c)

Listening to the heart and lungs

d)

Taking the pulse

2.

What does "palpation" mean?

a)

Measuring blood pressure with a device

b)

Examining by touch or feeling with the hands

c)

Tapping the abdomen

d)

Performing MRI

3.

What does "evaluate" mean?

a)

To assess or judge

b)

To measure

c)

To record

d)

To classify

4.

What does "observations" mean in a medical context?

a)

Final conclusion

b)

Treatment

c)

Monitoring or noting patient's condition

d)

Quick diagnosis

5.

Doctors always check the patient's __________ at the beginning of the examination.

a)

skin color

b)

vital signs

6.

The nurse counted the patient's __________ by placing two fingers on the wrist.

a)

blood pressure

b)

pulse

7.

The physician used a stethoscope for __________ of the lungs.

a)

percussion

b)

auscultation

8.

The doctor performed __________ by tapping the abdomen to assess the underlying organs.

a)

palpation

b)

percussion

9.

The word "flu" refers to:

a)

A bacterial infection

b)

Influenza, a contagious viral illness

c)

Food allergy

d)

Sore throat from speaking loudly

10.

"Symptoms" are:

a)

Medicines taken to cure a disease

b)

Signs or indications of illness

c)

Activities to stay healthy

d)

The doctor's instructions

11.

The word "throbs" in "a headache that throbs" means:

a)

Sharp, rhythmic pain

b)

A mild discomfort

c)

A burning feeling

d)

A tickling sensation

12.

"Coughing" means:

a)

Producing air suddenly from the lungs with a sharp sound

b)

Having a blocked nose

c)

Feeling muscle pain

d)

Breathing heavily

13.

A nurse collects important details about a patient's illness and background. This information is called:

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Data

14.

The patient tells the doctor: "I have chest pain when I breathe." This report is the patient's:

a)

Complaint

b)

Symptom

c)

Procedure

d)

History

15.

The doctor asks: "Do you have a __________ of allergies or asthma?"

a)

Current illness

b)

History

16.

A patient suddenly begins to feel stomach pain. The first appearance of symptoms is called:

a)

Onset

b)

Cause

c)

Allergy

d)

Procedure

17.

Nurse records details about the patient's daily habits such as diet, sleep, and physical activity. This type of information is part of the patient's:

a)

Complaint

b)

Social history

18.

A doctor asks if the patient had heart disease 15 years ago. This belongs to the patient's:

a)

Current condition

b)

Past medical history

19.

A patient feels sick now, but the doctor also needs to know problems from years before. This is part of the:

a)

Current condition

b)

Past medical history

20.

The doctor asks: "Do you smoke, drink alcohol, or exercise regularly?" These details belong to:

a)

Family history

b)

Complaint

c)

Social history

21.

The patient says: "My mother and grandfather both had diabetes." This belongs to:

a)

Current condition

b)

Family medical history

22.

Before giving antibiotics, the doctor checks if the patient reacts badly to penicillin. This is checking:

a)

Side effects

b)

Allergies

23.

A surgeon prepares an operation for next week. The medical action planned is called a:

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Procedure

24.

The doctor asks the patient: "Do you smoke, drink alcohol, or exercise regularly?" This information belongs to the patient's:

a)

Family medical history

b)

Social history

25.

What does "flow of urine" mean?

a)

The speed of blood circulation

b)

The movement of urine through the urinary tract

26.

The organ that temporarily stores urine before it leaves the body is the __________.

a)

Kidney (filters blood)

b)

Bladder

27.

A patient cannot properly expel waste. This refers to:

a)

Excess body fat

b)

Substances eliminated from the body like urine or feces

28.

In urinalysis, casts are:

a)

Hard stones lodged in the kidneys

b)

Tiny cylindrical structures formed in urine

29.

The urinary system consists of kidneys, ureters, bladder, and (a)   .

30.

A doctor says: "The obstruction is in the urethra." This means the blockage is in:

a)

The sac that stores urine (bladder)

b)

The tube that carries urine out of the body

31.

Kidney stones are:

a)

Swollen tissues in the kidney

b)

Hard deposits of minerals and salts formed inside the kidneys

32.

The doctor advised the patient to drink water to help __________ the stones.

4 lines
33.

After treatment, the same disease returns months later. This is called:

a)

Recovery

b)

Relapse

34.

After treatment, the same disease returns months later. This is called:

a)

Recovery

b)

Relapse / Recurrence

c)

Side effect

d)

Resistance

35.

In medical practice, a follow-up is:

a)

A second visit to monitor progress after treatment

b)

A brand-new diagnosis for a different illness

c)

A surgical intervention

d)

A record of the first symptoms

36.

The reproductive system is:

a)

The body system responsible for digestion

b)

The system that allows production of offspring

c)

The system that controls breathing

d)

The immune system that fights infections

37.

The term genitalia refers to __________.

4 lines
38.

The doctor explains: "The gonads are the organs that produce sex cells." Which are the gonads?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Testes and ovaries

c)

Kidneys and bladder

d)

Stomach and liver

39.

The testes are responsible for producing:

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Sperm

c)

Hormones only

d)

Urine

40.

The ovaries are female organs that produce __________.

a)

Sperm

b)

Egg cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Urine

41.

When a sperm cell meets an egg cell during intercourse, what can occur?

a)

Fertilization

b)

Digestion

c)

Menstruation

d)

Infection

42.

A person described as sexually active is someone who:

a)

Engages in regular exercise

b)

Has had sexual intercourse

c)

Is able to reproduce but never has

d)

Is going through puberty

43.

Birth control is mainly used to __________.

a)

Improve digestion

b)

Prevent pregnancy

c)

Cure infertility

d)

Strengthen muscles

44.

Condoms and pills are examples of __________.

a)

Fertility treatments

b)

Contraceptive methods

c)

Surgical procedures

d)

Hormonal disorders

45.

Infertility is best defined as:

a)

Difficulty or inability to conceive a child

b)

The period after childbirth

c)

A method of contraception

d)

A sexually transmitted infection

46.

What are glands?

a)

Organs that secrete hormones or other substances

b)

Organs that filter blood

c)

Organs that digest food

d)

Organs that pump blood

47.

(a)   are chemical messengers that regulate body functions such as growth, mood, and metabolism.

48.

The thyroid gland __________ hormones into the blood.

a)

Produces

b)

Stores

c)

Absorbs

d)

Secretes

49.

The hypothalamus is:

a)

A type of protein

b)

A part of the brain that regulates body functions

c)

A gland near the kidney

d)

A hormone secreted by the thyroid

50.

The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, controls:

a)

Breathing and heartbeat

b)

Vision and hearing

c)

Growth, blood pressure, and sexual functions

d)

Digestion and nutrient absorption

51.

The thyroid gland, in the neck, controls how quickly the body uses __________.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Vitamins

c)

Minerals

d)

Energy

52.

The pineal body is located:

a)

In the center of the brain

b)

In the liver

c)

In the kidney

d)

In the stomach

53.

The pineal gland produces __________, which regulates sleep cycles.

a)

Estrogen

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Melatonin

54.

The adrenal glands, above the kidneys, produce __________.

a)

Testosterone

b)

Dopamine

c)

Melatonin

d)

Adrenaline

55.

A student feels stressed before an exam. His body releases adrenaline, which helps him:

a)

Sleep better

b)

Store fat for later

c)

Respond quickly to stress

d)

Produce more red blood cells

56.

Which statement best describes the nervous system?

a)

It coordinates voluntary and involuntary actions by transmitting signals.

b)

It circulates oxygen and nutrients through the body.

c)

It stores minerals and produces red blood cells.

d)

It breaks down food into chemical energy.

57.

Neurons are different from nerves because:

a)

Neurons are single nerve cells, while nerves are bundles of neurons.

b)

Neurons are only in the brain, while nerves are only in the spinal cord.

c)

Neurons are voluntary, while nerves are involuntary.

d)

Neurons carry hormones, while nerves carry blood.

58.

A boxer receives a punch that temporarily stuns his brain. What is most likely affected?

a)

The control of heart pumping

b)

Processing and coordination of body functions

c)

The formation of red blood cells

d)

The circulation of hormones

59.

Neural networks are important because they:

a)

Connect muscles to bones

b)

Process massive amounts of information through interconnected neurons

c)

Pump blood from the heart to the brain

d)

Deliver oxygen to neurons

60.

Which type of neuron sends information from the sense organs (like eyes or ears) to the brain?

a)

Motor neurons

b)

Reflex neurons

c)

Sensory neurons

d)

Spinal neurons

61.

A child touches a hot pot and pulls the hand away before thinking. This action is an example of:

a)

Reflex

b)

Voluntary response

c)

Motor neuron decision

d)

Conscious brain signal

62.

Which neurons directly cause muscles to contract and create movement?

a)

Sensory neurons

b)

Motor neurons

c)

Reflex neurons

d)

Central neurons

63.

The central nervous system is made up of the brain and the __________.

a)

Nerves

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Vertebrae

d)

Reflex arcs

64.

Damage to the nerves in a patient's leg would most likely cause:

a)

Broken vertebrae

b)

Loss of signal transmission between brain/spinal cord and leg

c)

Complete brain shutdown

d)

Production of excess hormones

65.

would most likely cause:

a)

Broken vertebrae

b)

Loss of signal transmission between brain/spinal cord and leg

c)

Complete brain shutdown

d)

Production of excess hormones

66.

The vertebrae differ from the spinal cord because:

a)

Vertebrae are bones that protect the spinal cord

b)

Vertebrae transmit electrical signals, spinal cord does not

c)

Vertebrae are nerve bundles inside the brain

d)

Vertebrae control reflex actions directly

67.

The epidermis is:

a)

The outermost layer of skin

b)

The deepest layer storing fat

c)

The layer containing blood vessels and nerves

d)

The muscle layer under the skin

68.

The dermis is the layer that lies __________.

a)

Above the epidermis

b)

Beneath the epidermis

c)

Below the hypodermis

d)

Between bone and muscle

69.

A doctor explains: "This patient's deepest skin layer is injured." Which layer is affected?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Subcutaneous tissue only

70.

Subcutaneous fat mainly functions to:

a)

Store energy and insulate the body

b)

Produce hormones

c)

Form red blood cells

d)

Transport oxygen

71.

A bruise (black-and-blue mark) after hitting a table is a:

a)

Abrasion

b)

Contusion

c)

Acne

d)

Pimple

72.

An abrasion usually does not bleed because it only damages the __________.

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Muscle

73.

Acne is caused by:

a)

Lack of vitamins

b)

Oils blocking pores and bacteria growth

c)

Direct trauma to the skin

d)

Sunlight exposure

74.

Clogged __________ often lead to pimples and acne.

a)

Veins

b)

Pores

c)

Muscles

d)

Nerves

75.

Small red bumps on the skin caused by trapped oil and bacteria are called __________.

a)

Contusions

b)

Pimples

c)

Abrations

d)

Bruises

76.

In dermatology, imperfections of the skin refer to:

a)

Natural skin features only

b)

Blemishes such as scars, acne, or discolorations

c)

The healthy glow of the skin

d)

Subcutaneous fat deposits

77.

The skeleton provides:

a)

Energy for muscles

b)

The body's basic framework and support

c)

Hormones for growth

d)

Blood circulation

78.

The bone marrow is important because it:

a)

Stores calcium

b)

Produces blood cells and supports the immune system

c)

Repairs broken bones instantly

d)

Connects muscles to bones

79.

A patient has a crack in the bone but not a complete break. This is a:

a)

Displaced fracture

b)

Stress fracture

c)

Compound fracture

d)

Comminuted fracture

80.

A displaced fracture means:

a)

The bone stays aligned

b)

The bone shifts out of its normal position

c)

The bone bends but does not break

d)

The bone splits into tiny pieces

81.

A fracture where the bone pierces the skin is called a __________ fracture.

a)

Compound

b)

Stress

c)

Greenstick

d)

Impacted

82.

Two ends of a broken bone are jammed into each other. This is a(n):

a)

Impacted fracture

b)

Comminuted fracture

c)

Greenstick fracture

d)

Displaced fracture

83.

A comminuted fracture refers to a bone that:

a)

Cracks only on one side

b)

Breaks into several small pieces

c)

Shifts slightly out of place

d)

Pierces the skin

84.

A child falls and the soft bone bends without fully breaking. This is most likely a:

a)

Greenstick fracture

b)

Stress fracture

c)

Compound fracture

d)

Displaced fracture

85.

Before a displaced fracture can heal, __________ is usually required.

a)

Repositioning

b)

Bandaging only

c)

Vitamin supplements

d)

Immediate exercise

86.

The general medical term fracture means:

a)

Swelling of the muscles

b)

A break or crack in a bone

c)

Bruising of the skin

d)

Weakening of joints

87.

A transfusion is:

a)

The process of filtering blood

b)

The transfer of blood from one person to another

c)

The production of blood cells in bone marrow

d)

The removal of plasma from blood

88.

__________ are blood cells that carry oxygen and give blood its red color.

a)

Platelets

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Plasma

89.

Why is blood from Type O donors always in demand?

a)

It cannot be used in transfusions

b)

It is compatible with all other blood types

c)

It only helps people with rare diseases

d)

It produces more plasma

90.

If blood types are compatible, it means:

a)

They always form clots together

b)

They can be safely transfused without reaction

c)

They create new blood cells

d)

They cannot mix under any condition

91.

People with Type O blood are called __________ because their blood can be given to anyone.

a)

Universal donors

b)

Compatible recipients

c)

Universal recipients

d)

Plasma donors

92.

In a blood test, doctors separate the yellowish fluid that makes up most of blood. This fluid is:

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Antibodies

93.

Blood clots are:

a)

Red blood cells that carry oxygen

b)

Solid masses formed when blood thickens and sticks together

c)

Plasma proteins in liquid form

d)

White blood cells fighting infection

94.

__________ are tiny blood components that help stop bleeding by forming clots.

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets

c)

Antibodies

d)

Red blood cells

95.

Blood donors are screened for infectious diseases such as:

a)

Diabetes and cancer

b)

Hepatitis and HIV

c)

Obesity and asthma

d)

High blood pressure

96.

HIV is a virus that:

a)

Strengthens the immune system

b)

Causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

c)

Produces red blood cells

d)

Prevents blood clotting

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