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Operating Systems Quiz

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does an operating system (OS) utilize to provide services?

a)

Hardware resources of one or more processors

b)

Application programs

c)

Network protocols

2.

What is one of the main functions of an operating system?

a)

It manages secondary memory and I/O devices

b)

It writes user applications

c)

It designs hardware components

3.

What does an operating system control?

a)

Hardware and coordinates its use among programs

b)

Only user applications

c)

The internet connection

4.

What components are included in an operating system?

a)

Kernel, administration tools, and system libraries

b)

Browser, compiler, and word processor

c)

CPU, memory, and monitor

5.

What are the objectives of an operating system?

a)

Makes a computer convenient to use; allows efficient utilization of resources; supports development and testing

b)

To increase electricity usage; make computers slower

c)

To build only networking applications

6.

How does an operating system mask hardware details?

a)

By providing a convenient interface for users

b)

By rewriting hardware instructions

c)

By hiding hardware physically

7.

What services does an operating system provide for program development?

a)

Utility programs like editors/debuggers and application development tools

b)

Only entertainment software

c)

Hardware repair services

8.

What does the OS handle during program execution?

a)

Loading data into memory and scheduling

b)

Writing new processors

c)

Creating internet connections

9.

How does the OS provide access to I/O devices?

a)

By providing a uniform interface for operations

b)

By letting hardware run without control

c)

By disabling unused devices

10.

What does the OS do to control access to files?

a)

Provides protection mechanisms for file access

b)

Deletes files automatically

c)

Encrypts all files permanently

11.

How does the OS detect errors?

a)

By identifying device failures and software errors

b)

By manually asking users

c)

By reformatting the system

12.

What is the purpose of performance parameter monitoring in an OS?

a)

To collect usage statistics and improve performance

b)

To slow down system speed

c)

To delete unnecessary files

13.

What does the Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) define?

a)

The collection of machine language instructions

b)

The list of software licenses

c)

The design of user interfaces

14.

What is the Application Binary Interface (ABI) used for?

a)

Defining binary portability across programs

b)

Encrypting system files

c)

Printing application outputs

15.

What does the Application Program Interface (API) allow?

a)

Access to hardware resources and services

b)

Creation of new processors

c)

Direct editing of kernel memory

16.

How does the OS function as a resource manager?

a)

By allocating processor time and resources

b)

By manufacturing new chips

c)

By removing unused files

17.

Why do operating systems evolve over time?

a)

Hardware upgrades, new services, and fixing faults

b)

To reduce compatibility

c)

To increase bugs intentionally

18.

What are the main problems of serial processing?

a)

Scheduling issues and set-up time for program execution

b)

Too many GUIs

c)

Lack of internet access

19.

What was developed to improve processor utilization in the mid-1950s?

a)

Batch operating systems

b)

Cloud systems

c)

Web browsers

20.

What is the role of the monitor in batch processing?

a)

To provide automatic job sequencing

b)

To create user interfaces

c)

To generate computer viruses

21.

How does a multi-programmed batch system differ from a single-programmed system?

a)

It keeps several jobs in main memory

b)

It runs only one job at a time

c)

It removes memory management

22.

What is the function of a time-sharing system?

a)

Allows multiple users to access the system simultaneously

b)

Deletes processes after execution

c)

Restricts computer use to one person only

23.

What happens if there are n users in a time-sharing system?

a)

Each user gets 1/n of compute capacity

b)

Each user gets 100% compute capacity

c)

Only one user can access at a time

24.

What is a process in operating systems?

a)

A program in execution

b)

A hardware device

c)

A file saved on disk

25.

What was the first time-sharing operating system developed?

a)

Compatible Time-sharing System (CTSS)

b)

MS-DOS

c)

Linux

26.

What is an instance of a program running on a computer called?

a)

A process

b)

A thread

c)

A file

27.

What are the major theoretical advances in operating systems?

a)

Processes, memory management, protection & security, scheduling/resource management

b)

Only GUI design

c)

Internet protocols

28.

How can a process be characterized?

a)

By its identifier, state, and resources

b)

By its hardware type only

c)

By its GUI

29.

What was the initial name used by Microsoft for its operating environment?

a)

Windows

b)

MS-GUI

c)

MicroOS

30.

What are the two essential elements of a process?

a)

Program code and associated data

b)

Only hardware

c)

Only user input

31.

What is the unique identifier for each process called?

a)

Identifier

b)

Address bus

c)

Kernel number

32.

How does Windows separate core OS software from application software?

a)

By running core software in kernel-mode

b)

By combining them into one program

c)

By storing them in the same folder

33.

What does the process state indicate?

a)

The current activity of a process

b)

The size of the hard drive

c)

The number of users

34.

What is the architecture of Windows OS described as?

a)

Highly modular architecture

b)

Monolithic with no separation

c)

Single-tasking only

35.

What are the possible states of a process?

a)

New, Ready, Running, Waiting, Terminated

b)

Sleep, Wake, Boot, Crash

c)

On, Off, Restart

36.

What are the functions of the Windows Executive?

a)

I/O manager, cache manager, object manager, plug-and-play, power manager, security monitor, virtual memory, process/thread manager, configuration manager

b)

Web browser, calculator, paint app

c)

Hardware drivers only

37.

What does the 'Ready' state mean?

a)

The process is waiting to be assigned to a processor

b)

The process has finished execution

c)

The process is permanently blocked

38.

What does the I/O manager in Windows Executive do?

a)

Provides access framework for I/O devices

b)

Designs CPU chips

c)

Creates antivirus programs

39.

What does the 'Running' state indicate?

a)

The instructions are being executed

b)

The process is stored on disk

c)

The process is deleted

40.

What is the role of the cache manager in Windows OS?

a)

Improves performance of file-based I/O

b)

Deletes old files

c)

Cleans viruses

41.

What happens in the 'Waiting' state?

a)

The process is waiting for a particular event

b)

The process is executing instructions

c)

The process is deleted from memory

42.

What does the object manager in Windows Executive manage?

a)

Windows Executive objects like processes and threads

b)

Only internet connections

c)

User-created files

43.

What does the 'Terminated' state signify?

a)

The process has finished execution

b)

The process is ready for execution

c)

The process is in memory

44.

What is the priority of a process?

a)

Its priority level relative to others

b)

Its memory size

c)

Its network speed

45.

What does the plug-and-play manager do?

a)

Loads drivers for specific devices

b)

Designs processors

c)

Deletes unused devices

46.

What does the program counter indicate?

a)

The address of the next instruction to execute

b)

The number of CPUs in the system

c)

The total storage left

47.

What is the function of the power manager in Windows OS?

a)

Coordinates power consumption among devices

b)

Removes hardware from the system

c)

Cleans unused drivers

48.

What does the security reference monitor enforce?

a)

Access validation and audit-generation rules

b)

Creation of viruses

c)

Removal of all passwords

49.

What is the purpose of the memory pointer?

a)

It contains pointers to program codes and data

b)

It displays memory temperature

c)

It stores hardware addresses only

50.

What does the virtual memory manager manage?

a)

Virtual addresses, physical memory, and paging files

b)

Internet history

c)

Device drivers only

51.

What is context data in a process?

a)

Data in a processor's registers during execution

b)

Data stored on a flash drive

c)

Data from the internet

52.

What does I/O status information include?

a)

Information about input/output status of a process

b)

Number of users in the system

c)

Amount of memory left

53.

What does the process/thread manager do?

a)

Creates, manages, and deletes processes and threads

b)

Builds GUIs

c)

Controls network settings

54.

What is the role of the configuration manager in Windows OS?

a)

Manages the system registry for settings

b)

Deletes user files

c)

Creates application shortcuts

55.

What is accounting information in a process?

a)

Tracking info like processor time and limits

b)

Usernames and passwords

c)

Storage capacity

56.

What is a process control block?

a)

A data structure containing process information

b)

A hardware chip

c)

A file system driver

57.

Why is the process control block important?

a)

It allows interruption and resumption of processes

b)

It increases system speed only

c)

It stores files permanently

58.

What does the two-state process model consist of?

a)

Running state and not running state

b)

Sleep and wake states

c)

Open and closed states

59.

What happens in the not running state?

a)

The process waits for an opportunity to execute

b)

The process is deleted permanently

c)

The process is already running

60.

What is the role of the plug-and-play manager?

a)

Determines and loads required drivers

b)

Deletes user files automatically

c)

Designs new processors

61.

How does the dispatcher select a process to run?

a)

It scans for a non-blocked process in the queue

b)

It always runs the first process only

c)

It randomly chooses a process

62.

How does the power manager function in an operating system?

a)

Coordinates power consumption and reduces idle power

b)

Deletes unused files

c)

Increases CPU temperature

63.

What is the five-state process model?

a)

A model with New, Ready, Running, Blocked, Exit states

b)

A model with only On and Off states

c)

A model with Boot, Crash, Restart

64.

What is the purpose of the virtual memory manager?

a)

Manages virtual addresses and physical memory

b)

Deletes corrupted files

c)

Controls user logins

65.

What does the Blocked state mean?

a)

A process cannot execute until an event occurs

b)

The process is completed

c)

The process is already running

66.

What is the Exit state in a process model?

a)

A process released from executable processes

b)

A process waiting to run

c)

A process that never ends

67.

What are the possible state transitions in a five-state model?

a)

New to Ready, Running to Exit, Blocked to Ready

b)

Boot to Crash, Crash to Restart

c)

Shutdown to Restart

68.

What is the function of the configuration manager?

a)

Manages the system registry for settings

b)

Deletes unused hardware

c)

Cleans internet history

69.

What does the Advanced Local Procedure Call (ALPC) facility implement?

a)

Efficient cross-process call mechanism

b)

Remote internet control

c)

File encryption

70.

What is a suspended process?

a)

A process not immediately available for execution

b)

A deleted program

c)

A hardware fault

71.

What is the role of the Windows Kernel?

a)

Controls execution of processors and manages threads

b)

Creates GUIs for users

c)

Stores documents

72.

Who can place a process in a suspended state?

a)

The process itself, a parent process, or the OS

b)

Only the end user

c)

Only the hardware

73.

What does the hardware abstraction layer (HAL) do?

a)

Isolates OS from hardware variances

b)

Creates drivers automatically

c)

Deletes unused memory

74.

What does an operating system control?

a)

All events within a computer system

b)

Only mouse and keyboard

c)

Only internet connectivity

75.

What are device drivers in the Windows OS?

a)

Dynamic libraries extending Windows Executive functionality

b)

Antivirus software

c)

Hardware chips

76.

What does the OS allocate to different processes?

a)

Resources such as processor and memory

b)

Usernames and passwords

c)

External devices

77.

What does the windowing and graphing system implement?

a)

Graphical user interface (GUI)

b)

Network protocols

c)

Hardware bus design

78.

What types of tables does an OS maintain?

a)

Memory, I/O, File, and Process tables

b)

Spreadsheet tables

c)

Music playlists

79.

What do memory tables track?

a)

Main and secondary memory allocations

b)

Usernames and passwords

c)

Network IP addresses

80.

What are the types of user-mode processes in Windows?

a)

Special system processes, service processes, environment subsystems, user applications

b)

Antivirus programs only

c)

Hardware-only modules

81.

Where was the classic UNIX system developed?

a)

Bell Labs

b)

MIT

c)

Microsoft

82.

What do I/O tables manage?

a)

Input and output devices and channels

b)

Video games

c)

Cloud applications

83.

What do file tables hold information about?

a)

Existence of files and their attributes

b)

CPU registers

c)

Internet speed

84.

What was the original name of the classic UNIX system?

a)

Uniplexed Information and Computing Service (UNICS)

b)

LinOS

c)

MultiSoft

85.

What is included in process location?

a)

A program and its corresponding data locations

b)

Internet IP addresses

c)

Device drivers

86.

What are the three levels of classic UNIX architecture?

a)

User level, hardware level, system kernel

b)

BIOS, CPU, RAM

c)

GUI, apps, hardware

87.

What is a process control block also known as?

a)

Process image

b)

Hardware unit

c)

Registry file

88.

What does the shell in classic UNIX support?

a)

System calls from applications and interface software

b)

Internet browsing

c)

Hardware repair

89.

What does the OS need to know for process execution?

a)

The location of each process on the disk

b)

The battery level

c)

The network speed

90.

How does the classic UNIX system handle concurrent access?

a)

It lacks protection for data structures

b)

It encrypts all data

c)

It blocks multiple users

91.

What are the three categories of information in a process control block?

a)

Process identification, processor state, control information

b)

GUI info, internet speed, user photos

c)

File name, file type, file size

92.

What led to the development of the modern UNIX system?

a)

Need for unifying innovations and modern design features

b)

Need for better video games

c)

Creation of Windows OS

93.

What does process identification involve?

a)

Unique numeric identifiers for processes

b)

Usernames and passwords

c)

File types

94.

What role did the Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) play in UNIX?

a)

Influenced UNIX OS design theory and products

b)

Created only games

c)

Made CPUs

95.

What is processor state information?

a)

Information in processor registers during execution

b)

Disk space available

c)

Internet connections

96.

What are the features of System V Release 4 (SVR4)?

a)

Real-time processing, scheduling classes, dynamic structures, virtual memory, preemptive kernel

b)

Only GUI design

c)

Antivirus protection

97.

What does process control information contain?

a)

Data structure, resource ownership, and privileges

b)

Battery info

c)

Display settings

98.

Who developed the Linux operating system?

a)

Linus Torvalds

b)

Bill Gates

c)

Steve Jobs

99.

Why is the process control block crucial?

a)

It contains all necessary information about a process

b)

It cleans disk space

c)

It manages internet speed

100.

What is a key characteristic of Linux as an operating system?

a)

Free open-source and highly modular

b)

Only for paid users

c)

Works only on phones

101.

What are the two modes of execution in processors?

a)

User mode and kernel mode

b)

Boot and shutdown mode

c)

Run and stop mode

102.

What are loadable modules in Linux?

a)

Independent blocks that can be loaded/unloaded

b)

Games preinstalled in OS

c)

Hardware units

103.

What is user mode?

a)

Less-privileged mode for user programs

b)

Full-access hardware mode

c)

Kernel-only execution

104.

What are the two vital characteristics of Linux loadable modules?

a)

Dynamic linking and stackable modules

b)

Internet access and GUI

c)

Encryption and deletion

105.

What is kernel mode?

a)

More-privileged mode with complete control

b)

Restricted mode for apps

c)

Internet-only mode

106.

What are the kernel components of the Linux OS?

a)

Signals, system calls, processes, scheduler, memory, file systems, network protocols, drivers, interrupts

b)

GUI, browser, games

c)

CPU, RAM, monitor

107.

Why are certain instructions restricted to kernel mode?

a)

To protect the OS from user program interference

b)

To increase speed

c)

To delete old files

108.

What is the Android operating system based on?

a)

Linux

b)

Windows

c)

DOS

109.

What happens during process creation?

a)

The OS builds a data structure for the process

b)

The system deletes unused files

c)

The computer restarts

110.

What does the Android OS rely on its Linux-based kernel for?

a)

Core system services like security and memory management

b)

Gaming performance only

c)

GUI only

111.

What is the first step in process creation?

a)

Assign a unique process identifier

b)

Allocate internet bandwidth

c)

Delete user files

112.

Who initiated the development of the Android OS?

a)

Android, Inc.

b)

Microsoft

c)

Apple

113.

What does process switching involve?

a)

Interrupts or traps to regain control

b)

Internet connection reset

c)

Hardware failure