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Worksheets

high S Biology 2025

Total questions: 496

Worksheet time: 10hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the graph, at which labeled point (X, Y, or Z) is the number of rings on the tail the highest?

a)

Y

b)

X

c)

Z

d)

W

2.

What does th

a)

y

b)

z

c)

x

d)

w

3.

How many feet did the water level reach on week 7

a)

25 feet

b)

20 feet

c)

30 feet

d)

15 feet

4.

Which of the following would be a reasonable claim for this graph?

a)

As the elevation increases, the temperature decreases.

b)

As the elevation increases, the temperature increases.

c)

As the elevation increases, the temperature is unaffected.

d)

The air is thinner at higher elevations due to the decreased force of gravity so it cannot absorb as much heat and the temp is lower.

5.

The diagram shows important structures found in a cell. Two structures, W and Z, are labeled. Which statement BEST describes Structure W and Structure Z?

a)

Structure W is a gene and Structure Z is a chromosome.

b)

Structure W is a chromosome and Structure Z is a gene.

c)

Structure W is an amino acid and Structure Z is a nucleic acid.

d)

Structure W is a nucleic acid and Structure Z is an amino acid.

6.

Transcription is the process that takes place in the ​ (a)   . Translation takes place in the ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
nucleus
ribosome
7.

In the diagram, the process occurring in the nucleus of the cell is ----

a)

transcription, the decoding of DNA into a messenger RNA molecule

b)

translation, the decoding of DNA into a messenger RNA molecule

c)

translation, the production of proteins from messenger RNA

d)

transcription, the production of proteins from messenger RNA

8.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
9.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
10.
EXTRA AWESOME QUESTION: Which types of cells can begin the process of translation even before the mRNA has been completely transcribed?  
a)
Eukaryotes
b)
Prokaryotes
c)
Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes can
d)
No cells can can do this
11.

What is gene regulation?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

The formation of new genes within the DNA

c)

Uncontrolled cell growth with damaged DNA

d)

The expression of genes to in order to create cell types

12.

In which cellular location does mRNA processing occur in?

a)

In the cytoplasm

b)

On the ribosome

c)

In the nucleus

d)

Within the mitochondria

13.
mRNA --> Protein is what process?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
14.
DNA code is transferred to mRNA in the ____ through a process called ____.
a)
Cytoplasm, translation
b)
Nucleus, transcription
c)
Nucleus, translation
d)
Ribosome, transcription
15.

​ (a)   are made of ​ (b)   tightly wrapped around proteins called ​ (c)   forming a nucleosome. Chromosomes are only visible during ​ (d)   and are decondensed inside the ​ (e)   for most of the cell cycle.

Choose from the below words
Chromosomes
DNA
histones
cell replication
nucleus
16.

Tap on the DNA

17.
  1. In a DNA molecule, adenine (A) always pairs with (a)   , and guanine (G) always pairs with ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
thymine (A)
cytosine (c)
uracil (u)
18.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
19.

Which of the following is a base pair?

a)

Adenine - Cytosine

b)

Cytosine - Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose - Cytosine

d)

Cytosine - Guanine

20.

_____________ a very long molecule that has chemicals in a special order.

a)

A nucleus is

b)

Genes are

c)

DNA is

d)

Skin is

21.

Which cell types have DNA?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both Cell Types

22.

What do the dotted lines between the nitrogenous bases (A,T,C,G) represent in the image?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

23.

Where is the DNA found in a EUKARYOTE cell? 

a)

floating around in the cytoplasm 

b)

in the nucleus 

24.

The monomers of DNA are called

a)

monosaccharides

b)

nucleotides

c)

amino acids

d)

nitrogenous base

25.

Scientists have proposed theories to explain how eukaryotic cells became complex over time. The table compares two of the theories. Cell Complexity Theories Endosymbiotic Theory: - Claims some organelles evolved from symbiotic relationships with prokaryotic ancestors - Mainly applies to mitochondria and chloroplasts - Proposed by Margulis in 1967 Autogenous Theory: - Sees eukaryotes evolving directly from a prokaryote ancestor - Claims eukaryotic cells were created by infoldings of the plasma membrane - Mainly applies to the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and single membrane-bound organelles - Presented in 1967 by Klein and Cronquist Which conclusion is shared by BOTH theories to explain cell complexity?

a)

A. Membrane-bound organelles like the Golgi body are less complex than mitochondria.

b)

B. Cells became less complex by joining together with other cells.

c)

C. Mitochondria developed before chloroplasts in complex eukaryotic cells.

d)

D. Complex eukaryotic cells developed from simpler prokaryotic cells.

26.

Sort the following statements based on if the statement is talking about prokaryotes or eukaryotes

27.

Label the parts of the prokaryotic cell

28.

A table comparing the characteristics of four samples is shown. Click on the sample name that is most likely a prokaryote.

29.

Determine where the following organelles can be found (if the organelle can be found in more than one, place in the middle of the two columns).

30.
Question Image

See how much you remember! Match the following characteristics that belong to Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes, or BOTH!

a)

- No nucleus

- No membrane-bound organelles

- DNA in the cytoplasm

- Single Celled

1.

Prokaryote

b)

- Nucleus

- Membrane bound organelles

- DNA in the nucleus

- Single & Multi celled

2.

Eukaryote

c)

- Ribosomes

- DNA

- Cell Division

- Plasma Membrane

3.

Prokaryote and Eukaryote

31.

Pictured below is a typical bacterial cell. Select the cell parts that would be found in ALL cells.

32.

Label correctly.

33.

Identify the type of cell each column represents.

34.

The diagram represents a theory about cells.Which theory is represented in this diagram?

A) The theory that all living organisms are made of cells

B) The theory that all living organisms share the same basic genetic components

C) The theory that organisms function best when their internal conditions are maintained within narrow limits

D) The theory that complex cells evolved after primitive cells engulfed bacterial cells that continued functioning

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.

The diagram below shows a proposed theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, called endosymbiosis.

Which of the following explains why cells that contained mitochondria-like organelles had an evolutionary advantage?

a)

They were able to photosynthesize

b)

They had more DNA

c)

They were able to make more use of available energy

d)

They were immune to bacterial invasion.

36.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

37.

What theory describes the formation of eukaryotic cells

a)

endosymbiotic theory

b)

oxygen theory of combustion

c)

heliocentrism

d)

special relativity

38.

What theory explains the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria in eukaryotic cells.

a)

theory of natural selection

b)

cell theory

c)

endosymbiotic theory

d)

theory of evolution

39.

The endosymbiotic theory is a scientific explanation concerning the complexity of the cell. It is thee theory that the mitochondria and the chloroplasts contained within modern animal and plant cells were once free living bacteria that were engulfed by another bacterial cell leading to the ______ cell.

a)

Eukaryotic

b)

Prokaryotic

40.

The endosymbiotic theory holds that organelles within the cells of eukaryotes such as mitochondria and chloroplasts, had descended from independent bacteria that came to live symbiotically within other cells.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.

a)

Nucleus and cell membrane

b)

Chloroplast and mitochondria

c)

Mitochondria and nucleus

d)

Cell wall and chloroplast

42.
____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.
a)
Rough ER & Smooth ER
b)
Mitochondria & Flagellum
c)
Chloroplast & Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast and Golgi apparatus
43.

How does the biodiversity of frog species MOST LIKELY affect the stability of the ecosystem?

a)

By making the ecosystem more vulnerable to population losses

b)

By increasing the ecosystem’s ability to stay healthy when conditions change

c)

By reducing the ability of individual organisms to adapt to changing conditions

d)

By making individual organisms less vulnerable to competition from invasive species

44.

Which statement BEST supports the answer to Part A?

a)

When species are numerous, an alternative species may be able to fill the role of a species lost as a result of changing conditions.

b)

When species have similar roles in an ecosystem, the loss of a single species can severely damage the ecosystem.

c)

When species are well adapted to conditions in an ecosystem, a change in those conditions can cause multiple extinctions.

45.
What term best describes all the plants and animals in this image?
a)
Species
b)
Population
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Community
46.

Whish habitat has the highest biodiversity?

a)

Area A

b)

Area B

c)

Area C

d)

Area D

47.

How do biodiversity and stability work together?

a)

The lower the biodiversity the greater the stability of an ecosystem.

b)

The higher the biodiversity, the less stable the ecosystem

c)

The higher the biodiversity, the greater the stability of the ecosystem.

d)

Biodiversity has nothing to do with ecosystem stability.

48.

Based on this information, which ecosystem is likely to be the most stable?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

When a splinter pierces the skin, the body responds with an inflammatory reaction. A table describing the response to the injury is shown. Injury with a Splinter 1. The inflammatory response is triggered when damaged or infected cells release chemical alarm signals. 2. The temperature around the injury increases, preventing bacterial growth. 3. The chemical alarm signals white blood cells to move to the site of injury. White blood cells attack pathogens and consume dead and infected cells. 4. The chemical alarm stimulates additional blood flow and fluids to the injury, resulting in swelling. Which set of statements describes how body systems interact after an injury?

a)

A. The immune system alerts the integumentary system that the skin has been broken. The muscular system increases the blood flow to the area, which causes swelling.

b)

B. The integumentary system alerts the body that the skin has been broken. The immune system sends white blood cells to attack pathogens that enter the body.

c)

C. The nervous system alerts the capillaries to increase the temperature at the site of the injury. The immune system releases water into the injured area to cool the area after the increase in temperature.

d)

D. The immune system increases the temperature of the area to reduce bacterial growth. The circulatory system increases blood flow to cleanse the injury.

50.

What is your body's 2nd line of defense? (a)  

Choose from the below words

white blood cells

red blood cells

skin

51.
What system protects the body from disease?
a)
Lymphatic System
b)
Endocrine System
c)
Immune System
d)
Urinary System
52.

White blood cells...

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Carry nutrients to cells

c)

Carry carbon dioxide to the lungs

d)

Help fight infection

53.
What is the main purpose of the immune system?
a)
Support the body through bones and muscles
b)
Get rid of waste from the body
c)
Protect the body from pathogens
d)
Move blood through the body
54.
Mary feels sick for a week and decides to go to the doctor. The doctor tells her that she has a viral infection and does not prescribe antibiotics to treat her illness. Within a couple of days Mary is feeling better. Which statement best describes Mary's path to recovery?
a)
Mary was already feeling better and didn't need to go to the doctor's office.
b)
Antibiotics produced by Mary's body stimulated her immune system to produce enough antibodies against the virus and destroy the viral infection.
c)
The nonspecific immune response destroyed the virus through inflammation two weeks after Mary went to the doctor's office
d)
The specific immune response produced antibodies that rid her body of the viral infection after it learned the properties of the viral molecule.
55.
If a pathogen penetrates the skin barrier, which immune response would occur first?
a)
Mucus would be produced to prevent further infection.
b)
Antibodies would develop to make a vaccine.
c)
The temperature would increase at the infection site.
d)
Platelets would increase the flow of blood from the wound.
56.

What is the body's reaction to an injury that helps increase blood flow and bring extra fluid to the injured tissue?

a)

Bruising

b)

Swelling

c)

Bleeding

d)

Numbness

57.
What is the first barrier against disease?
a)
White blood cells
b)
Red blood cells
c)
the skin
d)
leucocytes 
58.
 Liz notices that shortly after cutting her arm accidentally the area around the cut is turning red and feeling hot.  Which immune system defense is Liz experiencing?  
a)
inflammation
b)
white blood cell clotting
c)
skin
d)
fever
59.

Peromyscus polionotus is a species of mouse found in inland fields as well as on the Gulf and Atlantic coasts of the southeastern United States. Coastal populations of this species have lighter fur than inland populations, and coastal populations blend into a beach environment more easily than the field mice do. Scientists investigated changes in two genes, Agouti and Mc1r, that are involved in fur coloration in this species. The table shows data from this investigation. Location | Phenotype | Agouti Gene | Mc1r Gene Gulf coast | Lighter coat color | Mutated | No mutation Atlantic coast | Lighter coat color | No mutation | Mutated Inland | Darker coat color | No mutation | No mutation Source: Steiner et al., Molecular Biology and Evolution, 2009 Which evidence would BEST support the claim that the phenotypes of these populations of mice are a result of natural selection?

a)

A. A mutation in the same gene led to the coastal populations having the same coat color.

b)

B. An allele for light coat color is more common in the coastal populations than the inland population.

c)

C. The genes that code for a light coat color have been lost from the inland population.

d)

D. The coastal and inland populations all share the same alleles for coat color.

60.

The uptake of nitrogen by plants would likely be MOST affected by which occurrence?

a)

A. A period of seasonal rainfall

b)

B. A decrease in the burning of fossil fuels

c)

C. An increase in herbivore populations

d)

D. The destruction of bacteria in the soil

61.

Where is nitrogen "fixed"?

62.
Which organism is responsible for nitrogen fixation?
a)
fungi
b)
eukaryote
c)
bacteria
d)
virus
63.

What is the role of nitrogen fixing bacteria in the nitrogen cycle?

a)
Convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use
b)
Break down organic matter into nitrogen gas
c)
Convert carbon dioxide into a form that plants can use
d)
Increase the acidity of the soil
64.

If soil were lacking nitrogen, what could you introduce to the ecosystem to increase the amount of nitrogen that plants could use?

a)

Denitrifying bacteria

b)

Nitrogen fixing bacteria

c)

Nitrifying bacteria

65.

What is the process of taking nitrogen gas from the atmosphere and converting it to usable compounds?

a)

nitrogen composition

b)

ammonia

c)

nitrogen fixation

d)

denitrification

66.

What is the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nitrogen cycle as shown in the diagram?

a)

They convert nitrates into nitrogen gas.

b)

They convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form usable by plants.

c)

They are responsible for the denitrification process.

d)

They break down dead organic matter into ammonia.

67.

Label the Nitrogen Cycle Diagram

68.

Nitrogen Cycle, #2 & #4

Drag the labels to complete the nitrogen cycle!

69.

Drag and label each component of photosynthesis to the part of the diagram to which it corresponds. HINT: the clouds represent gases!

70.

Based on the image, which of these BEST describes the structure and function of the organelle identified as X?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum, which carries nucleotides as a DNA strand is being transcribed

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum, which carries nucleotides as a DNA strand is being translated

c)

Ribosome, which holds the mRNA in place as amino acids are transported by tRNA

d)

Ribosome, which holds the tRNA in place as amino acids are transported by mRNA

71.

The table describes the steps involved in the production of proteins in a cell.

A student uses the information to design a model of the process. Drag each step into its position in the model to sequence the steps of the process correctly.

​ (a)   →​ (b)   →​ (c)   →​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
X
Z
Y
W
72.

First, ​ (a)   happens. Then, ​ ​ (b)   goes to a ​ (c)   , which translates the code into ​ (d)   in a process called ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
transcription
mRNA
ribosome
proteins
translation
73.

In what part of the cell does translation occur?

74.

During translation, the code from ​ (a)   is read by the ​ (b)   and translated into a sequence of ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
mRNA
ribosome
amino acids
75.

Organelles in the cell work together to keep the cell alive. ​ (a)   make proteins. Often, these ribosomes are attached to the ​ (b)   . Then, proteins are sorted, modified and packaged by the ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
Ribosomes
Rough ER
Golgi apparatus
76.

​ (a)   is the process by which mRNA is decoded and a protein is produced, and it occurs in a ​ (b)   in the ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
Translation
ribosome
cytoplasm
Transcription
nucleus
77.

Match the following

a)

Puts together amino acids

1.

Ribosome

b)

Transports amino acids

2.

tRNA

c)

Carries the code to the ribosome

3.

mRNA

d)

Provides the protein code

4.

DNA

e)

Put together to make the protein

5.

Amino Acids

78.

Match the following

a)

The process of creating proteins

1.

Protein Synthesis

b)

Step 1 of protein synthesis where mRNA is formed from a DNA template

2.

Transcription

c)

Step 2 of protein synthesis where the message from mRNA is used to create a chain of amino acids (protein)

3.

Translation

79.

After transcription, the mRNA travels out of the nucleus to the ________ in the cytoplasm.

(a)  

Choose from the below words
ribosomes
mitochondria
chloroplasts
centrioles
80.

Match the following

a)

mRNA

1.

carrying instructions from DNA

b)

tRNA

2.

carries an amino acid

c)

rRNA

3.

the ribsome where proteins are made

81.

The initiation of translation occurs when a ​ (a)   codon of mRNA binds to the first tRNA molecule carrying the amino acid ​ (b)   to a ribosome.​

Choose from the below words
start
Methionine
stop
leucine
release factor
82.

Match the following

a)

mRNA

1.

carrying instructions from DNA

b)

tRNA

2.

carries an amino acid

c)

DNA

3.

in the nucleus

83.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
84.

Identify which student is correct and why that student is correct.

see answer explanation

a)

Student A is correct because they applied the correct method.

b)

Student B is correct because they used the right formula.

c)

Student C is correct because they interpreted the data accurately.

d)

Student D is correct because they followed the correct steps.

85.
Which type of cell has no nucleus?
a)
Eukaryote
b)
Prokaryote
c)
Animal
d)
Plant
86.
Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus. What do they have in its place?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Nucleoid region
c)
Deoxyribonucleic
d)
Chromatin
87.

Sort the following into the appropriate categories:

Categorize the following

Contains chloroplast

Has a small vacuole

Has a cell wall

Has a large vacuole

Classified as a eukaryotic cell

Contains mitochondria

Contains a plasma membrane

Plant
Animal
Both
88.

Check all that describe a bacteria cell.

a)

Prokaryote

b)

No nucleus

c)

Eukaryote

d)

No ribosomes

89.

Match the organelle to its function:

a)

Nucleus

1.

Stores the DNA

b)

Mitochondria

2.

Makes energy

c)

Nucleolus

3.

Makes ribosomes

d)

Ribosomes

4.

Makes proteins

e)

Chloroplast

5.

Uses light to make sugar- photosynthesis

90.

Match the organelle to its function:

a)

Contains ribosomes; transports proteins

1.

Rough ER

b)

Synthesizes and transports lipids

2.

Smooth ER

c)

Modifies proteins and lipids and sends them to their final destinations

3.

Golgi Body

d)

Thin fibers found in the cytoplasm that gives the cell shape

4.

Cytoskeleton

e)

Transport pod

5.

Vesicle

91.

Which statement BEST classifies the biomolecules responsible for the development of these genetically modified mice?

a)

Lipids are responsible for carrying the genetic material and carbohydrates are responsible for catalyzing the reaction.

b)

Carbohydrates are responsible for carrying the genetic material and nucleic acids are responsible for catalyzing the reaction.

c)

Proteins are responsible for carrying the genetic material and lipids are responsible for catalyzing the reaction.

d)

Nucleic acids are responsible for carrying genetic material and proteins are responsible for catalyzing the reaction.

92.

Identify what types of biomolecules glycogen and lactase are.

93.

Glucose is an example of a ​ (a)  

Fats and oils are examples of ​ (b)  

Insulin and hemoglobin are examples of ​ (c)  

Salivary amylase and lactase are examples of special proteins called ​ (d)  

DNA and RNA are examples of ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
carbohydrate
lipids
proteins
enzymes
nucleic acids
94.

Match the following structures to their biomolecule

a)
1.

Carbohydrate

b)
2.

Lipid

c)
3.

Protein

d)
4.

Nucleic Acid

95.

Match the following

a)

1.

Carbohydrates

b)

2.

Lipids

c)

3.

Proteins

d)

4.

Nucleic Acids

96.

Match the following

a)
1.

Nucleic Acid

b)
2.

Protein

c)
3.

Lipid

d)
4.

Carbohydrate

97.

Match the following to what you feel like is the most appropriate label.

a)

1.

Carbohydrate

b)

2.

Protein

c)

3.

Nucleic Acid

d)

4.

Lipid

98.

Match the following

a)

1.

Carbohydrate

b)

2.

Protein

c)

3.

Nucleic acid

d)

4.

Lipid

99.

Match the following

a)
1.

protein

b)
2.

nucleic acid

c)
3.

carbohydrate

d)
4.

lipid

100.

Match the following

a)
1.

Carbohydrate

b)
2.

Lipid

c)
3.

Protein

d)
4.

Nucleic Acid

101.

Match the following

a)
1.

Monosaccharide

b)
2.

Nucleotide

c)
3.

Fatty Acid

d)
4.

Protein

102.

Match the following

a)
1.

Carbohydrate

b)
2.

Water

c)
3.

Nucleotide

d)
4.

Lipid

e)
5.

Protein

103.
Which biomolecule is found in pasta and bread?
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Carbohydrate
104.
What type of molecule is this?
a)
Nucleic acid
b)
Protein
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Lipid
105.
Identify the biomolecule
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
106.
Name this biomolecule
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
nucleic acid
d)
protein
107.
Identify the biomolecule
a)
Protein
b)
Lipid
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Nucleic Acid
108.
Identify the biomolecule
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
109.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?*
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
110.
This is mostly a _____. 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
protein
c)
lipid
d)
nucleic acid
111.

This is an example of ...

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

e)

ATP

112.

If B is a nucleic acid, A is a __.

a)

monosaccharide

b)

fatty acid

c)

amino acid

d)

nucleotide

113.

Flowering is a process that occurs in many plants to ensure reproductive success. Which statement MOST DIRECTLY describes the interactions needed for flowering to occur?

a)

A. A hormone triggers the production of pigments that travel to the flower and initiate blooming.

b)

B. Water is absorbed through the plant’s shoots to increase the leaf’s ability to support the opening of flowers.

c)

C. Plants respond to environmental factors by producing hormones needed for flowering.

d)

D. Warmer temperatures increase the rate at which water and nutrients are transported to the flower bud by traveling through the phloem.

114.

Many marine organisms rely on plentiful supplies of nitrite ions to survive. Ammonium can be used to produce nitrite. When seawater is highly acidic, less ammonium is converted to nitrite. One cause of ocean acidification is the absorption of large amounts of carbon dioxide by oceans.

a)

Decreasing carbon dioxide emissions will make oceans more acidic and will decrease the available nitrite in oceans and help marine life.

b)

Decreasing carbon dioxide emissions will make oceans less acidic and will increase the available nitrite in oceans and harm marine life.

c)

Increasing carbon dioxide emissions will make oceans more acidic and will decrease the available nitrite in oceans and harm marine life.

d)

Increasing carbon dioxide emissions will make oceans less acidic and will increase the available nitrite in oceans and help marine life.

115.

Which line represents the carrying capacity of this population?

116.

Select the area in the graph showing when population growth seems to reach the carrying capacity

117.

What is ocean acidification primarily caused by?

a)

Overfishing

b)

Increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide

c)

Oil spills

d)

Plastic pollution

118.

As carbon dioxide mixes with water it creates a chemical reaction that releases __________ ______ which decreases the pH level of the ocean.

a)

Hydrogen Ions

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Carbonic molecutes

119.

Extra carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is dissolved in the oceans and causes an increase in the ocean's

a)

Salinity

b)

Acidity

c)

Biodiversity

120.

Why is the ocean known as one of Earth's "carbon sinks"?

a)

Because it releases more CO2 than it absorbs

b)

Because nitrogen from the ocean binds with carbon in the atmosphere, thus neutralizing its greenhouse effects

c)

Because it drains carbon dioxide produced by marine organisms into the atmosphere

d)

Because it is an environment that is able to remove greenhouse gases from the atmosphere by absorbing more CO2 than it releases

121.

Apoptosis is a normal cellular process that ___ cells. A cell may enter apoptosis ___ . Without apoptosis, the cell may ___ . Fill in the blanks.

a)

destroys; at the end of its lifespan; become cancerous

b)

creates; during cell division; become stronger

c)

repairs; when infected by bacteria; become healthier

d)

multiplies; at the start of its lifespan; become dormant

122.

Unit 4

Some cells can die as a result of external agents such as poison or trauma. If this event occurs to the cell, then the cell receives a chemical message that indicates the cell must die. This programmed cell death is called ---​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
apoptosis
nuclear division
a tumor
reduction division
123.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

A tumor

b)

A protein

c)

Programmed cell death

d)

Cell cycle checkpoints

124.
What is the importance of apoptosis?
a)
To eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells
b)
To create specialized cells
c)
To produce two identical cells
d)
To cause uncontrolled cell growth
125.

What is apoptosis?

a)
The process of cell mutation
b)
The process of cell division
c)
The process of programmed cell death
d)
The process of cell growth
126.

Some cells can die as a result of external agents such as poison or trauma. However, most cells die through a process known as apoptosis, or programmed cell death.

What is a likely consequence of a mutation that prevents apoptosis?

a)

A tumor

b)

A loss of amino acids

c)

A lack of cell division

d)

A reduction in chromosome number

127.

A group of genes that slow down cell division, repair DNA mutations, and tell cells when to die (apoptosis) is collectively called

a)

tumor suppressor genes

b)

protooncogenes

c)

oncogenes

d)

guardian genes

128.

When cells are preparing to divide but cell cycle regulators realize there is an error, what do we call the programmed death of the cell?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Tumor Suppressors

d)

Cell Death

129.

Three processes that are required for sexual reproduction to occur are shown in the diagram (Process 1, Process 2, Process 3). Which table most accurately describes the importance of each process to sexual reproduction?

a)

Process 1:Produces haploid cells Process 2: Exchange of genetic materia Process 3: Produces a diploid cell

b)

Process 1: Produces haploid cells Process 2: Exchange of genetic material Process 3: Produces a diploid cell

c)

Process 1: Produces diploid cells Process 2: Produces haploid cells Process 3: Exchange of genetic material

d)

Process 1: Exchange of genetic material Process 2: Produces haploid cells Process 3: Produces a diploid cell

130.

What is the term for the cell formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell?

a)

Embryo

b)

Fetus

c)

Zygote

d)

Gamete

131.

What is the process called when a sperm cell and an egg cell combine?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Fertilization

c)

Meiosis

d)

Pollination

132.

1: ​ (a)  

2: ​ (b)  

3: ​ (c)  

4:​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
Binary Fission
Sexual Reproduction
Budding
Regeneration
133.

Match the following

a)

sperm

1.

male sex cell

b)

egg

2.

female sex cell

c)

zygote

3.

fertilized egg

d)

fertilization

4.

the process of a sperm uniting with the egg

134.
135.

Which area on the diagram represents the cell division of haploid cells?

136.

During the beginning of Meiosis, the cell is considered​ (a)   because it contains chromosome pairs, the number of which depends on the species. Once Meiosis is completed, the resulting cells are considered ​ (b)   because the chromosomes are no longer in pairs.

Choose from the below words
diploid
haploid
137.
  • -haploid has ​ (a)   chromosomes

  • -diploid has ​ (b)   chromosomes

Choose from the below words
23
46
2
32
21
138.

Reproductive cell, sperm and egg, would be considered...​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
haploid
diploid
139.

Unlike body cells, sex cells have to have half the number of chromosomes. These sperm and egg cells are said to be ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
haploid
diploid
allele
nondisjunction
karyotype
140.

When a egg and sperm are created they are ​ (a)   meaning they have half the number of chromosomes. ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
haploid
n
2n
diploid
141.

What is the chromosome number in a human haploid cell?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

16

142.

What is the chromosome number in a human diploid cell?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

16

143.

During which process do diploid cells form?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Fertilization

d)

Both B and C

144.

In the context of human reproduction, which process is responsible for the production of sperm and egg cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Fertilization

d)

Binary fission

145.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

contain n chromosomes

contain 2n chromosomes

sex cells (for reproduction)

normal body cells

23 chromosomes in humans

46 chromosomes in humans

haploid
diploid
146.

Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?

a)

A only

b)

B only

c)

C only

d)

A and B

e)

C and B

147.

Which of the following is a characteristic of diploid cells?

a)

They contain a single set of chromosomes.

b)

They are produced by meiosis.

c)

They contain two sets of chromosomes.

d)

They are only found in bacteria.

148.

Where does crossing over occur?

149.

During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes cross over?

150.

​ (a)   is a process during meiosis in which homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material.

Choose from the below words
Crossover
Chromatid
Centromere
Mutation
151.

Refer to the graphs titled 'Snow Coverage over Time.' Which statement BEST explains the data shown in the graphs?

a)

Hares with seasonal changes in fur color have a survival advantage and are more likely to successfully reproduce.

b)

Hares change their fur color as a result of mating choice during the spring months.

c)

Natural selection allows for mutations to occur during seasonal changes when food is abundant.

d)

Hare fur color changes when sexual maturity occurs in the fall months.

152.

Which model shows the correct conversion of molecules by the labeled cell structures?

a)

A. [Diagram: Chloroplast converts C6H12O6 and CO2 to ATP and O2, Mitochondrion converts ATP and O2 to H2O and C6H12O6]

b)

B. [Diagram: Chloroplast converts H2O and CO2 to C6H12O6 and O2, Mitochondrion converts C6H12O6 and O2 to CO2 and ATP]

c)

C. [Diagram: Mitochondrion converts C6H12O6 and CO2 to H2O and O2, Chloroplast converts H2O and O2 to CO2 and ATP]

d)

D. [Diagram: Mitochondrion converts H2O to ATP and O2, Chloroplast converts ATP and O2 to CO2]

153.

Click on the organelle in which photosynthesis takes place.

154.

Cell Y completes a process that Cell X doesn't called ​ (a)   . Cell Y needs ​ (b)   , ​ (c)   , and ​ (d)   to produce two compounds: O2 and​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
photosynthesis
carbon dioxide
water
sunlight
C6H12O6
C2H4
155.

Chemical Equation for Photosynthesis

​ ​ (a)   +​ ​ ​ ​ (b)   ->​ (c)   +​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
Carbon Dioxide
H2O
Glucose
Oxygen
Hydrogen
156.

This question has two parts. In cattle, the hornless trait is dominant to the horned trait. A farmer starts with a herd of cattle heterozygous for the horned trait and wants to keep the herd hornless. To keep the hornless trait, the farmer builds fences around the farm to prevent the cattle from mating with any horned cattle in the area. Part A Which statement describes what will MOST LIKELY happen to the cattle population on the farm over time?

a)

All the cattle will remain hornless.

b)

The next generation of cattle will all be horned.

c)

There will continue to be some horned cattle in each generation.

d)

Horned cattle will appear after every two generations.

157.

This question has two parts.

In cattle, the hornless trait is dominant to the horned trait. A farmer wants to know the genotype of a hornless bull.

Part A
Which cross would BEST help the farmer determine if the bull is homozygous or heterozygous for the hornless trait?

a)

A) Cross the bull with a horned cow.

b)

B) Cross the bull with another hornless bull.

c)

D) Cross the bull with a horned bull.

d)

C) Cross the bull with a hornless cow of unknown genotype.

158.

Drag each description to the correct category.

Dominant Traits

​ ​ (a)  

Recessive Traits

​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
only one copy of a gene is needed for this trait t
two copies of the same gene are needed for the tra
159.

A ​ (a)   trait ​ mostly likely (b)   expressive it self while a ​ (c)   trait ​ (d)   most likely expressive it self

Choose from the below words

recessive

will not

dominate

will

160.
In this example, the child displays the ________ trait.
a)
dominant
b)
recessive 
161.

Complete the punnett square

162.

Select the boxes in the Punnett Square where you would find heterozygous offspring.

163.

Which box would represent homozygous recessive?

164.

Which statement BEST describes how viruses disrupt normal cellular processes to cause disease?

a)

A. Viruses use cell machinery to build products the virus needs.

b)

B. Viruses release large amounts of energy into the cell, causing increased growth rates.

c)

C. Viruses release antibiotics that destroy the cell membrane so more viral particles can be released.

d)

D. Viruses block gene expression and prevent host cell DNA replication.

165.
True or False
The flu is caused by a virus.
a)
true
b)
false
166.

What non-living agent causes diseases such as small pox, the common cold and rinderpest?

a)

bacteria

b)

protist

c)

virus

d)

infections

167.

can cause illnesses such as chicken pox, measles, flu, and mumps

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

168.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

169.
How does a virus cause a person to develop the common cold?
a)
invades the host cell to reproduce
b)
removes energy from the host cell
c)
produces toxins in the host cell
d)
protects the host cell from bacteria
170.

Label the steps of the lytic cycle

171.

There are two main ways in which viruses reproduce. In the table below, match the descriptions of viral activity with the correct viral life cycle.

Choose ONE answer in each row.

172.

Match the steps in viral replication with the corresponding picture.

a)
1.

Attachment

b)
2.

Entry

c)
3.

Replication

d)
4.

Assembly

e)
5.

Lyse & Release

173.
The viral genetic material replicates without destroying the host cell during the ________.
a)
pathogenic cycle
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
viral cycle
174.
The ______________ is the cycle of viral infection, replication, and cell destruction. 
a)
pathogenic cycle
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
viral cycle
175.

What viral replication cycle is taking place?

a)

Lytic cycle

b)

Mitosis

c)

Lysogenic cycle

d)

meiosis

176.
The steps involved in viral replication are shown on the diagrams.
Place the steps in the correct order by listing the letters in the proper sequence: 
a)
C D B A
b)
D C A B
c)
A B D C
d)
D C B A
177.

Which statement BEST describes how large particles and macromolecules enter cells?

a)

They dissolve in the extracellular fluid and are carried through the plasma membrane by osmosis.

b)

They pass through the plasma membrane by facilitated diffusion against the concentration gradient.

c)

They react chemically with lipids in the plasma membrane to make holes that are repaired by osmosis.

d)

They are carried into the cell via endocytosis in a vesicle made from the cell membrane and then released.

178.

Tap on all the pictures of ACTIVE transport.

179.

A student organizes a chart describing examples of different types of cellular transport that occurs in cells.

Move the correct answer to each box. Not all answers will be used.

180.

If the molecules move through PASSIVE TRANSPORT in this diagram which side are the molecules going to?

181.

Active transport of solutes across the cell membrane requires​ (a)   because molecules are moved against the ​ (b)   , meaning from​ (c)   concentration . For example, when mangrove trees use salt ​ (d)   to secrete salt from their roots.

Choose from the below words
energy
gradient
glands
low to high
182.

Choose the image(s) below that represent(s) active transport

183.
Question Image

Match the following forms of active transport.

a)

moving large materials into the cell from low to high

1.

Endocytosis

b)

moving large materials out the cell from low to high

2.

Exocytosis

c)

moving ions

across the cell membrane in opposite directions

3.

Sodium/Potassium Pump

184.

Cells can use ​ (a)   to bring in ions or molecules when there is already a higher concentration of the ions or molecules inside the cell than outside the cell. An Example of this would be ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
active transport
endocytosis
osmosis
passive transport
cell membrane
exocytosis
185.

The green molecules on the top of the plasma (cell) membrane drawing are ​ (a)   They act as receptors for cell adhesion and recognize other cells as familiar or foreign. The blue molecule facilitating diffusion in the plasma membrane is made up of channel​ (b)   The membrane itself is also known as a: ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
glycoproteins.
proteins.
phospholipid bilayer.
186.

The diagram shows three types of transport the cell uses to move molecules across the cell membrane. Write one letter in each box to correctly complete the diagram.

187.

Correctly label the image

188.

Label the cell with the correct type of Transport

189.

Based on the information provided, which statement BEST describes the effect of temperature on the citrus rust mite?

a)

A. Temperature can affect the size of its egg.

b)

B. Temperature can influence the gender of its offspring.

c)

C. Temperature can affect its rate of reproductive success.

d)

D. Temperature can influence the availability of nutrients.

190.

A DNA sequence is shown. 5′ A T C G C T A G 3′ Which strand represents the complementary DNA sequence?

a)

5′ T A C G G A T C 3′

b)

5′ A T C G C T A G 3′

c)

3′ T A G C G A T C 5′

d)

3′ G A T C G C T A 5′

191.

Complete the DNA molecule based on the rules for complementary base pairing

192.

Create a doubles stranded DNA sequence by dragging the complementary nucleotide sequence into position.

193.
Question Image

Match the following DNA complementary bases

a)

Adenine

1.

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

2.

Guanine

c)

Guanine

3.

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

4.

Adenine

194.

Identify the nitrogen base PAIR

195.
  1. One of the keys to understanding DNA structure is knowing how complementary bases in a DNA molecule pair up. If a single base is altered, the protein that gene encodes for might be altered, possibly affecting its function. Using Chargaff’s rule, simulate this process by filling in the correct complementary strand for this template strand in the chart below.

You may use each letter once or more than once.


196.

In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, if you have 20% Adenine present then you would have ​ (a)   % Guanine,

​ (b)   % Cytosine, and ​ (c)   % Thymine present.

Choose from the below words
20
30
60
40
10
197.

The complement to the DNA strand below is (a)   :
5'-ATGCCAT-3'

Choose from the below words
5'-TACGGTA-3'
3'-TACGGTA-5'
3'-ATGGCAT-5'
5'-ATGGCAT-3'
198.

Place the complementary DNA segment next to the original segment.

AAT - ​ (a)  

TAG - ​ (b)  

CAT - ​ (c)  

GAC - ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
TTA
ATC
GTA
CTG
UUA
AUC
GUA
CUG
199.

Which sequence of the genetic code would produce a polypeptide with the amino acid sequence Val-Pro-Leu? ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
AUG AGC CCU
AGA AUG CCA
GUA CCA CUA
200.

An environmental change that harms which organism would cause the MOST instability in the aquifer ecosystem?

a)

Texas cave shrimp

b)

Seborgias

c)

Texas blind salamanders

d)

Bacteria

201.

Bacteria are involved in many steps of the geochemical cycle which of the following steps are bacteria involved in

a)

Transpiration

b)

Nitrification

c)

Nitrogen fixation nitration

d)

Decomposition

202.

Select the decomposer(s).

203.

Which statement BEST describes the effect of a native species’ extinction on local ecosystem biodiversity and stability?

a)

A. Extinction leads to decreases in biodiversity and decreases in stability.

b)

B. Extinction leads to increases in biodiversity and decreases in stability.

c)

C. Extinction leads to increases in biodiversity and increases in stability.

d)

D. Extinction leads to decreases in biodiversity and increases in stability.

204.

A sudden disease causes the krill population to become severely reduced. Which organism in the food web below is most affected by this situation?

205.
If these organisms were arranged in a food pyramid, which organism would have the least amount of total energy available?
206.

How does a decrease in tiger habitat affect the genetic diversity of the species?

a)

Increasing

b)

Decreasing

c)

Constant

d)

Unaffected

207.

What happens to gene flow in wild tiger populations due to isolation from habitat loss?

a)

Increasing

b)

Decreasing

c)

Constant

d)

Unaffected

208.

(a)   can cause overhunting of animals.

Choose from the below words
Decrease in Biodiversity
Increase in Biodiversity
Increase in tree diversity
Biodiversity stays the same.
209.

Any natural material that is used by humans such as water, oil, minerals is a ​ (a)   . The introduction of substances that are harmful to living organisms is called ​ ​ (b)   . A condition in which humans needs are met in a way that a human population can survive indefinitely is called ​ (c)   ​ .

Choose from the below words
Natural resource
Pollution
sustainability
210.

Humans have begun the process of deforestation in south America. This has led to a(n)​ (a)   in biodiversity. This is due to ​ (b)   habitats being available.

Choose from the below words
decrease
less
increase
more
211.

How do other body systems interact with the endocrine system to regulate body processes?

a)

The nervous system helps control the release of hormones throughout the body.

b)

The immune system helps prevent infection from hormones within the body.

c)

The digestive system helps convert hormones into proteins that are absorbed within the body.

d)

The circulatory system helps transport hormones throughout the body.

e)

The integumentary system helps provide oxygen to initiate hormone production throughout the body.

212.

As you are reading this question, the cells in your eyes are firing in response to the light coming from this screen. Which type of neuron is carrying this message to the brain?

a)

Sensory

b)

Motor

213.

What is an axon?

a)

A layer of fatty tissue that encases the fibers of many neurons

b)

An antagonist molecule that blocks neurotransmitter receptor sites

c)

The extension of a neuron that carries messages away from the cell body

d)

A junction between a sending and receiving neuron

214.

The slowdown of neural communication in multiple sclerosis involves a degeneration of

a)

receptor sites

b)

myelin sheath

c)

dendrites

d)

Acetylcholine

215.

Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that travel across where?

a)

The cell body

b)

The axon

c)

The synaptic gap

d)

The myelin sheath

216.

José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of

a)

endorphins

b)

serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

melatonin

217.

The brain and spinal cord make up which component of the nervous system?

a)

Central

b)

Peripheral

c)

Somatic

d)

Sympathetic

218.

The sympathetic nervous system controls the acceleration of a heartbeat, while which system controls the slowing of a heartbeat?

a)

Somatic

b)

Parasympathetic

219.

What chemicals does the endocrine system use as its messengers?

a)

Neurotransmitters

b)

Hormones

220.

The most influential endocrine gland is found in the brain. This "master" gland secretes many different hormones, some of which affect other glands. What is the name of this endocrine gland?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Pineal

c)

Adrenal

d)

Thyroid

221.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
222.

Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?

a)

hormone

b)

local regulator

c)

endocrine cell

d)

plasmodesmata

223.

Which of the following is caused by a lack of iodine:

a)

tetany

b)

goiter

c)

diabetes insipidus

d)

Parkinson's disease

224.

Which of the following is the storage form of glucose:

a)

glycogen

b)

glucagon

c)

gluconeogenesis

d)

glycogenolysis

225.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

It creates chemicals, or hormones, that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

b)

It creates electrical messages that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

c)

It maintains the correct level of oxygen in the body to maintain homeostasis.

d)

It releases waste from the body to maintain homeostasis.

226.

Glucagon is released in response to:

a)

low blood glucose levels

b)

high blood glucose levels

c)

low blood salt levels

d)

low blood calcium levels

227.

Glucagon targets:

a)

the pancreas

b)

all cells of the body

c)

the liver

d)

mostly fat cells

228.

Glucagon triggers:

a)

the liver to break down glucose into glycogen

b)

the bones to uptake calcium, via osteoblasts

c)

the liver to break down glycogen into glucose

d)

the kidney to released glucose into the blood stream

229.

Together, both glucagon and insulin help:

a)

maintain homeostasis

b)

maintain blood glucose levels

c)

keep the body from an energy crisis

d)

All of the above

230.

Which of the following is a disease where sufferers cannot control their blood glucose levels?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Influenza

c)

Cholera

d)

Cystic fibrosis

231.
An organism that relies on the environment for body heat should be classed as:
a)
Poikilotherm
b)
Homeotherm
c)
Endotherm
d)
Ectotherm
232.
An organism that produces its own body heat should be classed as:
a)
Poikilotherm
b)
Homeotherm
c)
Endotherm
d)
Ectotherm
233.

Homeostatic cooling mechanisms include

a)

piloerection and panting

b)

panting and vasoconstriction

c)

sweating and piloerection

d)

sweating and vasodilation

234.

temperature regulation center in the brain of a human

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thermoregulation

c)

receptor

d)

negative feedback

235.
What is the evaporation of a liquid to cool the body?
a)
Shivering
b)
Sweating
c)
Vasodilation
d)
Vasoconstriction
236.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
237.

What is W?

a)

Axon Terminal

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Dendrite

d)

Synapse

238.

What is Y?

a)

Axon terminal

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Dendrite

d)

Synapse

239.

Where are neurotransmitters located within in neuron?

a)

axon terminals

b)

dendrites

c)

Schwann cells

d)

cell body

240.

Calcium ions (Ca2+)are responsible for.....

a)

signaling the release of the neurotransmitter

b)

signaling Na+ to be released into the membrane

c)

signaling the release of K+ out of the membrane

d)

serving as the neurotransmitter

241.

Location at which a neuron can transfer an impulse to another cell with the use of neurotransmitters is called ...

a)

myelin sheath

b)

axon

c)

threshold

d)

synapse

242.
What is the normal resting potential of a neuron cell membrane?
a)
+40mV
b)
-30mV
c)
+55mV
d)
-70mV
243.
Which ions are involved in an action potential?
a)
Na; Cl
b)
Na; K
c)
K; Cl
d)
Na; Ca
244.
The sodium potassium pump restores the resting potential. By which process does this work? 
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Facilitated diffusion
d)
Active transport
245.

Label the parts of the endocrine system.

246.

Label the parts of the endocrine system.

247.

Choose the correct endocrine glands

248.

Which organ system regulates body functions by secreting hormones and includes the pancreas?

249.

Which organ system acts as the human body's support system and includes the skull?

250.

Mark the pancreas

251.

The ​ (a)   of the pancreas secrete insulin.

Choose from the below words
beta cells
alpha cells
252.
Which system uses hormones to regulate body activities?
a)
Integumentary
b)
Urinary
c)
Endocrine
d)
Immune
253.

Pituitary and thyroid gland are included in this system.

a)

nervous

b)

endocrine

c)

skeletal

d)

muscular

254.
Which system is this picture showing? 
a)
Endocrine
b)
Nervous
c)
Reproductive
d)
Digestive
255.

Which body system does this gland belong to?

a)

Nervous

b)

Integumentary

c)

Endocrine

d)

Muscular

256.

a body system that controls growth and homeostasis by secreting hormones from glands.

a)

skeletal system

b)

nervous system

c)

endocrine sytem

d)

integumentary system

257.

A signal from a neuron goes from the ​ (a)   to the ​ (b)   and is received at the ​ (c)   of the next neuron

Choose from the below words
axon terminal
synapse
dendrite
258.

When a signal needs to get from one neuron to the other, it flows from the (a)  

Choose from the below words
synapse to the dendrite
dendrite to the synapse
cell body to dendrite
axon to cell body
259.

The ​ (a)   is composed of Schwann cells and increases the ​ (b)   of electrical impulses by functioning as an ​ (c)   that allows the impulses to jump between ​ (d)   of the myelin sheaths

Choose from the below words
myelin sheath
speed
insulator
spaces
axon
conductor
intensity
260.

Messages travel through neurons via ​ (a)   messages and between neurons via ​ (b)   messages.

Choose from the below words
electrical
chemical
digital
biological
mechanical
thermal
261.

How is a message delivered from the "sending" neuron to the "receiving" axon?

a)

sympathetic nerves

b)

hormones

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

neurotransmitters

262.
Neurons send signals in the brain and body via...
a)
neurotransmitters only
b)
electrical impulses only
c)
wifi
d)
neurotransmitters AND electrical signals
263.
The junction where one neuron can transfer an impulse to another structure
a)
Synapse
b)
Motor Neuron
c)
Dendrite
d)
Axon
264.

What type of neuron is this that receives signals from the CNS and carries them to an effector?

a)

Motor Neuron

b)

Association Neuron

c)

Interneuron

d)

Sensory Neuron

265.
What is the purpose of the myelin sheath on the axon?
a)
To maintain temperature
b)
To improve conductivity
c)
To protect the axon
d)
To release neurotransmitters
266.

The space between an axon of a neuron that is communicating with a dendrite of another neuron is called a ________________.

a)

Neuron

b)

Brain message

c)

Stimulus

d)

Synapse

267.
This part of the neuron stores then releases neurotransmitters into the synapse.
a)
Axon 
b)
Dendrite
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Axon Terminal
268.
Location at which a neuron can transfer an impulse to another cell with the use of neurotransmitters is called __________.
a)
myelin sheath
b)
axon
c)
threshold
d)
synapse
269.

What is the gap between two neurons called?

a)

Impulse

b)

Synapse

c)

CNS

d)

Inter neuron

270.
The part of the neuron that insulates the axon and increases the speed of the neural message within the neuron.
a)
Synapse
b)
Dendrite
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Axon Terminal Button
271.
Chemicals in the neuron that help send messages
a)
dendrites
b)
neurotransmitters
c)
axon terminals
d)
vesicles
272.

Match the following

a)

Stimulus

1.

The body is overheated

b)

Response

2.

The body sweats. The sweat evaporates.

c)

Outcome

3.

The body cools down.

273.

The maintenance of a constant internal environment when outside conditions change is

a)

homeostasis

b)

infection

c)

pathogenesis

d)

none of these

274.
While sitting in a room, a person notices that the temperature has become uncomfortably warm. The body will respond by -
a)
shivering.
b)
sweating.
c)
twitching.
d)
vomiting.
275.

In hyperthermia,

a)

blood vessels dilate

b)

blood vessels constrict

276.

Identify the organism that is MOST CLOSELY related to tuna based on the evidence from the table.

a)

Shark

b)

Salmon

c)

Dolphin

d)

Octopus

277.

What is the probability that Child 1 will have Marfan syndrome?

a)

25%

b)

100

c)

50%

d)

75%

278.

What is the chromosomal condition of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?

a)

Turner's Syndrome

b)

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

c)

Trisomy 13

d)

Trisomy 18

279.
Sickle cell anemia is caused by 
a)
a lack of red blood cells
b)
a genetic abnormality in the amino acids
c)
lack of available oxygen
d)
too much iron in the circulatory system
280.

Chromosom ______________ is another name of Down Syndrome

a)

23

b)

21

c)

26

d)

15

281.
What is the probability of having a boy or a girl from a single birth?
a)
50%
b)
25%
c)
75%
d)
10%
282.

Green pea pods are dominant to yellow pea pods. What is the probability of getting a homozygous yellow pea pod?

a)

0

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

283.
Females-XX; MalesXY.  A couple has 4 girls.  What is the chance the next child will be a boy?
a)
75%
b)
100%
c)
25%
d)
50%
284.

The likelihood that an event will occur is called ___________.

a)

trait

b)

dominant

c)

probability

d)

recessive trait

285.

​ (a)   are always expressed when the connected allele is dominant, even if only one copy of the dominant trait exists. ​ (b)   are expressed only if both the connected alleles are recessive.

Choose from the below words
Dominant traits
Recessive traits
286.

What type of genotype does each flower have?

Purple (P) is dominant to white (p).

Move label to bottom of square.

287.
Question Image

In hamsters, short fur is dominant (F) and long fur is recessive (f). Match genotypes and phenotypes below.

a)

1.

FF

b)

2.

Ff

c)

3.

ff

288.

Label the Punnett Square

289.

Examine the pedigree to the right. With the information given, Determine the type of genetic inheritance ​ ​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
autosomal dominant
sex-linked recessive
sex-linked dominant
autosomal recessive
290.

X and Y are ​​ (a)   chromosomes. Females are ​ (b)   and males are ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
SEX
XX
XY
Autosomes
46
23
291.

Match the following

a)

XY

1.

Male Genotype

b)

XX

2.

Female Genotype

c)

XXY

3.

Trans Genotype

d)
4.

Male Symbol

e)
5.

Female Symbol

292.

The phenomenon that explains why orcas have more DDT in their tissues than zooplankton is known as:

a)

biomagnification

b)

photosynthesis

c)

mutation

d)

eutrophication

293.

If a toxin was introduced to the water of an aquatic ecosystem. Which organism would have the highest accumulation of the toxin in their tissues?

294.
Which level of the pyramid would have the highest concentration of toxins according to the idea of biomagnification?
a)
grass
b)
rabbit
c)

snake

d)
owl
295.
Which organism would have the greatest concentration of pollution because of biomagnification?
a)
zooplankton
b)
large fish
c)
fish-eating birds of prey
d)
small fish
296.

Why would the zooplankton and small fish not be affected like the fish eating birds?

a)

concentration of DDT decreases as it moves up the food chain

b)

DDT is an insecticide and does not affect other organisms

c)

The concentration of DDT is not high enough

d)

The concentraiton of DDT is too high

297.
Identify the process shown in this diagram.
a)
Extinction
b)
Toxin Accumulation
c)
Pollution
d)
Biomagnification
298.

Which two molecules cross the cell membrane by active transport?

a)

Molecules 2 and 3

b)

Molecules 1 and 2

c)

Molecules 1 and 4

d)

Molecules 3 and 4

299.

Match the following

a)

Does Active Transport use energy (ATP)?

1.

Yes

b)

Does Passive Transport Use Energy(ATP)?

2.

No

c)

passive transport moves molecules from ...

3.

high to low

d)

active transport moves molecules from ...

4.

low to high

300.

What type of transport is this?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Sodium-Potassium Pump

301.

The picture is an example of...

a)

active tranport

b)

passive transport

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

302.

Which illustration of transport across the membrane requires energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

303.

Which of the following is an example of active transport?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Sodium-potassium pump

d)

Facilitated diffusion

304.

Which molecule is most likely to pass through the cell membrane by simple diffusion?

a)

Glucose

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Oxygen

d)

Proteins

305.

Tap on all the pictures of ACTIVE transport.

306.

Label each type of passive transport

307.

Tap on all the pictures of PASSIVE transport.

308.

Correctly label the diagram of Active Transport

309.

Active transport of solutes across the cell membrane requires​ (a)   because molecules are moved against the ​ (b)   , meaning from​ (c)   concentration . For example, when mangrove trees use salt ​ (d)   to secrete salt from their roots.

Choose from the below words
energy
gradient
glands
low to high
310.

If the molecules move through PASSIVE TRANSPORT in this diagram which side are the molecules going to?

311.
Question Image

Match the following forms of passive transport.

a)

diffusion of water from high to low

1.

Osmosis

b)

movement of material from high to low

2.

Diffusion

c)

a transport protein moves materials from high to low

3.

Facilitated Diffusion

312.

Lipase is an enzyme responsible for breaking fat down in the stomach. Which statement explains the effectiveness of lipase as it moves through the digestive system from the stomach to the intestine?

a)

It becomes less effective because it is used up by fats in the stomach.

b)

It becomes more effective because it acquires energy for more reactions from fats.

c)

It becomes less effective because it is inhibited by the change in pH from the stomach to the intestines.

d)

It becomes more effective because it changes shape and is able to break down other materials in the intestines.

313.

At what pH are both enzymes working?

314.

Which enzyme's OPTIMAL pH is approximately 9?

315.

Which cell produces pepsinogen? (a)  

Choose from the below words
chief cells
parietal cells
mucous cells
enteroendocrine cells
316.

Match the following

a)

pH of the Stomach

1.

Acidic

b)

pH of Blood

2.

Neutral

c)

pH of 10

3.

Basic

317.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
318.

The Structure that Stores bile

319.

Match the term with the description.

a)

release of digestive fluids (saliva, mucus, etc)

1.

secretion

b)

unabsorbed materials are eliminated

2.

defection

c)

nutrients and other molecules pass into the bloodstream

3.

absorption

d)

breaking down food

4.

digestion

e)

eating

5.

ingestion

320.

Match the following digestive organs to their functions

a)

Absorbs water and vitamins

1.

Large Intestine

b)

Mechanically breaks down food by chewing and mashing

2.

Mouth

c)

Chemically breaks down food using acid and enzymes

3.

Stomach

d)

Absorbs nutrients and uses diffusion to deliver them to the blood stream

4.

Small intestine

e)

Pushes food down the digestive tract from the pharynx to the stomach

5.

Esophagus

321.

Match the following

a)
1.

Chemical Digestion and Absorbs Nutrients into Bloodstream

b)
2.

Absorbs water into bloodstream and forms solid waste

c)
3.

Mechanical digestion through churning and chemical digestion through acid and enzymes

d)
4.

Together these structures produce and store bile

e)
5.

Produces enzymes and insulin

322.

Match the following

a)

creates saliva, which contains enzymes and moistens food

1.

salivary glands

b)

muscular tube that moves food into the stomach

2.

esophagus

c)

aids in the process of mastication

3.

tongue

d)

produces bile which helps break down fats

4.

liver

323.

Match the following

a)

Contains villi; site of the majority of digestion and nutrient absorption

1.

small intestine

b)

opens to allow elimination to occur

2.

anus

c)

produces pancreatic juice and insulin

3.

pancreas

d)

carries out chemical digestion with gastric juices and mechanical digestion with churning

4.

stomach

324.

Match the following liquids with their structures

a)

Gall bladder

1.

Stores bile

b)

Pancreas

2.

Makes insulin to regulate blood sugar

c)

Liver

3.

Makes bile to digest fat

d)

Stomach

4.

Makes gastric juice

325.

Match the following

a)

Small Intestine

1.

Absorbs nutrients

b)

Large intestine

2.

Absorbs water

c)

Feces

3.

Solid waste

326.

Match the following digestive enzymes with their substrates

a)

Amylase

1.

breaks down carbohydrates

b)

carboxy-peptidase, trypsin, chymotrypsin

2.

breaks down proteins in the small intestine

c)

Pepsin

3.

breaks down proteins in the stomach

d)

lipase

4.

breaks down fats

e)

nuclease

5.

breaks down nucleic acids

327.

Which cell produces pepsinogen? (a)  

Choose from the below words
chief cells
parietal cells
mucous cells
enteroendocrine cells
328.

Which cells of the gastric glands secrete each product?

a)

mucus

1.

goblet cells

b)

HCl

2.

parietal cells

c)

pepsin

3.

chief cells

329.
Bile is made by which digestive organ?
a)
Gallbladder
b)
Stomach
c)
Rectum
d)
Liver
330.

A student made a list of some ways that a species of fungi and a plant interact: 1. The fungus receives carbohydrates from the plant. 2. The fungus helps provide water to the plant's roots. 3. The fungus provides minerals and nutrients to the plant. Based on this information, what is MOST LIKELY the relationship between this species of fungi and the plant?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Predation

331.

Which plant has micorrhizae (mutualistic fungus) to increase the surface area for the plant's nutrient and water uptake?

332.

In the field of biology, ​ (a)   refers to the relationship between ​ (b)   different kinds of living things that live together and ​ (c)   on each other.

Choose from the below words
symbiosis
two
depend
333.
Which describes a win-win situation for the host and fungus?
a)
saprophytic
b)
parasitic
c)
symbiotic
334.

A remora is a fish that has an adhesive disk on the back of its head that it uses to attach itself to a large shark. When food floats away from the shark’s mouth as it feeds, the remora collects the scraps. Drawings of a shark with a remora attached and a remora’s adhesive disk are shown.

The relationship between the remora and the shark is an example of —

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

compeition

335.

A ring worm is found on a human, this is an example of what symbiosis relationship?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Prey--> Predator

336.

Ostriches and gazelles eat together. They both watch for predators and danger. Since they see things differently, they each can identify threats the other animal may not see. Both species are benefited.

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

parasitism

337.

A tapeworm lives in the intestine of a cat absorbing nutrients through its skin. A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

competition

338.

Select the two organisms types in this diagram:

a)

Fungi

b)

Phototroph (algae or Cyanobacteria)

c)

Protozoa

d)

Candida and Saccharomyces

339.

Lichens are close associations of fungi and algae. The fungi hold the water supply and the algae perform photosynthesis to manufacture carbohydrates for both organisms.

a)

Parasitism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Saldañism

340.

Two different organisms living together and benefitting from each other are known as …………….

a)

Saprophytic

b)

Heterotrophs

c)

Parasitic

d)

Symbionts

341.

Rhizobium is an example of

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Parasites

c)

Insectivorous

d)

None of these

342.

The symbiotic relationship formed by plants and fungi is called ________________

a)

mycorrhizae

b)

mitochondrion

c)

bacteria

d)

mitosis

343.

The geographical distribution of flightless birds is shown on the map. Which locations MOST LIKELY share a most recent common ancestor with the birds found at Location 3? Select TWO correct answers.

a)

Location 1

b)

Location 2

c)

Location 4

d)

Location 5

e)

Location 6

344.

Which type of mutation has occurred in the gene?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

345.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

1.

Deletion

b)

2.

Inversion

c)

3.

Duplication

d)

4.

Insertion

e)

5.

Translocation

346.

Which of these mutations most likely results in the mutated hemoglobin gene? ​ ​

A ​ (a)   ​ and a ​​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
substitution
point mutation
Insertion
Deletion
Frame Shift
347.

Mutations in these types of cells affect offspring:

348.

Identify the types of mutations shown.

349.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

350.
Question Image

Match the following compared to the original DNA strand

a)

1.

point mutation (substitution)

b)

2.

deletion

c)

3.

insertion

351.

Correctly label the mutations

352.

Original DNA: CAGAAT

Mutated DNA: CAGAT = ​ (a)  

Mutated DNA: CAGCAAT = ​ (b)  

Mutated DNA: CAGTAT = ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
Deletion
Insertion
Substitution
353.

Which of these shows an example of an insertion mutation?

354.

Which two are Frameshift Mutations?

355.

DNA mutations in ​ (a)   are not passed to offspring. In order for an offspring to inherit a DNA mutation, the DNA mutation must be in a ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
somatic cells
gamete
356.
357.
358.

A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substituion mutation occurs and causes the synthesis of the segment as shown.

New DNA strand: 3' T A C A G G G T G C T A C C C A C T 5'

The new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated is ​ (a)   ,​ (b)   ,​ (c)   , ​ (d)   , ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
Methionine
Serine
Histidine
Aspartate
Glycine
STOP
Proline
Leucine
Valine
359.

Original DNA: CAGAAT

Look at how the DNA changed in each example below. For each change, choose if it shows a deletion (removing a letter), insertion (adding a letter), or substitution (swapping a letter).

Mutated DNA: CAGAT = ​ (a)  

Mutated DNA: CAGCAAT = ​ (b)  

Mutated DNA: CAGTAT = ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
Deletion
Insertion
Substitution
360.

Match the type of mutation with its definition:

a)

when one nucleotide is switched for a different one in the DNA sequence

1.
Substitution
b)

when one nucleotide is added into the DNA sequence

2.

Insertion

c)

when one nucleotide is removed from the DNA sequence

3.

Deletion

361.

Match the following types of mutations to their descriptions.

a)

A change to one nucleotide results in one different amino acid in a polypeptide.

1.

Missense

b)

A change to one nucleotide results in early termination of a polypeptide.

2.

Nonsense

c)

A change to one nucleotide results in no changes to the amino acids in a polypeptide.

3.

Silent

d)

Additional nucleotides are added to the DNA strand; causes a frameshift mutation.

4.

Insertion

e)

Nucleotides are removed from the DNA strand; causes a frameshift mutation.

5.

Deletion

362.

​ (a)   : one nucleotide is substituted for another

​ (b)   : insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in the DNA sequence

Choose from the below words
point mutation
frameshift mutation
363.

Match the image to the correct GENE MUTATION

a)

1.

Substitution

b)

2.

Deletion

c)

3.

Insertion

364.

Point mutations affect ​ (a)   nucleotide.

Choose from the below words
two
three
one
365.

What are changes in DNA called? (a)  

Choose from the below words
mutations
adaptations
traits
bases
366.

Match the following

a)

Nondisjunction

1.

Chromosomes don't separate correctly

b)

Duplication

2.

multiple copies of a gene are made

c)

Translocation

3.

Swap between non-homologous chromosomes

d)

Point mutation

4.

When one nucleotide is swapped

e)

Frameshift mutation

5.

When codons are changed

367.

A portion of an mRNA sequence and a codon chart are shown. 5' UCU UGU CGA 3' Based on the codon chart, what sequence of amino acids is produced when this mRNA is translated?

a)

Thr - Asn - Glu

b)

Cys - Phe - Leu

c)

Ser - Cys - Arg

d)

Tyr - Trp - Met

368.

Organize the codons that corresponds with each amino acid. The full names are written, but the codon shown on the wheel/chart only shows the first three letters. (NOTE: You may or may not use all of the options.)

Proline ​ ​ (a)   , Glycine ​ (b)   , Phenylalanine ​ (c)   , Histine ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
CCA
GGC
UUC
CAU
CAA
UUA
UCA
369.

A mutation occurs that creates a new DNA sequence. DNA: TAC-TCG GGA. What amino acid sequence would this produce?​​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Lys-Arg-Thr
Met-Val-Val
Met-Ser-Pro
370.

Which sequence of the genetic code would produce a polypeptide with the amino acid sequence Val-Pro-Leu? ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
AUG AGC CCU
AGA AUG CCA
GUA CCA CUA
371.

Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

372.
  1. One of the keys to understanding DNA structure is knowing how complementary bases in a DNA molecule pair up. If a single base is altered, the protein that gene encodes for might be altered, possibly affecting its function. Using Chargaff’s rule, simulate this process by filling in the correct complementary strand for this template strand in the chart below.

You may use each letter once or more than once.


373.
Question Image

The image shows several different nucleotides. Match the complementary bases.

a)

adenine

1.

thymine

b)

guanine

2.

cytosine

c)

thymine

3.

adenine

d)

cytosine

4.

guanine

374.

Using the Codon chart attached, drag and drop the corresponding amino acid to its mRNA base

AAA : ​ (a)  

GUU : ​ (b)  

UAA : ​ (c)  

AGU : ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
lysine
valine
stop
serine
375.

Which amino acid is coded for by the following mRNA codon CCU?

376.

Answer the following

When using a codon chart we start with which side 1st?

Code for DNA -> ATG

Find DNA -> CAC

377.

A person waters a grapefruit tree on a sunny day. Which process MUST occur for the tree to use the water?

a)

Water is absorbed by the roots and then moved to the top of the tree by the xylem.

b)

Water is gathered by the leaves and then converted into glucose for the tree to use as energy.

c)

Water is moved from the top of the tree and then transported into the roots by the phloem.

d)

Water is collected in the flowers on the tree and then converted into tissue to produce bark.

378.

Read and Answer the following STAAR question.

379.

The ​ (a)   only moves water and nutrients ​ (b)   . The ​ (c)   flows sugar and nutrients ​ (d)   in the plant.

Choose from the below words
xylem
upward
phloem
everywhere
380.
Why does water move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water is pushed by solutes
b)
Capillary action pulls the water molecules like a chain
c)
Water is pulled by gravity
d)
Water’s cohesion causes it to “pull” towards the leaves
381.

Recall what is dissolved in the water in the xylem.

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

Mineral ions

d)

Starch

382.

What is the purpose of the XYLEM?

a)

To bring food from the soil to the whole plant.

b)

To carry water and nutrients from the roots to the whole plant.

c)

To carry food from the chloroplasts around to all parts of the plant.

383.

The diagram shows a plant.

What is the pathway taken by most of the water absorbed by this plant?

a)

X ➔ Y ➔ Z

b)

W ➔ Y ➔ Z

c)

Z ➔ Y ➔ X

d)

Z ➔ Y ➔ W

384.
a)
Transpiration
b)
Absorption
c)
Transport
d)
Vascular tissue
385.

what is the function of phloem tissue?

a)

transports water and minerals

b)

control the opening and closing of stoma

c)

carry out photosynthesis

d)

transports glucose and nutrients

386.
Xylem and Phloem are both __.
a)
Transpiration
b)
Absorption
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Vascular tissue
387.

A student creates a table to describe some properties of viruses. How should the student complete the table? Move the correct answer to each box in the table. Each answer may be used more than once.

Properties of Viruses - Reproduction: Is dependent on a _____________.

a)

host cell

b)

bacterial wall

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

388.

A student creates a table to describe some properties of viruses. How should the student complete the table? Move the correct answer to each box in the table. Each answer may be used more than once.

Properties of Viruses - Size: Is _____________ human cells.

a)

smaller than

b)

larger than

c)

the same size as

d)

bigger than

389.

A student creates a table to describe some properties of viruses. How should the student complete the table? Move the correct answer to each box in the table. Each answer may be used more than once.

Properties of Viruses - Genetic Material: Uses _____________.

a)

DNA or RNA

b)

Only proteins

c)

Only carbohydrates

d)

Only lipids

390.

What is the name of this virus

a)

Capsule

b)

Helical

c)

Bacteriophage

d)

Teva (my dog)

391.

Name this virus.

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Adenovirus

c)

Ebola

d)

Bacteriophage

392.

A student draws a model of the Rhinovirus which is responsible for causing the common cold.  The student states that the capsid has a similar function to the nuclear membrane found in animal cells.  

According to the student's illustration, which viral structure would be responsible for this function?

393.

4.C

A table comparing the characteristics of four samples is shown. Which sample most likely contains viruses?

394.

Label the parts of a common virus

395.
Question Image

Match the following strucures.

a)

Capsid

(protein coat)

1.

Structure A

b)

genetic material

(DNA or RNA)

2.

Structure B

c)

Tail fiber

3.

Structure D

396.

what are the parts of a virus

397.

Which part of the virus is responsible for attaching to the host cell?

398.

Select the part that functions not only as attachment but also as an entry factor.

399.

Read and Analyze the Questions from the picture and answer correctly:

​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
A
B
C
D
400.

Label the Virus with the correct parts.

401.

The most likely function of the structure labeled X in the above figure is –

402.

Which part of the virus contains/ holds genetic material?

403.

This is used to attach itself to the host surface.

404.

This part of the virus contains the DNA.

405.
Question Image
a)

A

1.

Head

b)

B

2.

DNA

c)

C

3.

Sheath

d)

D

4.

Fibers

406.

Which part of the virus attaches to the host cell?

407.

Label the structures found on a virus.

408.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
409.

The steps of the virus reproduction process are provided in random order.

What is the correct sequence of the steps in the virus reproduction process?

a)

1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 7, 6

b)

5, 1, 2, 3, 7, 4, 6

c)

1, 3, 2, 7, 5, 4, 6

d)

5, 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 7

410.

The diagram illustrates a biological process. Which statement describes what will most likely happen during Step 4?

a)

A. The substrates will bind together to form a product, and the enzyme will be unchanged.

b)

B. The substrates will bind together to form a product, and the enzyme will be denatured.

c)

C. The enzymes and substrates will all bind together to form one product.

d)

D. The enzyme will become the product and both substrates will be released.

411.

Click the part of the picture that is the SUBSTRATE.

412.

Look at the diagram.

Letter A is the (a)   Letter B is the ​ (b)   Letter C is the ​ (c)   Letter D is the ​ (d)   and Letter E is the ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
product
enzyme-substrate complex
Substrate
Active site
enzyme
413.
Question Image

Match the following from the diagram.

a)

a

1.

enzyme

b)

b

2.

substrate

c)

c

3.

products

d)

d

4.

active site

414.

Label the diagram with the words enzyme, substrate and product

415.

Add labels to show what is happening in the picture.

416.

Select the image that best answers the question in the photo.

417.
Question Image

Using the diagram, match the following.

a)

A

1.

Substrate

b)

B

2.

Enzyme

c)

C

3.

Active Site

d)

D

4.

Product

e)

E

5.

Enzyme Substrate Complex

418.

Label the reaction of an enzyme pictured

419.

In the first stage of the Enzyme substrate complex :

  1. 1. The enzyme forms a ​ (a)   with the substrate.

  2. 2. The association between the enzyme and substrate is known as the " ​ (b)   ".

  3. 3. Upon completion of the reaction, the enzyme and the ​ (c)   separate.

Choose from the below words
temporary association
Enzyme substrate complex
products
420.

Catalase is able to break down Hydrogen Peroxide (2H2O2) into Water (H2O) and Oxygen (O2). What is the Substrate?

a)

Catalase

b)

Water (H2O)

c)

Oxygen (O2)

d)

Hydrogen Peroxide (2H2O2)

421.

Lactase and Lactose combine together, to break down, 

and produce Glucose and Galactose.

Which of the following is the Substrate?

a)

Lactose

b)

Lactase

c)

Glucose

d)

Galactose

422.
Enzymes catalyze reactions by ___________ activation energy.
a)
increasing
b)
decreasing
c)
introducing
d)
removing
423.

If the enzyme is denatured…

a)

No effect

b)

Reaction rate increases

c)

Reaction rate decreases

d)

Reaction stops

424.
What is it called when an enzyme's shape is changed?
a)
Destroy
b)
Denature
c)
Delete
d)
Demolish
425.
When an enzyme is denatured then it will...
a)
work really well 
b)
no longer work
426.
  • When active site gets deformed and loses its shape it causes a loss of biological activity

a)

lock & key model

b)

renaturation

c)

the dying of an enzyme

d)

denaturation

427.

An enzyme can change its shape due to environmental conditions, including a change in temperature and pH levels. When an enzyme is no longer able to catalyze the reaction with the substrate, this is known as? (type in lowercase)

(a)  

428.

Question 74

What happens when an enzyme is denatured?

a)

It folds into a compact 3D shape

b)

It binds to an active site

c)

It unfolds and stops working

d)

It unfolds and works faster

429.

What will cause a Enzyme to denature?

a)

Add an inhibitor

b)

Optimal PH and Temperature

c)

Increasing PH outside the range

430.

What are the THREE (3) items that can DENATURE an enzyme?

a)

pH (potential hydrogen)

b)

Another chemical reaction

c)

Concentration

d)

Temperature

431.

When the pH or temperature becomes too low or too high what happens to an enzyme?

a)

It decreases the amount of substrate present

b)

The enzyme becomes denatured (changes shape) and can no longer bind to a substrate

c)

The enzyme lowers the pH and temperature so it can work

d)

pH and Temperature have no affect on an enzyme

432.
Which factor denatures a enzyme?
a)
Excessive heat
b)
Nothing can
c)
Exposure to light
d)
Exposure to bacteria
433.
A permanent change to the shape of a protein caused by the breaking of stabilizing bonds (h bonds) and interactions between R groups of their amino acids.
a)
Denaturation
b)
Dipeptide
c)
Condensation
d)
Collagen
434.

Label the parts of the enzyme model

435.

Which new gene combinations could result from crossing over?

a)

RrTt and RrTt

b)

RRTT and RRTt

c)

rttt and rrtt

d)

RrTT and rrTt

436.

Label the stages of Meiosis 1.

437.

Label the steps of Meiosis 2.

438.

Which represents the phase in which four new genetically different haploid nuclei formed?

439.

Match the following

a)

Mitosis

1.

Makes skin cells

b)

Meiosis

2.

Makes gametes (sperm & egg)

c)

Asexual Reproduction

3.

1 parent

d)

Sexual Reproduction

4.

2 parents

440.

Match the following phase of Meiosis I

a)

1.

interphase

b)

2.

prophase I

c)

3.

Metaphase I

d)

4.

Anaphase I

e)

5.

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

441.

Match the following

a)

1.

independent assortment

b)

2.

crossing over

c)

end result: 4 haploid genetically unique cells

3.

meiosis

d)

end result: 2 genetically identical cells

4.

mitosis

442.

​ (a)   is the process where a parent cell divides into four sex cells with half of the chromosomes.

Choose from the below words
Meiosis
Mitosis
Translation
Coding Facilitation
Transcription
Photosynthesis
Arched Angle Transference
Transference
443.

Both mitosis and meiosis begin with one cell. After mitosis is completed, you end up with ​ (a)   cells. After meiosis, you end up with ​ (b)   cells.

Choose from the below words
2
4
444.

A cell has 10 chromosomes. It undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes will each of the new cells have?

445.

Label the following terms: Cell, DNA, Chromosome, Nucleus, Gene

446.
447.

A threadlike structure within a cell’s nucleus that contains DNA that is passed from one generation to the next. (a)  

Choose from the below words
Mitosis
Chromosome
Chromatids
Meiosis
448.

Circle the autocomes and sex chromosomes on this karyotype. 

449.

Which part of the diagram represents a gene?

450.

Which part of the diagram represents a Chromosome?

451.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a (a)  

Choose from the below words
deletion
duplication
inversion
translocation
452.

Select when homologous chromosomes separate.

453.

Match the terms on homologous pair.

454.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a (a)  

Choose from the below words
deletion
duplication
inversion
translocation
455.
Question Image

Match the followingRecord the number of each label in the boxes to best complete the model.

a)

1

1.

chromosome

b)

2

2.

DNA

c)

3

3.

gene

456.

Use the words to label the image.

(You will only use each word once)

1. ​ (a)  

2. ​ (b)  

3. ​ (c)  

4. ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
Chromosome
DNA
Base
Gene
457.

When the axolotl, a type of salamander, loses its legs or tail, it can regenerate the damaged tissue and regrow these body parts. Which statement describes the cellular processes that will MOST LIKELY occur when an axolotl loses its tail?

a)

The area where the tail is growing will have an increased rate of meiosis and a decreased rate of mitosis.

b)

The rate of somatic cell division and meiosis will decrease in all body cells except the tail.

c)

The size of axolotl body cells will increase until a larger tail has developed due to an increased rate of mitosis.

d)

The area where the tail is growing will have an increased rate of mitosis and cell division.

458.

A student lists facts about raccoons: 1. Coyotes and bobcats eat raccoons. 2. Raccoons will eat fruit and nuts after they have dropped onto the ground. 3. Raccoons eat a variety of foods, including fish, small rodents, and frogs. 4. Raccoons can use their fingers to open garbage cans to eat what is inside. Which facts describe a predator-prey relationship?

a)

Facts 1 and 2

b)

Facts 1 and 3

c)

Facts 2 and 4

d)

Facts 3 and 4

459.

Which statement describes why brightly colored feathers are selected for in populations of male peacocks?

a)

The feathers help resist diseases.

b)

The feathers help avoid competition.

c)

The feathers help attract mates.

d)

The feathers help with movement.

460.

What behavior is this an example of?

a)

Courtship Behavior

b)

Cooperative Behavior

c)

Society

461.

Which kind of behavior is this?

a)

courtship display

b)

aggressive display

c)

distraction display

d)

altruism

462.

Students observe onion cells from a tip of the root with a light microscope while studying mitosis. Which statement best identifies why students would observe the root tip of an onion to see the stages of mitosis?

a)

The tip of the root is where the plant is doing the most growing.

b)

The tip of the root is where photosynthesis is taking place.

c)

The tip of the root is where the most water is being absorbed.

d)

The tip of the root is where sexual reproduction is occurring.

463.

Label the Following Illustration of the Cell Cycle.

464.

Label the parts of the Cell Cycle

465.

Label the parts of the cell cycle!

466.

The Cell Cycle is broken into 2 main phases: ​ (a)   and ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
Interphase
Mitosis
Growth Cycles
Replication Cycles
467.

Match the correct description to each part of the cell cycle.

a)

cell grows and organelles are copied

1.

G1

b)

DNA is copied

2.

S

c)

cell grows

3.

G2

d)

division of the DNA

4.

mitosis

e)

division of the cytoplasm

5.

cytokinesis

468.

Match the phases of the cell cycle with what occurs in that phase.

a)

G1

1.

Cell grows in size

b)

S phase

2.

Cell synthesizes DNA

c)

G2

3.

Cell prepares for division

d)

Mitosis

4.

Nucleus is divided

e)

Cytokinesis

5.

Cytoplasm is divided

469.

During the Cell Cycle, the ​ (a)   grows, copies organelles, replicates DNA and splits the nucleus to become identical ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
parent cell
daughter cells
470.

Match the correct description to each part of the cell cycle.

a)

cell grows and prepares for Replication

1.

G1

b)

DNA is copied

2.

S

c)

cell grows and prepares for mitosis

3.

G2

d)

division of the nucleus (DNA)

4.

mitosis

e)

division of the cytoplasm

5.

cytokinesis

471.

Match the following

a)

Genetic material condenses

1.

Prophase

b)

Chromosomes line up in middle of cell

2.

Metaphase

c)

Sister chromatid moves apart

3.

Anaphase

d)

The cell starts to split into two

4.

Telophase

e)

Cell growth, and DNA replicates

5.

Interphase

472.

The eukaryotic ____ _____ is composed of interphase when the cell grows, organelles are made, and the chromosomes are duplicated; mitosis, when the chromosomes separate, and the nucleus divides; and cytokinesis, when the cytoplasm divides, forming two new cells.

(a)  

473.
This picture shows which process?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
the cell cycle
474.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
475.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)

telophase

b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
476.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)

cytokinesis

b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
477.

Which of these occurs just before the cell enters the G2 stage of the cell cycle?

a)

the nuclear membrane disintegrates

b)

Centrioles form

c)

the nucleolus divides

d)

DNA replicates

478.

Drag the parts below to the correct spot on the microscope.

479.

Label the parts of a microscope

480.

Label the parts of the microscope:

481.

Click the Hotspot

Course adjustment: larger knob for bigger adjustments

482.

Click on the objective with a total magnification of 100X.

483.

Click the Hotspot

Fine adjustment: smaller knob for tiny adjustments

484.
What is the total magnification used to view these onion cells through this microscope setup?
a)
400
b)
50
c)
40
d)
10
485.

A student is completing this Venn diagram that compares carbohydrates and lipids. Which description belongs in the shaded area of the Venn diagram?

a)

Change shape in order to function properly

b)

Act as insulation to reduce heat loss

c)

Provide organisms with energy

d)

Encode genetic information

486.

These biomolecules end in -ose. They provide quick energy to the cell. Fructose, Glucose, and Lactose are examples.

487.

Select the rectangle that best answers the question.

488.

Compare and contrast the functions of carbohydrates and lipids.

489.

Match the following

a)

Monosaccharide

1.

1 sugar

b)

Cell Membrane is made from

2.

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrate Energy

3.

Quick

d)

Lipid Energy

4.

Long-Term

e)

Cell Wall is made from

5.

Carbohydrates

490.

The carbohydrate in animal livers and muscle cells that store excess energy is called ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words
glycogen
starch
glycerol
glucose
491.

Match the following

a)

Cell Walls

1.

Carbohydrate

Structure

b)

Cell Membrane

2.

Lipid

Structure

c)

Quick Energy

3.

Carbohydrate Energy

d)

Long Term Energy

4.

Lipid

Energy

e)

Glucose

5.

Name of Monosaccharide

492.

Match the following

a)

Disaccharide

1.

Sucrose, Lactose, Maltose

b)

Monosaccharide

2.

Glucose, Fructose, Ribose (Part of RNA), Deoxyribose (Part of DNA)

c)

Polysaccharide

3.

glycogen, starch

493.

(a)   and ​​ (b)   are monosaccharides.​

Choose from the below words
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose
494.

Glucose is an example of a ​ (a)   carbohydrate.

Choose from the below words
simple
complex
495.

Match the following

a)

starch

1.

carb storage in plants

b)

glycogen

2.

carb storage in animals

c)

cellulose

3.

plant cell walls (carb)

d)

triglyceride

4.

fat storage in animals

e)

cholesterol

5.

stabilizes cell membrane

496.

Match the structure with the biomolecule group

a)

1.

Lipids

b)

2.

Nucleic Acids

c)

3.

Protein

d)

4.

Carbohydrate