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Earthquake Engineering

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is the science of the performance of buildings and structures when subjected to seismic loading.

a)

Design of building

b)

Earthquake engineering

c)

Structural Engineering

2.

Which of the following is NOT an aim of earthquake engineering?

a)

Proper design of structures to resist earthquakes

b)

Construction according to building codes

c)

Making structures completely earthquake-proof

d)

Analyzing the effects of seismic loading

3.

What does seismology primarily study?

a)

The movement of tectonic plates without considering waves

b)

The scientific study of earthquakes and the propagation of seismic waves through the Earth

c)

The design of earthquake-resistant structures

d)

The weather patterns before and after an earthquake

4.

The term seismology comes from the Greek words “seismos” and “logia.” What do these words mean?

a)

“Seismos” = fire, “logia” = ground

b)

“Seismos” = earthquake, “logia” = study

c)

“Seismos” = vibration, “logia” = destruction

d)

“Seismos” = wave, “logia” = analysis

5.

Aside from earthquakes, seismology also examines seismic waves caused by:

a)

Solar radiation and moon cycles

b)

Volcanic activity and geological processes

c)

Heavy rainfall and flooding

d)

Earthquake effects on the lives of the people

6.

The word “seismology” comes from the Latin words “seismos” (wave) and “logia” (analysis).

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The word “seismology” comes from the Latin words “seismos” (wave) and “logia” (analysis).Seismology only deals with earthquakes and does not include volcanic activity.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The Continental Drift Theory suggests that continents have always been fixed in their current positions.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What do seismologists analyze to understand Earth’s internal structure and tectonic plate dynamics?

a)

Weather patterns

b)

Ocean currents

c)

Seismic waves

d)

Magnetic fields

10.

Which instrument records seismic waves caused by earthquakes, explosions, or other Earth-shaking events?

(a)  

11.

The terms seismograph and seismometer are often used interchangeably. What is the key difference?

a)

A seismometer is more accurate than a seismograph

b)

A seismometer can record seismic waves, while a seismograph only detects and measures them

c)

A seismometer only measures man-made explosions

d)

A seismograph can record seismic waves, while a seismometer only detects and measures them

12.

A record produced by a seismograph on a display screen orpaperprintout is called

(a)  

13.

Who originally proposed the Continental Drift Theory in the early 1900s?

(a)  

14.

The most recent supercontinent, which began breaking apart around 200 million years ago, is called:

(a)  

15.

A geology student notices that the east coast of South America seems to align closely with the west coast of Africa. This observation best supports which theory?

a)

Plate Tectonics Theory

b)

Big Bang Theory

c)

Seafloor Spreading Theory

d)

Continental Drift Theory

16.

Which of the following is NOT evidence that Wegener used to support the Continental Drift Theory?

a)

The current speed of tectonic plate movements measured by GPS

b)

Similar fossil records found across different continents

c)

Matching geological formations and glacial marks across continents

d)

The apparent fit of continental coastlines like South America and Africa

17.

Which of the following was the vast ocean that surrounded the supercontinent Pangaea?

a)

Panthalassa

b)

Mediterranean Sea

c)

Tethys Sea

d)

Atlantic Ocean

18.

One major drawback of Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory was his failure to explain:

a)

Why Pangaea existed

b)

Why the drift began only during the Mesozoic era

c)

Why volcanoes form in island arcs

d)

Why fossils appear in rock layers

19.

Which of the following was a weakness in Wegener’s proposed driving forces for continental drift?

a)

Plate boundary movement

b)

Mantle convection currents

c)

Buoyancy, tidal currents, and gravity (too weak to move continents)

d)

Subduction zones

20.

A professor explains that Wegener’s theory was incomplete because it did not account for the role of the seafloor in continental movement. Which specific drawback is being referred to?

a)

The theory doesn’t consider oceans

b)

The theory ignored mountain formation

c)

The theory lacked fossil evidence

d)

The theory dismissed volcanic activity

21.

Which modern theory eventually validated and improved upon Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory?

a)

Big Bang Theory

b)

Plate Tectonics Theory

c)

Elastic Rebound Theory

d)

Seafloor Sedimentation Theory

22.

Which of the following highlights the significance of the Continental Drift Theory?

a)

Transformed the field of geology by explaining phenomena such as earthquakes

b)

It eliminated the need for fossil evidence in geology

c)

It proved that continents are fixed and immovable

d)

It completely rejected the existence of Pangaea

23.

One criticism of the Continental Drift Theory was that it relied on assumptions that were too general.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory was immediately accepted by the scientific community without criticism.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Larger earthquakes always cause damage only near the epicenter.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Modern evidence from satellite data, magnetic anomalies, and seafloor spreading has validated Wegener’s groundbreaking hypothesis

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Most of the Earth’s major geological activity occurs at the plate boundaries, the zone where plates meet and interact.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Some soils act as seismic wave filters, attenuating shaking at some frequencies while amplifying it at others

a)

True

b)

False

29.

In which decade was the Theory of Plate Tectonics presented?

a)

1960s

b)

1970s

c)

1950s

d)

1940s

30.

What is the primary cause of tectonic plate movement?

a)

Ocean currents in the Pacific Ocean

b)

Gravitational pull of the Moon

c)

Convection in the lithosphere and asthenosphere

d)

Earth’s rotation around the Sun

31.

At what approximate rate do tectonic plates move each year?

a)

10–20 inches

b)

Less than one inch

c)

1–6 inches

d)

12–24 inches

32.

A geologist observes two tectonic plates sticking together and then suddenly ripping apart, releasing energy. This interaction happens at specific locations where plates meet. What are these locations called?

a)

Fault lines

b)

Plateaus

c)

Plate boundaries

d)

Hotspots

33.

The places where tectonic plates collide, stick, or separate are called

(a)  

34.

The slow movement of tectonic plates is caused by (a)   currents in the lithosphere and asthenosphere.

35.

The semi-fluid layer beneath the lithosphere, where convection currents occur, is the

(a)  

36.

What is the name of the theory that explains the movement of Earth’s plates?

a)

Seismology Theory

b)

Plate Tectonics Theory

c)

Continental Drift Theory

d)

Elastic Rebound Theory

37.

Which of the following is the largest tectonic plate?

a)

Eurasian Plate

b)

North American Plate

c)

Pacific Plate

d)

African Plate

38.

The seven major tectonic plates are Indo-Australian Plate, South American Plate and:

a)

Pacific Plate

b)

North American Plate

c)

Eurasian Plate

d)

African Plate

e)

Antarctic Plate

39.

According to geologists, how many major tectonic plates and minor tectonic plates** exist on Earth?

a)

10 major plates and 12 minor plates

b)

7 major plates and 10 minor plates

c)

10 major plates and 30 minor plates

d)

3 major plates and 11 minor plates

40.

Which type of boundary occurs when two plates move apart, forming mid-ocean ridges?

(a)  

41.

The Himalayas were formed due to the collision of which two tectonic plates?

a)

Pacific and North American Plates

b)

African and Eurasian Plates

c)

Eurasian and Indo-Australian Plates

d)

South American and Pacific Plates

42.

Which type of plate boundary is best exemplified by California’s San Andreas Fault where the North American and Pacific tectonic plates grind past each other?

(a)  

43.

At convergent boundaries, what happens to the oceanic crust?

a)

It is preserved unchanged

b)

It is destroyed by subduction

c)

It is converted into continental crust

d)

It turns into sedimentary rocks

44.

The type of plate boundary where geysers gush out super-heated water and magma is called

(a)  

45.

Which ground failure occurs when soil temporarily behaves like a liquid during an earthquake?

a)

Ground cracking

b)

Landslides

c)

Soil liquefaction

d)

Surface rupture

46.

Which type of ground failure is most likely to occur in marginally stable sloped land during strong shaking?

a)

Ground cracking

b)

Landslides

c)

Soil liquefaction

d)

Surface rupture

47.

Differential settlement, which can disrupt long foundations, is most commonly caused by:

a)

Surface rupture

b)

Ground subsidence

c)

Landslides

d)

Fault creep

48.

This type of failure produces fissures, scarps, horsts, and grabens.

a)

Surface rupture

b)

Ground subsidence

c)

Ground cracking

d)

Fault creep

49.

Which indirect effect of earthquakes can generate wave run-ups as high as 75 feet, causing severe inland flooding?

a)

Seiches

b)

Fire

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Soil Liquefaction

50.

Which indirect effect occurs in enclosed or partially enclosed bodies of water due to seismic wave resonance?

a)

Seiches

b)

Fire

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Soil Liquefaction

51.

After a large earthquake in a city, gas mains ruptured and oil tanks were destroyed, causing fires that spread uncontrollably because hydrants had no water supply. What indirect effect occurred?

a)

Seiches

b)

Fire

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Soil Liquefaction

52.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that primarily determines the intensity and duration of ground shaking?

a)

Earthquake magnitude

b)

Distance from the focus/epicenter

c)

Weather conditions during the earthquake

d)

Subsurface materials beneath the structure

53.

Which type of subsurface material amplifies seismic shaking?

a)

Soft soils

b)

Hard rocks

c)

Crystalline bedrock

d)

Granite layers

54.

Seismic waves originate from this point where fault rupture occurs

(a)  

55.

This is the most insidious of the three factors because the site can be located at a long distance from the epicenter and still experience extensive ground shaking due to this

(a)  

56.

The location on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus.

(a)  

57.

A city located 200 km away from an earthquake’s epicenter experienced strong shaking and damage because it was built on loose sediments. Which factor contributed most to the damage?

a)

Subsurface materials

b)

Distance from the focus/epicenter

c)

Earthquake size (magnitude)

58.

Two towns experienced the same earthquake. Town A, near the epicenter, experienced collapsed buildings, while Town B, farther away, felt weaker shaking. Which factor explains the difference?

a)

Subsurface materials

b)

Distance from the focus/epicenter

c)

Earthquake size (magnitude)

59.

A magnitude 7.5 earthquake struck a region, causing widespread strong shaking across multiple provinces. Which factor primarily explains this widespread effect?

a)

Subsurface materials

b)

Distance from the focus/epicenter

c)

Earthquake size (magnitude)

60.

Which type of earthquake is most destructive and responsible for major global hazards?

a)

Volcanic

b)

Man-Made

c)

Tectonic

61.

Engineers are studying small earthquakes near a mining site caused by underground explosions. Which type of earthquake are they analyzing?

a)

Volcanic

b)

Man-Made

c)

Tectonic

62.

Scientists detect seismic waves from magma movement beneath a volcano. They use this information to issue an eruption warning. What type of earthquake did they study?

a)

Volcanic

b)

Man-Made

c)

Tectonic

63.

What caused the magnitude 5.0 man-made earthquake in 1968 that shook Las Vegas?

a)

Magma movement

b)

Boxcar nuclear bomb explosion

c)

Fault dislocation

64.

Which earthquake is the strongest ever recorded since 1900, with a magnitude of 9.5?

a)

Sumatra, Indonesia (2004)

b)

Mindanao, Philippines (1924)

c)

Chile (1960)

d)

Japan (2011)

65.

Which earthquake caused the highest number of fatalities since 1900?

a)

Sumatra, Indonesia (2004)

b)

Mindanao, Philippines (1924)

c)

Chile (1960)

d)

Japan (2011)

66.

A belt of seismic activity around the Pacific Ocean where most of the world’s earthquakes occur.

(a)  

67.

What type of earthquake occurs at a focal depth of 50 km?

a)

Shallow-focus

b)

Intermediate-focus

c)

Deep-focus

68.

Which type of earthquake generally causes the most damage?

a)

Shallow-focus

b)

Intermediate-focus

c)

Deep-focus

69.

The distance between the epicenter and a seismometer.

(a)  

70.

Which type of fault occurs under compressional stress?

a)

Normal fault

b)

Reverse fault

c)

Strike-Slip Faults

71.

Which type of fault occurs under tension stress?

a)

Normal fault

b)

Reverse fault

c)

Strike-Slip Faults

72.

Steep reverse fault, often associated with mountain building.

(a)  

73.

What causes rocks on opposite sides of a fault to deform before an earthquake?

a)

Gravity

b)

Shear stress

c)

Volcanic heat

d)

Erosion

74.

After rupture, rocks snap back to nearly their original position. This process is called:

a)

Elastic rebound

b)

Stress accumulation

c)

Elastic deformation

d)

Fault slip

75.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the Elastic Rebound process?

a)

Stress → Rupture → Deformation → Rebound → Release

b)

Stress → Deformation → Rupture → Energy Release → Rebound

c)

Deformation → Stress → Rupture → Rebound → Release

d)

Deformation → Rebound → Stress → Rupture → Release

76.

This theory is an explanation

for how energy is released during an

earthquake.

(a)  

77.

What type of seismic waves travel through the Earth’s interior and arrive before surface waves?

(a)  

78.

What is the maximum ground acceleration experienced during an earthquake called?

(a)  

79.

This travel faster than other seismic waves and hence are the first signal from an earthquake to arrive at any affected location or at a seismograph.

a)

Surface Waves

b)

S-Waves

c)

P-waves

80.

______ are transverse waves meaning that the oscillations of the particles of this are perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, and the main restoring force comes from shear stress

a)

S-waves

b)

P-waves

c)

Surface Waves

81.

What is the range of recorded Peak Ground Acceleration (PGA)?

a)

0.01g to 0.1g

b)

0.2g to 1.0g

c)

1.0g to 2.0g

d)

2.0g to 5.0g

82.

What earthquake measure is a subjective, non-empirical approach based on human observation of damage to buildings, land, and people?

(a)  

83.

Earthquake intensity is determined by:

a)

The total energy released at the focus

b)

The amplitude of seismic waves recorded by instruments

c)

Human observations of shaking and structural damage

d)

The depth of the earthquake focus

84.

Which of the following best describes the difference between magnitude and intensity?

a)

Magnitude is subjective, intensity is measured by instruments

b)

Magnitude is measured by instruments, intensity is subjective

c)

Both magnitude and intensity are measured by seismographs

d)

Both magnitude and intensity are subjective

85.

The Moment Magnitude Scale (Mw) is based on which of the following?

a)

Human observation of damage

b)

Amplitude of seismic waves only

c)

Total energy released by an earthquake

d)

Depth of the earthquake focus

86.

In ground motion equations, the constant “a” primarily represents:

a)

Site effects due to local geology

b)

Attenuation scaling, controlling how amplitude decays with distance

c)

Baseline offset due to site and regional effects

d)

Instrument response corrections

87.

The constant “b” in magnitude scaling equations accounts for:

a)

Site effects due to local geology

b)

Attenuation scaling, controlling how amplitude decays with distance

c)

Baseline offset due to site and regional effects

d)

Instrument response corrections

88.

A higher “a” means stronger attenuation over distance.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Richter working with his colleague Gutenberg addressed the shortcomings of the local magnitude scale by developing the ____-____ _____, to handle deep-focus earthquakes

(a)  

90.

Richter working with his colleague Gutenberg addressed the shortcomings of the local magnitude scale by developing the _______-____ _____, to handle distant earthquakes

(a)  

91.

The Local Magnitude (ML) scale is also known as:

(a)  

92.

What is the main difference between Moment Magnitude (Mw) and Local Magnitude (ML)?

a)

Mw is only used for small, local earthquakes, while ML is used for global, very large earthquakes.

b)

Mw is based on seismic moment (fault rupture area, slip, and rock rigidity), while ML is based on the maximum amplitude of seismic waves.

c)

Mw always gives smaller values than ML for the same earthquake.

d)

Mw measures the intensity of shaking felt by people, while ML measures structural damage.