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Worksheets

A&P II Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 3hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the following

a)

Hematology

1.

study of blood

b)

Cardiology

2.

study of the heart

c)

Angiology

3.

study of the blood vessels

2.

Which of the following are functions of blood:

a)

transport

b)

defense

c)

maintain homeostasis

d)

manufacture hormones

3.

When blood is allowed to separate which part is represented by the plasma?

4.

When blood is allowed to separate which part is represented by the buffy coat?

5.

When blood is allowed to separate which part is represented by the hematocrit?

6.

What type of tissue if blood?

a)

muscle

b)

nervous

c)

connective

d)

epithelial

7.

The salt concentration of blood is ​ (a)   ​ to ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
.85%
.95%
.80%
.90%
.60%
.65%
.70%
.75%
.50%
.55%
8.

The pH range of blood is 7.35 - 7.45. This means blood is slightly _______.

a)

acidic

b)

basic

c)

neutral

9.

When blood is oxygen rich it appears ​ ​ (a)   , but when blood is oxygen depleted it appears ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
bright red
deep, purplish red
light blue
dark blue
pink
white
10.

The temperature of blood is higher than normal body temperature due to blood vessel resistance.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Match the following content of plasma with the percentage they are found in:

a)

92%

1.

water

b)

7%

2.

proteins

c)

1%

3.

other solutes

12.

Blood is a heterogenous mixture that consists of 55% formed elements and 45% plasma.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is the function of plasma?

a)

transport organic/inorganic molecules

b)

heat

c)

transport formed elements

d)

transport oxygen/carbon dioxide

14.

Which plasma protein is essential for blood clotting?

a)

albumin

b)

alpha/beta globulins

c)

gamma globulins

d)

fibrinogen

e)

regulatory proteins

15.

Which plasma protein regulates blood osmotic pressure and is a carrier for FAs and steriod hormones?

a)

albumin

b)

alpha/beta globulins

c)

gamma globulins

d)

fibrinogen

e)

regulatory proteins

16.

Which plasma protein transports lipids, metal ions, and fat soluble vitamins?

a)

albumin

b)

alpha/beta globulins

c)

gamma globulins

d)

fibrinogen

e)

regulatory proteins

17.

Which plasma protein is activated in an immune response?

a)

albumin

b)

alpha/beta globulins

c)

gamma globulins

d)

fibrinogen

e)

regulatory proteins

18.

Which plasma protein consits of enzymes and protein hormones?

a)

albumin

b)

alpha/beta globulins

c)

gamma globulins

d)

fibrinogen

e)

regulatory proteins

19.

Which plasma protein is NOT produced by the liver?

a)

albumin

b)

alpha/beta globulins

c)

gamma globulins

d)

fibrinogen

e)

regulatory proteins

20.

Place the following in order of most abundant to least abundant in plasma

a)

albumin

b)

globulins

c)

fibrinogen

1)
2)
3)
21.

Select which type of other solutes that can be found in plasma

a)

electrolytes (sodium, calcium, etc.)

b)

dissolved gases (oxygen, carbon dioxide, etc.)

c)

organic nutrients (lipids, carbs, amino acids, etc.)

d)

organic wastes (urea, bilirubin, etc.)

22.

Place the formed elements in order from most abundant to least abundant

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Platelets

c)

Leukocytes

1)
2)
3)
23.

Which of the following is the production of formed elements?

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

hemostasis

c)

hematocrit

d)

hemolytic

24.

Match the type of stem cell with its description:

a)

totipotent stem cell

1.

can give rise to any cell type

b)

pluripotent stem cell

2.

can give rise to multiple types of cells

c)

multipotent stem cell

3.

next level of differentiation/specilization

d)

hematopoietic stem cell

4.

give rise to all formed elements of blood

25.

One daughter hematopoietic stem cell remains a stem cell to allow the other daughter cell to undergo differentiation.

a)

true

b)

false

26.

Hematopoietic stem cells are which type of stem cell?

a)

totipotent stem cell

b)

pluripotent stem cell

c)

multipotent stem cell

27.

Hematopoietic stem cells can become ​ (a)   that give rise to megakaryoblasts, proerythroblasts, myeloblasts, and monoblasts. They can also become ​ (b)   that give rise to lymphoblasts.

Choose from the below words
myeloid stem cells
lymphoid stem cells
totipotent stem cells
pluripotent stem cells
multipotent stem cells
28.

Match the following

a)

formation of red blood cells

1.

erythropoiesis

b)

formation of white blood cells

2.

leukopoiesis

c)

formation of platelets

3.

thrombopoiesis

29.

Erythropoiesis, leukopoiesis, and thrombopoiesis occur in the red bone marrow of adults.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

Match the following regulatory factors with what they help produce

a)

cytokines

1.

leukocytes

b)

thrombopoietin

2.

platelets

c)

erythropoietin

3.

erythrocytes

31.

Erythropoietin is produced by the ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words
kidneys
liver
spleen
red bone marrow
brain
stomach
skin
32.

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when

a)

RBC counts are low

b)

reduced oxygen levels

c)

insufficient hemoglobin amounts

d)

blood flow to the kidney is compromised

e)

erythropoietin levels are low

33.

In the process of erythropoiesis, a ​ (a)   specializes into a ​ (b)   . This cell specializes into a ​ (c)   that then loses its nucleus and enters the bloodstream to mature into a ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
myeloid stem cell
proerythroblast
reticulocyte
erythrocyte
34.

Which of the following are chemical messengers that regulate differentiation, proliferation, and gene expression to affect the formation of WBCs?

a)

colony-stimulating factors

b)

interleukins

c)

chemokines

d)

lymphoblastoma

35.

In the process of leukopoiesis, a ​ (a)   is stimulated by CSFs to produce ​ (b)   . These cells can specialize into ​ (c)   ​, (d)   ​, and (e)   .

Choose from the below words
myeloid stem cell
myeloblasts
basophils
neutrophils
eosinophils
monocytes
natural killer cells
t lymphocytes
b lymphocytes
monoblasts
36.

In the process of leukopoiesis, a ​ (a)   is stimulated by CSFs to produce ​ (b)   . These cells can specialize into ​​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
myeloid stem cell
monoblasts
monocytes
natural killer cells
t lymphocytes
b lymphocytes
basophils
neutrophils
eosinophils
myeloblasts
37.

In the process of leukopoiesis, a ​ (a)   differentiates into a ​ (b)   . This cell can become a ​ (c)   or a small lymphocyte that differentiates into either a ​ (d)   or a ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
lymphoid stem cell
lymphoblast
natural killer cell
t lymphocyte
b lymphocyte
monocyte
basophil
neutrophil
eosinophil
reticulocte
38.

Thrombopoietin initiates differentiation of ​ (a)  
into ​ (b)   ​ that mature into ​ (c)   . These cells then pinch off packets of cell membrane that enter the bloodstream and are now called ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
myeloid stem cell
megakaryoblast
megakaryocytes
platelets
39.

Match the following formed element with its function

a)

erythrocyte

1.

transport oxygen and some carbon dioxide

b)

leukocyte

2.

fight infection

c)

platelets

3.

hemostasis

40.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of erythrocytes?

a)

multinucleate

b)

no mitochondria

c)

biconcave

d)

life span is ~120 days

e)

most numerous formed element

41.

Each molecule of hemoglobin can carry ​ (a)   oxygen molecules. A single RBC can contain ​ (b)   hemoglobin molecules, so it can carry over 1 billion oxygen molecules.

Choose from the below words
4
300 million
1
8
2
150,000
1.2 million
600 million
42.

Match the following description of hemoglobin with what it contains

a)

oxyhemoglobin

1.

bound to many oxygen molecules

b)

deoxyhemoglobin

2.

some oxygen has been released

c)

carbaminohemoglobin

3.

carbon dioxide has been picked up

43.

When hemoglobin picks up carbon dioxide it binds to heme competing with oxygen binding sites.

a)

true

b)

false

44.

When erythrocytes are old or damaged the majority are phagocytized, but a few will undergo (a)   (rupture of RBCs).

45.

The general condition describing a decrease of RBCs or hemoglobin is (a)   .

46.

Match the following types of anemia with their description

a)

sickle cell

1.

genetic disorder, most common in African descent, characterized by crescent-shaped RBCs

b)

iron deficiency

2.

deficient RBCs due to lack of iron, common in children, teens, vegans, and vegetarians

c)

pernicious

3.

vitamin B12 deficiency leading to decreased RBCs

d)

aplastic

4.

insufficient RBC stem cells caused by either genetic, radiation, or toxins

47.

Match the following disorder with its description

a)

hemorrhagic

1.

deficient RBCs due to blood loss

b)

hemolytic

2.

excessive destruction of RBCs

c)

polycythemia

3.

excess of RBCs that has primary and secondary causes

d)

malaria

4.

parasite from mosquitos infects and lysis RBCs

48.

Which of the following are characteristics of Leukocytes?

a)

True cells with nuclei and organelles

b)

lack hemoglobin

c)

can leave bloodstream

d)

can settle in tissues,wander freely, or follow chemical signals

49.

Label the 5 types of leukocytes:

50.

When white blood cells squeeze through capillary walls and enter the surrounding tissues it is known as (a)   .

51.

Place the following leukocyte response to infection in order:

a)

infected cells send chemical signal into the blood

b)

WBCs respond to chemical attractants released from injured cells

c)

WBCs squeeze between the capillary wall to follow the chemical signal (positive chemotaxis)

d)

WBCs either release chemicals into the tissues or phagocytize pathogens

1)
2)
3)
4)
52.


(a)   posses granules that contain chemicals to support cellular function; whereas, ​ (b)   have very small granules.

Choose from the below words
Granulocytes
agranulocytes
53.

Which of the following is associated with allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and hypothyroidism (granules contain histine and heparin)?

a)

basophil

b)

neutrophil

c)

eosinophil

d)

monocyte

e)

lymphocyte

54.

Which of the following is phagocytic and has granules that contain lysozyme, oxidants, and defensins?

a)

basophil

b)

neutrophil

c)

eosinophil

d)

monocyte

e)

lymphocyte

55.

Which of the following is associated with allergies, parasitic worms, and autoimmune diseases (granules contain antihistimine and parasitic toxins)?

a)

basophil

b)

neutrophil

c)

eosinophil

d)

monocyte

e)

lymphocyte

56.

Which of the following leaves circulation to become macrophages that phagocytize debris, pathoges, and dead or worn out cells (secrete defensins)?

a)

basophil

b)

neutrophil

c)

eosinophil

d)

monocyte

e)

lymphocyte

57.

Which of the contains natural killer cells that are involved with non-specific immune response or T and B cells that are involved with specific immune responses?

a)

basophil

b)

neutrophil

c)

eosinophil

d)

monocyte

e)

lymphocyte

58.

Categorize the options into the right categories

Categorize the following
eosinophils
monocytes
neutrophils
basophils
lymphocytes
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes
59.

Place the following from least abundant to most abundant

a)

basophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

monocytes

d)

lymphocytes

e)

neutrophils

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
60.

Match the following leukocyte disorders to their description

a)

leukopenia

1.

low WBC

b)

leukocytosis

2.

abnormally high WBCs that are non-functional

c)

leukemia

3.

cancer of leukocytes (myeloid or lymphoid)

d)

Hodgkin's lymphoma

4.

cancerous B cells in lymphatic tissue

e)

non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

5.

cancerous T cells in lymphatic tissue

61.

Select the functions of platelets

a)

repair blood vessels with damage

b)

secrete chemicals for tissue repair

c)

transport nutrients

d)

produce hormones

62.

After an injury to a blood vessel place the following steps in order to seal the ruptured vessel and stop blood loss.

a)

vascular spasm

b)

platelet plug

c)

coagulation

1)
2)
3)
63.

Which of the following describes when smooth muscle in vessel walls contracts to reduce blood flow at the site of an injury?

a)

vascular spasm

b)

platelet plug

c)

coagulation

64.

Which of the following describes when circulating platelets become sticky and aggregate at site of injury to stick to exposed collagen and endothelial lining?

a)

vascular spasm

b)

platelet plug

c)

coagulation

65.

Which of the following describes when the a durable blot clot made of fibrin has formed?

a)

vascular spasm

b)

platelet plug

c)

coagulation

66.

Hemorrhage can occur if any of the three steps of hemostasis fail causing excessive bleeding.

a)

true

b)

false

67.

Vitamin _ is needed to synthesize clotting factors.

(a)  

68.

The extrinsic pathway with trauma takes minutes whereas the intrinsic pathway only takes seconds

a)

true

b)

false

69.

The intrinsic and extrinsic pathway both converge into the final common pathway.

a)

true

b)

false

70.

In the final common pathway, ​ (a)   converts ​ (b)   to ​ (c)   . Then fibrinogen is converted into insoluble ​ (d)   , and the clot is stabilized by ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
prothrombinase
prothrombin
thrombin
fibrin strands
Factor XIII
71.

​ (a)   is when contractile proteins in platelets pull edges of a clot together and promote healing.

Choose from the below words
Clot retraction
fibrinolysis
72.

​ (a)   is when fibrin gets dissolved by plasmin (clot buster).

Choose from the below words
Fibrinolysis
clot retraction
73.

Match the following clotting disorders to their description

a)

thrombus

1.

stationary blockage in an unbroken vessel

b)

thrombosis

2.

too many cells that will likely lead to a clot

c)

embolus

3.

thrombus that has become mobile; can cause heart attack or stroke

d)

hemophilia

4.

genetic disorder causing deficiencies in clotting factor formation

e)

thrombocytopenia

5.

too few platelets

74.

Proteins of the surface of a red blood cell that determine blood type are known as ​ (a)   , and ​ (b)   are in the plasma to identify antigens that do not belong.

Choose from the below words
antigens
antibodies
75.

If ​ (a)   antigens are present on RBC surface then you have A blood type.

Choose from the below words
A
B
O
76.

If ​​ (a)   antigens are present on RBC surface then you have B blood type.

Choose from the below words
B
O
A
77.

If ​​​no antigens are present on RBC surface then you have ​ (a)   blood type.

Choose from the below words
O
A
B
78.

Match the following antibodies that are present with their blood cell type

a)

A

1.

Anti-B

b)

B

2.

Anti-A

c)

O

3.

Anti-A and Anti-B

d)

AB

4.

none

79.

Type ​ (a)   is considered the universal donor, and ​ (b)   is the universal receipient.

Choose from the below words
O-
AB+
AB-
O+
A+
A-
B+
B-
80.

If you have D antigen then you are Rh+.

a)

true

b)

false

81.

If you do not have D antigen then you are Rh-.

a)

true

b)

false

82.

If you are Rh- then you can receive Rh+ and Rh- blood.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

The first exposure to D antigens leads to (a)   .

84.

A mother will be given RhoGAM to prevent Rh antibody production if she is Rh+ and baby is Rh-.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

Which does NOT describe the location of the heart?

a)

it is just posterior to the sternum and medial to lungs

b)

rotated so left atrium and left ventricle face anteriorly

c)

in the mediastinum

d)

apex is slightly left of center

e)

base points toward right shoulder

86.

Label the correct locations/borders of the heart:

87.

​ (a)   are the two upper RECEIVING chambers of the heart, and the ​ (b)   are the two lower PUMPING chambers.

Choose from the below words
Atria
ventricles
88.

Match the following heart chambers to their circulation

a)

right atrium

1.

receives deoxygenated blood from the body

b)

left atrium

2.

receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

c)

right ventricle

3.

pumps deoxygenated blood into lungs

d)

left ventricle

4.

pumps oxygenated blood around the body and the heart

89.

Label the following layers of the heart wall

90.

The pericardium (pericardial sac) surronds the heart and defines the

a)

fibrous pericardium

b)

seroud pericardium

c)

parietal pericardium

d)

visceral pericardium

e)

pericardial cavity

91.

Match the following sublayer with its description

a)

fibrous pericardium

1.

tough outer layer made of dense connective tissue

b)

serous pericardium

2.

delicate inner layer composed of two layers

c)

parietal pericardium

3.

fused to the fibrous pericardium

d)

visceral pericardium

4.

also known as epicardium, fused to the heart wall

e)

pericardial fluid

5.

fills space between parietal and visceral pericardium

92.

Place the heart layers in order from innermost to outermost layer

a)

endocardium

b)

myocardium

c)

epicardium

1)
2)
3)
93.

Match the following

a)

endocardium

1.

consists of simple squamous epithelium and sparse areolar connective tissue

b)

myocardium

2.

forms atria and ventricles; consists of cardiac muscle, blood vessels, and nervous tissue

c)

epicardium

3.

exposed surface secretes pericardial fluid; covers outer surface of the heart

94.

Walls that divide the heart into chambers are known as

(a)  

95.

The atrioventricular septums are thicker than the interventricular septum due to greater pressure in the atrias.

a)

true

b)

false

96.

Match the following

a)

interatrial septum

1.

separates the atria

b)

interventricular septum

2.

separates the ventricles

c)

atrioventricular septum

3.

between atria and ventricles

97.

The heart valves prevent inversion (​ (a)   ) of atrioventricular valvesduring ventricular contraction, which prevents backflow of blood (​ (b)   ) into atria.

Choose from the below words
prolapse
regurgitation
98.

Match the following valves to their description

a)

tricuspid

1.

contains 3 cusps; separates right atria from right ventricle

b)

bicuspid

2.

contains 2 cusps; separates left atria from left ventricle

c)

pulmonary

3.

3 crescent cusps; separates right ventricle from pulmonary trunk

d)

aortic

4.

3 crescent cusps; separates left ventricle from aorta

99.

During ventricular relaxation, AV valves ​ (a)   and SL valves are ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
open
closed
100.

During ventricular contraction, AV valves are ​ (a)   and SL valves are ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
closed
open
101.

Match the following valve disorders to their description

a)

prolapse

1.

cusps are forced backwards by force of blood

b)

regurgitation

2.

backflow if blood

c)

stenosis

3.

hardening/calcification of valve

102.

Match the following parts of the coronary circuit to their descriptions

a)

cardiomycytes

1.

highly active cells; require oxygen and nutirents and produce wastes

b)

coronary arteries

2.

supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium; arise from aorta

c)

coronary veins

3.

drain the myocardium of deoxygenated blood and retun it to the chambers of the heart

103.

What is one of the grooves where coronary vessels are situated?

(a)  

104.

Match the following

a)

RCA (right coronary artery)

1.

supplies right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and portions of the conducting system

b)

marginal artery

2.

small; extends inferiorly from RCA

c)

posterior interventricular artery

3.

extends between ventricles on posterior side of heart

105.

Match the following

a)

LCA (left coronary artery)

1.

supplies blood to left ventricle, left atrium and interventricular septum

b)

anterior interventricular artery

2.

extends between ventricles on anterior side of heart

c)

circumflex artery

3.

wraps from anterior to posterior and ends in another marginal artery

106.

Match the following

a)

middle cardiac vein

1.

parallel to PIA

b)

posterior cardiac vein

2.

parallel to marginal artery (posterior)

c)

great cardiac vein

3.

parallel to AIA

d)

small cardiac vein

4.

parallel to RCA and marginal artery

e)

coronary sinus

5.

all coronary veins convergee here

107.

Which of the following describes the structure of cardiac muscle fibers?

a)

lots of mitochondria and blood vessels

b)

shorter, branched, uninucleate

c)

posses intercalated discs

d)

limited repair and/or mitotic ability

e)

cardiomyocytes are striated; have regular pattern of sarcomeres

108.

Intercalated discs are specialized junctions that connect cells and coordinate synchronized contractions known as (a)   .

109.

The ability of the heart to depolarize spontaneously at a fixed rate to pace heart contractions is known as (a)   .

110.

The heart is made up of mainly ​ (a)   the conduct impulses and perform contractions, but there are also a small percentage of ​ (b)   that form the conduction system that starts action potential.

Choose from the below words
myocardial contractile cells
myocardial conducting cells
111.

The fastest cells of the heart set the pace.

a)

true

b)

false

112.

The conduction system begins with the ​ (a)   (pacemaker) which has the highest rate of depolarization and set the normal eletrical pattern. Then travels to the ​ (b)   and the ​ (c)   to distribute impulses across atria as they travel towards ventricles.

Choose from the below words
SA node
internodal pathways
Bachmann's bundle
AV node
AV bundle branches
bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
113.

The ___________ ___________ assures that the atria will contract at the same time.

(a)  

114.

Next, the wave of depolarization travels to the ​ (a)   where it is delayed to allow for atrial contraction. Then, it travels to the ​ (b)   where it runs along interventricular septum. Next, ​ (c)   where it conducts impulse out to ventricles, and lastly ​ (d)   distribute impulse to ventricular myocardium and trigger ventricular contraction.

Choose from the below words
AV node
bundle of His
AV bundle branches
Purkinje fibers
SA node
internodal pathways
115.

Which of the following are true about ECG?

a)

it is a recording of the eletrical impulses in the heart over time

b)

composed of ALL action potentials generated by the nodes and contractile cells at a given time

c)

different parts of the ECG correspond to different cardiac events

d)

also known as EKG

116.

Match the following

a)

P wave

1.

depolarization of atria

b)

QRS complex

2.

depolarization of ventricles

c)

T wave

3.

ventricular repolarization

117.

The period of contraction when blood is pumped is known as ​ (a)   , and the period of relaxation when the chambers fill with blood is known as ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
systole
diastole
118.

Which of the following are true concerning the pressure and flow during the cardiac cycle?

a)

fluids follow pressure gradients (high to low pressure)

b)

during diastole, blood flows passively from veins to atria and from atria to ventricles

c)

during systole, pressure rises and blood is actively pumped

d)

during diastole, pressure rises and blood is actively pumped

e)

during systole, blood flows passively from veins to atria and from atria to ventricles

119.

Between heartbeats, the heart is briefly at rest; ​ (a)   blood flow to the heart; blood is ​ (b)   flowing into right and left ​ (c)   . ​ (d)   are open and blood flows into ventricles, but both ​ (e)   are closed.

Choose from the below words
oxygenated
passively
atrium
AV valves
semilunar valves
ventricles
actively
deoxygenated
120.

Select the other terms for systole

a)

contraction

b)

depolarization

c)

relaxation

d)

repolarization

121.

Select the other terms for diastole

a)

contraction

b)

depolarization

c)

relaxation

d)

repolarization

122.

After the "atrial kick" to fill the remaining area of the ventricles, what happens to the atria?

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

contraction

d)

ejection

123.

Ventricular systole has two phases. ​It begins with ​ (a)   which occurs when the pressure in the ventricles closes AV valves but does not open the semilunar valves. Next, ​ (b)   is when the pressure in ventricles exceeds pressure in arteries, so blood is ejected into pulmonary trunk and aorta (semilunar valves open).

Choose from the below words
isovolumetric contraction
ventricular ejection
124.

Ventricular diastole has two phases. The early phase is when semilunar valves close as interventriuclar pressure drops and AV valves remain closed (ALL valves closed). This allows blood to flow into atria, but not into the ventricles and is known as ​ (a)   . ​ (b)   is when all the chambers are relaxed, so AV valves open and blood passively flows into ventricles.

Choose from the below words
isovolumetric relaxation
Late phase
125.

Label the parts of contraction and relaxation on the ECG

126.

(a)   is the amount of blood pumped into systemic circulation by the left ventricle in one minute.

127.

Which of the following is the best indicator of tissue perfusion?

a)

cardiac output

b)

stroke volume

c)

heart rate

d)

blood pressure

128.

Cardiac output depends on heart rate and stroke volume. ​ (a)   is established by the cardiac conduction system and measured in bpm. ​ (b)   is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle in a single contraction.

Choose from the below words
Heart rate
Stroke volume
129.

If a person has a heart rate of 110 bpm and a stroke volume of 75 mL/beat. What would the patient's cardiac output be?

a)

35 mL/min

b)

8,250 mL/min

c)

825 mL/min

d)

3,500 mL/min

130.

(a)   is the difference between max CO and resting CO.

131.

Match the following

a)

angina pectoris

1.

chest pain related to coronary disease

b)

ischemia

2.

decreased or insufficient blood flow

c)

hypoxia

3.

defecient oxygen

132.

Match the following

a)

Myocardial infarction

1.

heart attack; blood flow to heart muscle is blocked, causes damage or death to muscle

b)

Pericarditis

2.

inflammation of pericardium; caused by viral or bacterial infection, or autoimmune disease

c)

cardiac tamponade

3.

accumulation of fluid in pericardial cavity that restricts movement to the heart

d)

bradycardia

4.

heart rate is slower than normal

e)

tachycardia

5.

heart rate is faster than normal

133.

​ (a)   typically carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the ​ (b)   . ​ (c)   carry deoxygenated blood to ​ (d)   to return to the heart. Arterioles and venules meet at ​ (e)   to allow for perfusion.

Choose from the below words
Arteries
arterioles
Venules
veins
capillaries
134.

The ​ (a)   takes oxygen poor blood to the lungs and oxygen rich blood to the heart. The ​ (b)   takes oxygen ​ (c)   blood to the tissues and oxygen ​ (d)   blood to the heart.

Choose from the below words
pulmonary circuit
systemic circuit
rich
poor
coronary circuit
135.

Match the following blood vessel feature to its description

a)

lumen

1.

hollow central passageway

b)

vasa vasorum

2.

nourishes vessels and removes wastes

c)

nervi vasorum

3.

nerves of vessels; controls constriction and dialation

136.

Arteries lumen is ​ (a)   , ​ (b)   . Veins lumen is ​ (c)   , ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
ciruclar
smaller
compressed
larger
137.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following
thicker in arteries; thinner in veins
smooth muscle and elastin fibers
external elastic membrane in larger arteries only
vasoconstriction/dialition by nervi vasorum and chemical signals
primarily collagen fibers, some elastin
thicker in veins
anchor, protect, and prevent overstretch
outer layers blend with connective tissue to prevent rolling
simple squamous epithelium (endothelium)
basement membrane
thin outer layer of areolar connective tissue with collagen and elastin fibers
internal elastic membrane in larger arteries only
thickened portions form valves in veins
continuous with heart (endothelium)
release endothelins for local vasoconstriction to up BP
tunica media
tunica externa
tunica intima
138.

Which of the following is not a type of artery?

a)

elastic artery

b)

muscular artery

c)

arterioles

d)

venules

139.

Match the following

a)

elastic artery

1.

conducting vessel

b)

muscular artery

2.

distribution vessel

c)

arterioles

3.

resistance vessels

140.

Arteries transport blood ​ (a)   from the heart that is typically ​ (b)   . They have thick tunica ​ (c)   compared with tunica externa; lack ​ (d)   ; may have more elastic tissue.

Choose from the below words
away
oxygenated
media
valves
deoxygenated
to
interna
141.

Which of the following is true for capillaries?

a)

smallest blood vessel

b)

the connection between arteries and veins

c)

site of nutrient and waste exchange

d)

composed of single layer of simple squamous epithelium and sparse basal lamina

e)

supply blood directly to tissues

142.

Match the following type of cappillary to their description.

a)

continuous

1.

most abundant; uninterrupted endothelium with incomplete tight junctions

b)

fenestrated

2.

where rapid fluid exhchange occurs; endothelium has lots of pores

c)

sinusoid

3.

where cells must leave circulation and enter tissues; larger pores and incomplete basement membrane

143.

Match the following type of capillary to where it can be found.

a)

continuous

1.

found in almost all vascularized tissues

b)

fenestrated

2.

small intestine, kidneys, and endocrine organs

c)

sinusoid

3.

found in liver, bone marrow, and spleen

144.

Blood flow into and out of capillary beds is known as (a)   .

145.

Reorder the following showing the blood flow from arteries to capillary beds

a)

artery

b)

ateriole

c)

metarteriole

d)

venule

1)
2)
3)
4)
146.

(a)   open and close to regulate blood flow to tissues.

147.

When arterioles are directly connected to the venule it is known as?

a)

arteriovenous anastomosis

b)

metarterioles

c)

thorough channels

d)

arteriointerventricular sulcus

148.

The ​ (a)   transports blood ​ (b)   the heart that is typically ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
venous system
toward
deoxygenated
oxygenated
away from
149.

If valves fail, blood pools and veins can become distended causing varicose veins.

a)

true

b)

false

150.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the venous system?

a)

have valves consisted of folds of the tunica intima

b)

also known as capacitance vessels (blood reservoirs)

c)

thin tunica media

d)

high blood pressure

e)

rely on force of gravity

151.

​ (a)   drain capillary beds into veins. They have thin tunica media and tunica externa. ​ (b)   are large with irregular lumens that are easily distensible. They have thin walls and low-pressure vessels.

Choose from the below words
Venules
Veins
152.

(a)   (tissue perfussion) is the volume of blood flowing through a vessel, an organ, or the entire circulation.

153.

Which of the following are correct concerning blood flow?

a)

measured in volume per unit time (mL/min)

b)

cardiovascular centers in the brain adjust blood flow with physical activty

c)

changes in cardiac output can affect rate of blood flow

154.

(a)   is the amount of force per unit area exerted on the wall of a vessel by the blood witin it. Measured in mmHg.

155.

​ (a)   is the peak pressure as blood is ejected from the heart during ventricular contraction. ​ (b)   is the minimum pressure at the end of ventricular relaxation.

Choose from the below words
Systolic pressure
Diastolic pressure
156.

Blood pressure is diastolic/systolic.

a)

true

b)

false

157.

(a)   is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.

158.

If a patient has a heart rate of 98 bpm and a BP of 120/80 mmHg, what is the patients pulse pressure

a)

178 mmHg

b)

218 mmHg

c)

80 mmHg

d)

40 mmHg

159.

(a)   represents the average force driving blood into vessels.

160.

Which of the following factors affect blood pressure?

a)

peripheral resistance

b)

cardiac output

c)

blood volume

161.

(a)   is the measure of friction between blood and vessel wall.

162.

Which of the following contribute to TPR?

a)

vascular resistance

b)

viscosity of blood

c)

turbulence

d)

cardiac output

163.

The longer the blood vessel the ​ (a)   the resistance which ​ (b)   BP.

Choose from the below words
greater
increases
decreases
lesser
164.

The ​ (a)   the diameter, the ​ (b)   the resistance is.

Choose from the below words
smaller
greater
larger
lesser
165.

Closer to the walls of vessels the quicker the flow of blood and elements will be.

a)

true

b)

false

166.

The ​ (a)   the viscosity the harder it is for molecules to slide past one another and makes the fluid more difficult to keep moving.

Choose from the below words
greater
lesser
167.

Blood velocity varies ​ (a)   with the total cross-sectional area of blood vessels. As the cross-sectional area ​ (b)   the blood flow will ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
inversely
increases
slow down
directly
speed up
decreases
168.

Match the following types of capillary exchange

a)

simple diffusion

1.

gases and small, lipid soluble molecules cross the plasma membrane

b)

facilitated diffusion

2.

use of channel to transport larger polar or water-soluble substanses across the membrane

c)

osmosis

3.

movement of water in and out of capillaries

d)

endo/exocytosis

4.

movemet of molecules across the membrane in vesicles

e)

use of fenestrations.gaps

5.

large molecules leave through intercellular clefts, pores, or gaps

169.

​ (a)   is the movement of materials OUT of the bloodstream; whereas, ​ (b)   is the movement of materials ​into the bloodstream.

Choose from the below words
Filtration
reabsorption
170.

​ (a)   is the push OUT of the bloodstream generated by fluids in a vessel, and ​ (b)   is the suction INTO the bloodstream generated by immovable plasma proteins.

Choose from the below words
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
blood colloid osmotic pressure
171.

Net filtration pressure is equal to CHP - BCOP.

a)

true

b)

false

172.

The (a)   system picks up excess fluid and proteins in the interstital space and returns it to the vascular system.

173.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following
medulla oblongata houses the cardiovascular center
baroreceptors detectg changes in pressure
chemoreceptors detect changes in blood chemistr
short term regulation: counteract fluctations in blood pressure by altering peripheral resistanc
regulates BP in short term via TPR and in long term via blood volume
mechanisms involve vasoconstriction/dilation and water/salt loss or retention
kidneys maintain blood pressure homeostasis by regulating blood volume
directly by altering blood volume
indirectly through renin-angiotensin
neural regulation
hormonal regulation
renal regulation
174.

Match the following

a)

aneurysm

1.

ballooning of blood vessel wall increasing risk of rupture

b)

arteriosclerosis

2.

hardening of arterial walls (often due to aging)

c)

cardiac shock

3.

pump failure, heart cannont sustain adequate circulation

d)

hypovolemic shock

4.

results from large-scale bloodloss

175.

​ (a)   is when blood pressure is high, and ​ (b)   is when blood pressure is low.

Choose from the below words
Hypertension
hypotension