WorksheetsA&P II Exam 1 Review
Total questions: 175
Worksheet time: 3hrs 18mins
Hematology
study of blood
Cardiology
study of the heart
Angiology
study of the blood vessels
Which of the following are functions of blood:
transport
defense
maintain homeostasis
manufacture hormones
When blood is allowed to separate which part is represented by the plasma?
When blood is allowed to separate which part is represented by the buffy coat?
When blood is allowed to separate which part is represented by the hematocrit?
What type of tissue if blood?
muscle
nervous
connective
epithelial
The salt concentration of blood is (a) to (b) .
The pH range of blood is 7.35 - 7.45. This means blood is slightly _______.
acidic
basic
neutral
When blood is oxygen rich it appears (a) , but when blood is oxygen depleted it appears (b) .
The temperature of blood is higher than normal body temperature due to blood vessel resistance.
True
False
Match the following content of plasma with the percentage they are found in:
92%
water
7%
proteins
1%
other solutes
Blood is a heterogenous mixture that consists of 55% formed elements and 45% plasma.
True
False
What is the function of plasma?
transport organic/inorganic molecules
heat
transport formed elements
transport oxygen/carbon dioxide
Which plasma protein is essential for blood clotting?
albumin
alpha/beta globulins
gamma globulins
fibrinogen
regulatory proteins
Which plasma protein regulates blood osmotic pressure and is a carrier for FAs and steriod hormones?
albumin
alpha/beta globulins
gamma globulins
fibrinogen
regulatory proteins
Which plasma protein transports lipids, metal ions, and fat soluble vitamins?
albumin
alpha/beta globulins
gamma globulins
fibrinogen
regulatory proteins
Which plasma protein is activated in an immune response?
albumin
alpha/beta globulins
gamma globulins
fibrinogen
regulatory proteins
Which plasma protein consits of enzymes and protein hormones?
albumin
alpha/beta globulins
gamma globulins
fibrinogen
regulatory proteins
Which plasma protein is NOT produced by the liver?
albumin
alpha/beta globulins
gamma globulins
fibrinogen
regulatory proteins
Place the following in order of most abundant to least abundant in plasma
albumin
globulins
fibrinogen
Select which type of other solutes that can be found in plasma
electrolytes (sodium, calcium, etc.)
dissolved gases (oxygen, carbon dioxide, etc.)
organic nutrients (lipids, carbs, amino acids, etc.)
organic wastes (urea, bilirubin, etc.)
Place the formed elements in order from most abundant to least abundant
Erythrocytes
Platelets
Leukocytes
Which of the following is the production of formed elements?
hematopoiesis
hemostasis
hematocrit
hemolytic
Match the type of stem cell with its description:
totipotent stem cell
can give rise to any cell type
pluripotent stem cell
can give rise to multiple types of cells
multipotent stem cell
next level of differentiation/specilization
hematopoietic stem cell
give rise to all formed elements of blood
One daughter hematopoietic stem cell remains a stem cell to allow the other daughter cell to undergo differentiation.
true
false
Hematopoietic stem cells are which type of stem cell?
totipotent stem cell
pluripotent stem cell
multipotent stem cell
Hematopoietic stem cells can become (a) that give rise to megakaryoblasts, proerythroblasts, myeloblasts, and monoblasts. They can also become (b) that give rise to lymphoblasts.
formation of red blood cells
erythropoiesis
formation of white blood cells
leukopoiesis
formation of platelets
thrombopoiesis
Erythropoiesis, leukopoiesis, and thrombopoiesis occur in the red bone marrow of adults.
true
false
Match the following regulatory factors with what they help produce
cytokines
leukocytes
thrombopoietin
platelets
erythropoietin
erythrocytes
Erythropoietin is produced by the (a) .
Erythropoiesis is stimulated when
RBC counts are low
reduced oxygen levels
insufficient hemoglobin amounts
blood flow to the kidney is compromised
erythropoietin levels are low
In the process of erythropoiesis, a (a) specializes into a (b) . This cell specializes into a (c) that then loses its nucleus and enters the bloodstream to mature into a (d) .
Which of the following are chemical messengers that regulate differentiation, proliferation, and gene expression to affect the formation of WBCs?
colony-stimulating factors
interleukins
chemokines
lymphoblastoma
In the process of leukopoiesis, a (a) is stimulated by CSFs to produce (b) . These cells can specialize into (c) , (d) , and (e) .
In the process of leukopoiesis, a (a) is stimulated by CSFs to produce (b) . These cells can specialize into (c) .
In the process of leukopoiesis, a (a) differentiates into a (b) . This cell can become a (c) or a small lymphocyte that differentiates into either a (d) or a (e) .
Thrombopoietin initiates differentiation of (a)
into (b) that mature into (c) . These cells then pinch off packets of cell membrane that enter the bloodstream and are now called (d) .
Match the following formed element with its function
erythrocyte
transport oxygen and some carbon dioxide
leukocyte
fight infection
platelets
hemostasis
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of erythrocytes?
multinucleate
no mitochondria
biconcave
life span is ~120 days
most numerous formed element
Each molecule of hemoglobin can carry (a) oxygen molecules. A single RBC can contain (b) hemoglobin molecules, so it can carry over 1 billion oxygen molecules.
Match the following description of hemoglobin with what it contains
oxyhemoglobin
bound to many oxygen molecules
deoxyhemoglobin
some oxygen has been released
carbaminohemoglobin
carbon dioxide has been picked up
When hemoglobin picks up carbon dioxide it binds to heme competing with oxygen binding sites.
true
false
When erythrocytes are old or damaged the majority are phagocytized, but a few will undergo (a) (rupture of RBCs).
The general condition describing a decrease of RBCs or hemoglobin is (a) .
Match the following types of anemia with their description
sickle cell
genetic disorder, most common in African descent, characterized by crescent-shaped RBCs
iron deficiency
deficient RBCs due to lack of iron, common in children, teens, vegans, and vegetarians
pernicious
vitamin B12 deficiency leading to decreased RBCs
aplastic
insufficient RBC stem cells caused by either genetic, radiation, or toxins
Match the following disorder with its description
hemorrhagic
deficient RBCs due to blood loss
hemolytic
excessive destruction of RBCs
polycythemia
excess of RBCs that has primary and secondary causes
malaria
parasite from mosquitos infects and lysis RBCs
Which of the following are characteristics of Leukocytes?
True cells with nuclei and organelles
lack hemoglobin
can leave bloodstream
can settle in tissues,wander freely, or follow chemical signals
Label the 5 types of leukocytes:
When white blood cells squeeze through capillary walls and enter the surrounding tissues it is known as (a) .
Place the following leukocyte response to infection in order:
infected cells send chemical signal into the blood
WBCs respond to chemical attractants released from injured cells
WBCs squeeze between the capillary wall to follow the chemical signal (positive chemotaxis)
WBCs either release chemicals into the tissues or phagocytize pathogens
(a) posses granules that contain chemicals to support cellular function; whereas, (b) have very small granules.
Which of the following is associated with allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and hypothyroidism (granules contain histine and heparin)?
basophil
neutrophil
eosinophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
Which of the following is phagocytic and has granules that contain lysozyme, oxidants, and defensins?
basophil
neutrophil
eosinophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
Which of the following is associated with allergies, parasitic worms, and autoimmune diseases (granules contain antihistimine and parasitic toxins)?
basophil
neutrophil
eosinophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
Which of the following leaves circulation to become macrophages that phagocytize debris, pathoges, and dead or worn out cells (secrete defensins)?
basophil
neutrophil
eosinophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
Which of the contains natural killer cells that are involved with non-specific immune response or T and B cells that are involved with specific immune responses?
basophil
neutrophil
eosinophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
Place the following from least abundant to most abundant
basophils
eosinophils
monocytes
lymphocytes
neutrophils
Match the following leukocyte disorders to their description
leukopenia
low WBC
leukocytosis
abnormally high WBCs that are non-functional
leukemia
cancer of leukocytes (myeloid or lymphoid)
Hodgkin's lymphoma
cancerous B cells in lymphatic tissue
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
cancerous T cells in lymphatic tissue
Select the functions of platelets
repair blood vessels with damage
secrete chemicals for tissue repair
transport nutrients
produce hormones
After an injury to a blood vessel place the following steps in order to seal the ruptured vessel and stop blood loss.
vascular spasm
platelet plug
coagulation
Which of the following describes when smooth muscle in vessel walls contracts to reduce blood flow at the site of an injury?
vascular spasm
platelet plug
coagulation
Which of the following describes when circulating platelets become sticky and aggregate at site of injury to stick to exposed collagen and endothelial lining?
vascular spasm
platelet plug
coagulation
Which of the following describes when the a durable blot clot made of fibrin has formed?
vascular spasm
platelet plug
coagulation
Hemorrhage can occur if any of the three steps of hemostasis fail causing excessive bleeding.
true
false
Vitamin _ is needed to synthesize clotting factors.
(a)
The extrinsic pathway with trauma takes minutes whereas the intrinsic pathway only takes seconds
true
false
The intrinsic and extrinsic pathway both converge into the final common pathway.
true
false
In the final common pathway, (a) converts (b) to (c) . Then fibrinogen is converted into insoluble (d) , and the clot is stabilized by (e)
(a) is when contractile proteins in platelets pull edges of a clot together and promote healing.
(a) is when fibrin gets dissolved by plasmin (clot buster).
Match the following clotting disorders to their description
thrombus
stationary blockage in an unbroken vessel
thrombosis
too many cells that will likely lead to a clot
embolus
thrombus that has become mobile; can cause heart attack or stroke
hemophilia
genetic disorder causing deficiencies in clotting factor formation
thrombocytopenia
too few platelets
Proteins of the surface of a red blood cell that determine blood type are known as (a) , and (b) are in the plasma to identify antigens that do not belong.
If (a) antigens are present on RBC surface then you have A blood type.
If (a) antigens are present on RBC surface then you have B blood type.
If no antigens are present on RBC surface then you have (a) blood type.
Match the following antibodies that are present with their blood cell type
A
Anti-B
B
Anti-A
O
Anti-A and Anti-B
AB
none
Type (a) is considered the universal donor, and (b) is the universal receipient.
If you have D antigen then you are Rh+.
true
false
If you do not have D antigen then you are Rh-.
true
false
If you are Rh- then you can receive Rh+ and Rh- blood.
true
false
The first exposure to D antigens leads to (a) .
A mother will be given RhoGAM to prevent Rh antibody production if she is Rh+ and baby is Rh-.
true
false
Which does NOT describe the location of the heart?
it is just posterior to the sternum and medial to lungs
rotated so left atrium and left ventricle face anteriorly
in the mediastinum
apex is slightly left of center
base points toward right shoulder
Label the correct locations/borders of the heart:
(a) are the two upper RECEIVING chambers of the heart, and the (b) are the two lower PUMPING chambers.
Match the following heart chambers to their circulation
right atrium
receives deoxygenated blood from the body
left atrium
receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
right ventricle
pumps deoxygenated blood into lungs
left ventricle
pumps oxygenated blood around the body and the heart
Label the following layers of the heart wall
The pericardium (pericardial sac) surronds the heart and defines the
fibrous pericardium
seroud pericardium
parietal pericardium
visceral pericardium
pericardial cavity
Match the following sublayer with its description
fibrous pericardium
tough outer layer made of dense connective tissue
serous pericardium
delicate inner layer composed of two layers
parietal pericardium
fused to the fibrous pericardium
visceral pericardium
also known as epicardium, fused to the heart wall
pericardial fluid
fills space between parietal and visceral pericardium
Place the heart layers in order from innermost to outermost layer
endocardium
myocardium
epicardium
endocardium
consists of simple squamous epithelium and sparse areolar connective tissue
myocardium
forms atria and ventricles; consists of cardiac muscle, blood vessels, and nervous tissue
epicardium
exposed surface secretes pericardial fluid; covers outer surface of the heart
Walls that divide the heart into chambers are known as
(a)
The atrioventricular septums are thicker than the interventricular septum due to greater pressure in the atrias.
true
false
interatrial septum
separates the atria
interventricular septum
separates the ventricles
atrioventricular septum
between atria and ventricles
The heart valves prevent inversion ( (a) ) of atrioventricular valvesduring ventricular contraction, which prevents backflow of blood ( (b) ) into atria.
Match the following valves to their description
tricuspid
contains 3 cusps; separates right atria from right ventricle
bicuspid
contains 2 cusps; separates left atria from left ventricle
pulmonary
3 crescent cusps; separates right ventricle from pulmonary trunk
aortic
3 crescent cusps; separates left ventricle from aorta
During ventricular relaxation, AV valves (a) and SL valves are (b) .
During ventricular contraction, AV valves are (a) and SL valves are (b) .
Match the following valve disorders to their description
prolapse
cusps are forced backwards by force of blood
regurgitation
backflow if blood
stenosis
hardening/calcification of valve
Match the following parts of the coronary circuit to their descriptions
cardiomycytes
highly active cells; require oxygen and nutirents and produce wastes
coronary arteries
supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium; arise from aorta
coronary veins
drain the myocardium of deoxygenated blood and retun it to the chambers of the heart
What is one of the grooves where coronary vessels are situated?
(a)
Match the following
RCA (right coronary artery)
supplies right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and portions of the conducting system
marginal artery
small; extends inferiorly from RCA
posterior interventricular artery
extends between ventricles on posterior side of heart
LCA (left coronary artery)
supplies blood to left ventricle, left atrium and interventricular septum
anterior interventricular artery
extends between ventricles on anterior side of heart
circumflex artery
wraps from anterior to posterior and ends in another marginal artery
middle cardiac vein
parallel to PIA
posterior cardiac vein
parallel to marginal artery (posterior)
great cardiac vein
parallel to AIA
small cardiac vein
parallel to RCA and marginal artery
coronary sinus
all coronary veins convergee here
Which of the following describes the structure of cardiac muscle fibers?
lots of mitochondria and blood vessels
shorter, branched, uninucleate
posses intercalated discs
limited repair and/or mitotic ability
cardiomyocytes are striated; have regular pattern of sarcomeres
Intercalated discs are specialized junctions that connect cells and coordinate synchronized contractions known as (a) .
The ability of the heart to depolarize spontaneously at a fixed rate to pace heart contractions is known as (a) .
The heart is made up of mainly (a) the conduct impulses and perform contractions, but there are also a small percentage of (b) that form the conduction system that starts action potential.
The fastest cells of the heart set the pace.
true
false
The conduction system begins with the (a) (pacemaker) which has the highest rate of depolarization and set the normal eletrical pattern. Then travels to the (b) and the (c) to distribute impulses across atria as they travel towards ventricles.
The ___________ ___________ assures that the atria will contract at the same time.
(a)
Next, the wave of depolarization travels to the (a) where it is delayed to allow for atrial contraction. Then, it travels to the (b) where it runs along interventricular septum. Next, (c) where it conducts impulse out to ventricles, and lastly (d) distribute impulse to ventricular myocardium and trigger ventricular contraction.
Which of the following are true about ECG?
it is a recording of the eletrical impulses in the heart over time
composed of ALL action potentials generated by the nodes and contractile cells at a given time
different parts of the ECG correspond to different cardiac events
also known as EKG
P wave
depolarization of atria
QRS complex
depolarization of ventricles
T wave
ventricular repolarization
The period of contraction when blood is pumped is known as (a) , and the period of relaxation when the chambers fill with blood is known as (b) .
Which of the following are true concerning the pressure and flow during the cardiac cycle?
fluids follow pressure gradients (high to low pressure)
during diastole, blood flows passively from veins to atria and from atria to ventricles
during systole, pressure rises and blood is actively pumped
during diastole, pressure rises and blood is actively pumped
during systole, blood flows passively from veins to atria and from atria to ventricles
Between heartbeats, the heart is briefly at rest; (a) blood flow to the heart; blood is (b) flowing into right and left (c) . (d) are open and blood flows into ventricles, but both (e) are closed.
Select the other terms for systole
contraction
depolarization
relaxation
repolarization
Select the other terms for diastole
contraction
depolarization
relaxation
repolarization
After the "atrial kick" to fill the remaining area of the ventricles, what happens to the atria?
systole
diastole
contraction
ejection
Ventricular systole has two phases. It begins with (a) which occurs when the pressure in the ventricles closes AV valves but does not open the semilunar valves. Next, (b) is when the pressure in ventricles exceeds pressure in arteries, so blood is ejected into pulmonary trunk and aorta (semilunar valves open).
Ventricular diastole has two phases. The early phase is when semilunar valves close as interventriuclar pressure drops and AV valves remain closed (ALL valves closed). This allows blood to flow into atria, but not into the ventricles and is known as (a) . (b) is when all the chambers are relaxed, so AV valves open and blood passively flows into ventricles.
Label the parts of contraction and relaxation on the ECG
(a) is the amount of blood pumped into systemic circulation by the left ventricle in one minute.
Which of the following is the best indicator of tissue perfusion?
cardiac output
stroke volume
heart rate
blood pressure
Cardiac output depends on heart rate and stroke volume. (a) is established by the cardiac conduction system and measured in bpm. (b) is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle in a single contraction.
If a person has a heart rate of 110 bpm and a stroke volume of 75 mL/beat. What would the patient's cardiac output be?
35 mL/min
8,250 mL/min
825 mL/min
3,500 mL/min
(a) is the difference between max CO and resting CO.
angina pectoris
chest pain related to coronary disease
ischemia
decreased or insufficient blood flow
hypoxia
defecient oxygen
Myocardial infarction
heart attack; blood flow to heart muscle is blocked, causes damage or death to muscle
Pericarditis
inflammation of pericardium; caused by viral or bacterial infection, or autoimmune disease
cardiac tamponade
accumulation of fluid in pericardial cavity that restricts movement to the heart
bradycardia
heart rate is slower than normal
tachycardia
heart rate is faster than normal
(a) typically carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the (b) . (c) carry deoxygenated blood to (d) to return to the heart. Arterioles and venules meet at (e) to allow for perfusion.
The (a) takes oxygen poor blood to the lungs and oxygen rich blood to the heart. The (b) takes oxygen (c) blood to the tissues and oxygen (d) blood to the heart.
Match the following blood vessel feature to its description
lumen
hollow central passageway
vasa vasorum
nourishes vessels and removes wastes
nervi vasorum
nerves of vessels; controls constriction and dialation
Arteries lumen is (a) , (b) . Veins lumen is (c) , (d) .
Which of the following is not a type of artery?
elastic artery
muscular artery
arterioles
venules
elastic artery
conducting vessel
muscular artery
distribution vessel
arterioles
resistance vessels
Arteries transport blood (a) from the heart that is typically (b) . They have thick tunica (c) compared with tunica externa; lack (d) ; may have more elastic tissue.
Which of the following is true for capillaries?
smallest blood vessel
the connection between arteries and veins
site of nutrient and waste exchange
composed of single layer of simple squamous epithelium and sparse basal lamina
supply blood directly to tissues
Match the following type of cappillary to their description.
continuous
most abundant; uninterrupted endothelium with incomplete tight junctions
fenestrated
where rapid fluid exhchange occurs; endothelium has lots of pores
sinusoid
where cells must leave circulation and enter tissues; larger pores and incomplete basement membrane
Match the following type of capillary to where it can be found.
continuous
found in almost all vascularized tissues
fenestrated
small intestine, kidneys, and endocrine organs
sinusoid
found in liver, bone marrow, and spleen
Blood flow into and out of capillary beds is known as (a) .
Reorder the following showing the blood flow from arteries to capillary beds
artery
ateriole
metarteriole
venule
(a) open and close to regulate blood flow to tissues.
When arterioles are directly connected to the venule it is known as?
arteriovenous anastomosis
metarterioles
thorough channels
arteriointerventricular sulcus
The (a) transports blood (b) the heart that is typically (c) .
If valves fail, blood pools and veins can become distended causing varicose veins.
true
false
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the venous system?
have valves consisted of folds of the tunica intima
also known as capacitance vessels (blood reservoirs)
thin tunica media
high blood pressure
rely on force of gravity
(a) drain capillary beds into veins. They have thin tunica media and tunica externa. (b) are large with irregular lumens that are easily distensible. They have thin walls and low-pressure vessels.
(a) (tissue perfussion) is the volume of blood flowing through a vessel, an organ, or the entire circulation.
Which of the following are correct concerning blood flow?
measured in volume per unit time (mL/min)
cardiovascular centers in the brain adjust blood flow with physical activty
changes in cardiac output can affect rate of blood flow
(a) is the amount of force per unit area exerted on the wall of a vessel by the blood witin it. Measured in mmHg.
(a) is the peak pressure as blood is ejected from the heart during ventricular contraction. (b) is the minimum pressure at the end of ventricular relaxation.
Blood pressure is diastolic/systolic.
true
false
(a) is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.
If a patient has a heart rate of 98 bpm and a BP of 120/80 mmHg, what is the patients pulse pressure
178 mmHg
218 mmHg
80 mmHg
40 mmHg
(a) represents the average force driving blood into vessels.
Which of the following factors affect blood pressure?
peripheral resistance
cardiac output
blood volume
(a) is the measure of friction between blood and vessel wall.
Which of the following contribute to TPR?
vascular resistance
viscosity of blood
turbulence
cardiac output
The longer the blood vessel the (a) the resistance which (b) BP.
The (a) the diameter, the (b) the resistance is.
Closer to the walls of vessels the quicker the flow of blood and elements will be.
true
false
The (a) the viscosity the harder it is for molecules to slide past one another and makes the fluid more difficult to keep moving.
Blood velocity varies (a) with the total cross-sectional area of blood vessels. As the cross-sectional area (b) the blood flow will (c) .
Match the following types of capillary exchange
simple diffusion
gases and small, lipid soluble molecules cross the plasma membrane
facilitated diffusion
use of channel to transport larger polar or water-soluble substanses across the membrane
osmosis
movement of water in and out of capillaries
endo/exocytosis
movemet of molecules across the membrane in vesicles
use of fenestrations.gaps
large molecules leave through intercellular clefts, pores, or gaps
(a) is the movement of materials OUT of the bloodstream; whereas, (b) is the movement of materials into the bloodstream.
(a) is the push OUT of the bloodstream generated by fluids in a vessel, and (b) is the suction INTO the bloodstream generated by immovable plasma proteins.
Net filtration pressure is equal to CHP - BCOP.
true
false
The (a) system picks up excess fluid and proteins in the interstital space and returns it to the vascular system.
aneurysm
ballooning of blood vessel wall increasing risk of rupture
arteriosclerosis
hardening of arterial walls (often due to aging)
cardiac shock
pump failure, heart cannont sustain adequate circulation
hypovolemic shock
results from large-scale bloodloss
(a) is when blood pressure is high, and (b) is when blood pressure is low.
