wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

476 Week 3: NCLEX-Style Cardiogenic Shock Quiz

Total questions: 24

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following clinical criteria is essential for diagnosing cardiogenic shock?

a)

Systolic blood pressure > 120 mm Hg

b)

Urine output of 50 mL/hr

c)

Cool extremities

d)

Pulmonary-capillary wedge pressure > 15 mm Hg

2.

The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is:

a)

Septic shock

b)

Acute myocardial infarction

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Cardiotoxic drug overdose

3.

Which of the following mechanical defects can lead to cardiogenic shock?

a)

Mitral stenosis (MS)

b)

Ventricular wall rupture

c)

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

d)

All of the above

4.

A risk factor for developing cardiogenic shock after a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is:

a)

Age less than 60 years

b)

Systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mmHg

c)

Sinus tachycardia

d)

Short duration of symptoms before treatment

5.

Which of the following correctly describes a pathologic counteraction that occurs in cardiogenic shock?

a)

Activation of the sympathetic system leading to peripheral vasoconstriction.

b)

Release of interleukin-1, tumor necrosis factor-a, and interleukin-6 causing pathologic vasodilation.

c)

Increased cardiac output improving coronary perfusion.

d)

Decreased myocardial oxygen demand.

6.

A nurse assessing a patient with suspected cardiogenic shock might expect to find:

a)

Warm, dry skin

b)

Bounding peripheral pulses

c)

Oliguria

d)

Normal mental status

7.

During a physical examination of a patient with cardiogenic shock, which finding is most indicative of the condition?

a)

Warm extremities

b)

Jugular venous distension

c)

Strong, regular peripheral pulses

d)

Clear lung sounds

8.

What is a crucial diagnostic test for a patient with cardiogenic shock that helps guide fluid management?

a)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

b)

Comprehensive metabolic panel

c)

Ultrasonography

d)

Coagulation profile

9.

In the immediate management of cardiogenic shock due to myocardial infarction, what is considered the most important intervention?

a)

Administration of fibrinolytic therapy

b)

Early restoration of coronary blood flow

c)

Aggressive fluid resuscitation

d)

Initiation of beta-blockers

10.

For patients with severe hypotension (SBP < 70 mm Hg) or hypotension unresponsive to other medications in cardiogenic shock, which vasoactive agent is preferred over dopamine?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Milrinone

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Epinephrine

11.

Dobutamine primarily exerts its inotropic effects by binding and activating which receptors?

a)

Alpha-1 receptors

b)

Beta-2 receptors

c)

Beta-1 receptors selectively

d)

Dopaminergic receptors

12.

Due to its mechanism of action, dobutamine typically causes:

a)

A significant increase in arterial blood pressure.

b)

A significant decrease in arterial blood pressure.

c)

Little to no change in arterial blood pressure.

d)

Only systolic blood pressure elevation without affecting diastolic.

13.

Dobutamine is FDA approved for short-term use in patients with decreased contractility due to:

a)

Septic shock

b)

Uncontrolled hypertension

c)

Heart failure or cardiac surgical procedures

d)

Peripheral vascular thrombosis

14.

A nurse should monitor for which common adverse effect in a patient receiving dobutamine?

a)

Significant hypokalemia

b)

Heart rate increase of 5 to 10 beats per minute

c)

Profound hypotension

d)

Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

15.

Which condition is a contraindication for the use of dobutamine?

a)

History of allergic reactions to sulfites

b)

Chronic stable angina

c)

Well-controlled atrial fibrillation

d)

Hypertension managed by medication

16.

At doses higher than 3 mcg/min, norepinephrine's primary effect is due to significant activation of which receptors?

a)

Beta-1 receptors, increasing cardiac output.

b)

Beta-2 receptors, causing vasodilation.

c)

Alpha-1 receptors, increasing systemic vascular resistance.

d)

Dopaminergic receptors, enhancing renal perfusion.

17.

Norepinephrine is a first-line agent for treating hypotension in which specific acute state?

a)

Hypovolemic shock unresponsive to fluid resuscitation

b)

Sepsis that does not respond to fluid resuscitation

c)

Cardiogenic shock with SBP > 90 mmHg

d)

Anaphylactic shock

18.

A potential adverse effect of norepinephrine, particularly if hypovolemia is not adequately treated, is:

a)

Decreased systemic vascular resistance

b)

Increased end-organ perfusion

c)

Excessive vasoconstriction leading to decreased end-organ perfusion

d)

Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

19.

When preparing norepinephrine for intravenous infusion, it should be diluted in:

a)

Saline solution only

b)

Dextrose-containing solutions

c)

Lactated Ringer's solution

d)

Sterile water

20.

Norepinephrine should generally be avoided or used with extreme caution in patients with:

a)

Hypotension due to cardiogenic mechanisms

b)

Mesenteric or peripheral vascular thrombosis

c)

Profound hypoxia or hypercarbia

d)

All of the above

21.

Which mechanical circulatory support device is described as the 'most commonly used and least expensive,' working by displacing blood into the proximal aorta during diastole and creating a vacuum effect during systole?

a)

Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

b)

Percutaneous Left Ventricular Assist Device (LVAD)

c)

Left-Atrium-to-Aorta Assist Device

d)

Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)

22.

What is a known limitation of the Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)?

a)

It consistently provides superior hemodynamic support compared to other MCS devices.

b)

It provides significant mortality benefit in all cardiogenic shock patients.

c)

It offers modest hemodynamic support and has no proven mortality benefit.

d)

It is only indicated for long-term support.

23.

In the interprofessional management of a patient in cardiogenic shock, the pharmacist's role includes:

a)

Administering IV medications and monitoring for extravasation.

b)

Performing primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

c)

Ensuring the patient is not on medications that depress heart function, like beta-blockers.

d)

Managing mechanical ventilation settings.

24.

Despite advances in treatment, what is the general prognosis for cardiogenic shock, especially as the leading cause of death in patients with acute MI?

a)

Mortality rates are less than 10%.

b)

Close to 80% of patients die despite optimal treatment.

c)

Long-term survival is guaranteed with revascularization.

d)

It is largely preventable through vaccination.