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Dr. Mo Exam 1 Practice Q's

Total questions: 133

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mr. Zur is taking Spectracef for the treatment of his acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis; Which of the following is he ingesting?

a)

Cefmenoxime

b)

Cefpodxime

c)

Cefditoren

d)

Cefdinir

e)

Cefsulodin

2.

SATA: Which of the following is an indication of Ampicillin?

a)

Nocardiosis

b)

Ampicillin Rash

c)

Meningitis in Children

d)

Prophylaxis of Endocarditis

e)

Typhoid Fever

3.

Which of the following inhibits the renal tubular secretion of Penicillin G? (Pen G)

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Benemid (Probenecid)

d)

Oral Contraceptives

e)

Warfarin (Coumadin)

4.

SATA: Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a prophylactic indication of Pen G?

a)

Jaurisch-Hauximer Reaction

b)

Weil's Disease

c)

Gonorrheal Ophthalmia

d)

Endocarditis

e)

Rheumatic Fever

5.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate route of administration of Bicillin (Benzathine Pen G)?

a)

IM

b)

IP

c)

IV

d)

SC

e)

Intraventricuarly

6.

SATA: Which of the following is a mechanism of action of Fosfomycin (Monurol)?

a)

Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

Inhibition of IL-2

c)

Immunomodulate of IL-8

d)

Inactivation of Pyruval Transferase

e)

Enhanced phagocytic activity of Neutrophils

7.

The MOA of Bacitracin (Baciguent) involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Park Nucleotide

b)

Transglycosylation

c)

Inhibition of the Dephosphorylation

d)

Inhibition of Lipid II

e)

Inhibition of Lipid III

8.

Which of of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting the dephosphorylation of the bacterial membrane-associated carrier?

a)

Teichoplanin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Cycloserine

d)

Fosfomycin

e)

Cefotaxime

9.

SATA: Which of the following choices work by inhibiting Mycolic Acid?

a)

Capreomycin

b)

Bedaquilline

c)

Rifampin

d)

Isoniazid

e)

Delamidid

10.

SATA: Which of the following is administered concurrently with Cycloserine (Seromycin) in order to increase the effectiveness of that regimen?

a)

Capreomycin

b)

Bedaquilline

c)

Rifampin

d)

Isoniazid

e)

Delamidid

11.

Which of the following is a 3rd Generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefadroxil (Duricef)

b)

Cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zinnacef)

c)

Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

d)

Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio)

e)

Cefixime (Suprax)

12.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 2nd Generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefadroxil (Duricef)

b)

Cefuroxime (Ceftin, Zincef)

c)

Cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol)

d)

Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio)

e)

Cefixime (Suprax)

13.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist NOT recommend for the treatment of an infection that was caused by a Carbapenem-resistant bacterium?

a)

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

b)

Temocillin (Negaban)

c)

Polymyxin (Coly-Mycin M)

d)

Imipenem + Cilastatin (Primaxin)

e)

Fosfomycin (Monurol)

14.

Which of the following is a route of administration of Azactam (Aztreonam)? SATA

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intrathecal

c)

Inunction

d)

Inhalation

e)

Intravenously

15.

Hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent ingestion of Penicillin VK and all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Tekturna

b)

Inspire

c)

Invokana

d)

Zestril

e)

Oretic

16.

Which of the following bacteria is BEST classified as a gram-negative, aerobic, non-enteric bacillus?

a)

Neisseria meningitides

b)

Morganella morganite

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Burkholderia cepacia

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

17.

Which of the following statements in INCORRECT? Concurrent administration of:

a)

Nafcillin and Coumadin may result in a decrease in International Normalized Ratio

b)

Ticarcillin and Lasix may result in additive hypokalemia

c)

Penicillin G and Benemid may result in a decrease in the renal tubular secretion of Penicillin G

d)

Ampicillin and Beyaz may result in contraceptive failure

e)

Penicillin G and Aminoglycoside, in vivo, may result in the inactivation of the Aminoglycoside

18.

Which of the following is a Major Penicillin Determinant that is employed in the skin test to determine allergy to Penicillin?

a)

Carboxypenicillin

b)

Benzylpenicilloyl-N-propylamine

c)

Benzylpenicilloate

d)

Penicilloyl polylyine

e)

Procaine Penicillin G

19.

An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam only should NOT be given which of the following? SATA

a)

Timentin

b)

Augmentin

c)

Unasyn

d)

Zosyn

e)

Zerbaxa

20.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result from therapy with Ceftriaxone?

a)

Biliary stasis

b)

Elevation of conjugated bilirubin plasma levels

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Pseudolithiasis

e)

Biliary sludging

21.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Fetroja (Cefidericol)?

a)

200 mg PO q 8 hrs

b)

500 mg IV infusion q 3 hrs

c)

1 g IV infusion q 12 hrs

d)

2 g IV infusion over 30 min q 6 hrs

e)

2 g IV infusion over 3 hrs q 8 hrs

22.

Which of the following will grow on a MacConkey agar?

a)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

b)

Steptobacillus moniliformins

c)

Clostridium difficile

d)

Bacillus anthracis

e)

Peptostreptococcus anaerobic

23.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 4th-generation Cephalosporin? SATA

a)

Ceftaroline

b)

Cefpirome

c)

Cefozopran

d)

Cefixime

e)

Cefmenoxime

24.

A biological specimen from an infectious disease patient revealed the presence of bacteria growing like a molar tooth. Which of the following was responsible for the patient's infection?

a)

Burkholderia pseudomnalli

b)

Yersinia pestil

c)

Actinomyces Israeli

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

25.

Which of the following statements about Telavancin (Vibativ) is FALSE?

a)

It produces a concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

b)

It is effective in the treatment of Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus-induced endocarditis

c)

It is administered intravenously on a QD basis

d)

It can produce hemorrhagic episodes

e)

It can cause Redman syndrome

26.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

c)

Myopathy

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Hypophosphatemia

27.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce the Disulfiram-like effect when administered concomitantly with Alcohol?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Cefotetan

c)

Cefoperazone

d)

Cefmetazole

e)

Moxalactam

28.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be nephrotoxic?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefepime

d)

Cephalexin

e)

Ceftriaxone

29.

Which of the following statements about Teflaro is INCORRECT?

a)

It has a half-life of 2.6 hours

b)

It is administered intravenously

c)

About 88% of the administered dose is excreted through the urine

d)

It is rapidly converted to its active moiety by cytochrome P4503A4

e)

It is about 20% plasma protein-bound

30.

Which of the following inhibits the cross-linking of peptidoglycans after binding to Penicillin-binding protein 2a?

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Imipenem

c)

Ceftobiprole

d)

Bacitracin

e)

Cefixime

31.

Which of the following statements about Azactam is FALSE?

a)

Its half-life is shorter in elderly patients

b)

It binds to PBP-3

c)

It is administered IV and IM

d)

It is excreted through the feces and the urine

e)

It can be given by inhalation

32.

Claforan is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in the treatment of an infection caused by which of the following?

a)

Bacteroides fragilis

b)

Pasteurella maltocida

c)

Shigella flexneri

d)

Borrelia burgdorferi

e)

Haemophilus influenza

33.

Which of the following is NOT a parameter or factor that is common to Penicillin?

a)

Binding to PBP-1 and PBP-3

b)

Cross-allergenicity

c)

Time-dependent bactericidal effect

d)

6-beta-Aminopenicillinaic acid nucleus

e)

Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis at the third stage

34.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Pivmecillinam (Pivya) when it is employed in the treatment of uncomplicated catheter-induced UTI?

a)

200 mg PO QID x 7 days

b)

200 mg IV stat, then 400 mg IV TID x 7 days

c)

400 mg IV stat, then 200 mg PO Q8H x 7 days

d)

80 mg PO stat, then 400 mg IV Q8H x 7 days

e)

400 mg PO Q8H x 7 days

35.

Which of the following statements about Pivya is FALSE?

a)

It is highly effective against ESBL-producing bacteria

b)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

c)

It is a half-life of 1-1.5 hours

d)

It is a pivaloyoxymethyl ester of Amdinocillin

e)

It is excreted through the urine and bile

36.

Which of the following statements about Pivmecillinam is FALSE?

a)

It is a prodrug

b)

It is a penicillinase-resistant Penicillin

c)

It binds to PBP-3

d)

It inhibits the transpeptidation reaction

e)

It is active against gram-negative, aerobic bacilli

37.

Which of the following statements about Teicoplanin is FALSE? SATA

a)

It is shorter-acting than Vancomycin

b)

It has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin

c)

Luke Vancomcycin, it undergoes urinary excretion

d)

Like Vancomycin, it effective against Clostridium difficile

e)

Unlike Vancomycin, it does not produce the Redman Syndrome

38.

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT regarding Vancomycin (Vancocin)?

a)

It can be administered orally

b)

It produces a time-dependent bactericidal effect

c)

It can be given IV and PO while Teichoplanin is administered IV, PO, and IM

d)

It has a shorter half-life than Teichoplanin

e)

It produces the Red Man Syndrome less often than Teichoplanin

39.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Seromycin (Cycloserine)?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Fever

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Elevation of blood pressure

e)

Fatigue

40.

Which of the following is a manifestation of Cycloserine-induced neurotoxicity? SATA

a)

Restlessness

b)

Anxiety

c)

Seizures

d)

Irritability

e)

Twitches

41.

Which of the following statements about the mechanism(s) of action of Teixobactin is TRUE? SATA

a)

It binds Lipid II

b)

It binds Lipid III

c)

It prevents the binding of NAG to NAM

d)

It prevents the transportation of Peptidoglycans to the outer surface of the bacterial cell membrane

e)

It inhibits the dephosphorylation of Bactoprenol

42.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adversed effect of Seromycin?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Fever

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Elevation of blood pressure

e)

Fatigue

43.

Thioglycolate broth plus Neutral Red used to identify which of the following bacteria?

a)

Urea-splitting

b)

Indole-positive

c)

Coagulase-positive

d)

Lactose fermenters

e)

Catalase-negative

44.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct causative agent?

a)

Scarlet Fever: Streptococcus Pyogenes

b)

Toxic Shock Syndrome: Staphylococcus Aureus

c)

Lockjaw: Actinomyces Israelii

d)

Acute Necrotizing Fasciitis: Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

e)

Plague: Yersinia Pestis

45.

Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with its correct causative agent?

a)

Scarlet Fever: Streptococcus Pyogenes

b)

Trench Mouth: Treponema Vincentii

c)

Toxic Shock Syndrome: Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Lyme Disease: Borrelia Burgdoferi

e)

Chancroid: Haemophilus Influenza

46.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a clinical indication of Recarbrio?

a)

Complicated Intra-abdominal infection

b)

Complicated UTI

c)

Healthcare-associated bacterial pneumonia

d)

Ventilator-associated bacterial pneumonia

e)

Chronic otitis media

47.

Which of the following is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus? SATA

a)

Polymyxin B

b)

Teixobactin

c)

Tigecycline

d)

Temocillin

e)

Tebipenem

48.

Which of the following LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Cefiderocol (Fetroja)?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Status epilepticus

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Asterixis

e)

Hypersensitivity reaction

49.

Which of the following mechanism of action of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? SATA

a)

Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

Inhibition of Interleukins-1beta, 2, and 8

c)

Increasing the phagocytic activity of neutrophils

d)

Inhibition of pyruvic transferase

e)

Prevention of the incidence of Cystic Fibrosis

50.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Monurol (Fosfomycin) in the management of complicated UTI?

a)

3 gm of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of cold water and taken orally once

b)

500 mg PO BID

c)

1 gm PO BID

d)

4 g IV Q6H

e)

8 g IM Q12H

51.

SATA: Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Fosfomycin (Monurol)? SATA

a)

4 g IV Q6H

b)

3 x 3g packets PO TID

c)

8 g IV Q12H

d)

1-2 capsules of the 500 mg strength Q6H

e)

3 granules (1 packet) with 3-4 oz of COLD water x 1 dose

52.

Cefazolin (Ancef) is employed prophylactically for which of the following procedures? SATA

a)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

b)

Hysterectomy

c)

Joint Replacement

d)

Dental Surgery

e)

Colorectal Surgery

53.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Ureidopenicillin?

a)

Penicillin VK

b)

Piperacillin

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Nafcillin

e)

Amoxicillin

54.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the infectious disease that it produces?

a)

Rickettsia akari: Rickettsiapox

b)

Rickettsia quintana: Q Fever

c)

Rickettsia rickettsi: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

d)

Borrelia recurrentis: Relapsing Fever

e)

Borrelia burgdoferi: Lyme disease

55.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Televancin?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Redman Syndrome

c)

Prolongation of the PR Interval

d)

Metallic Taste

e)

Nephrotoxicity

56.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Cubicin (Daptomycin)? SATA

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Myopathy

d)

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

e)

Hypokalemia

57.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 3rd-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefmetazole

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Cefditoren

d)

Cefpirome

e)

Cefozopram

58.

Which of the following is effective in treating CRE-induced infections? SATA

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Teixobactin

c)

Colistin

d)

Fosfomycin

e)

Tigecycline

59.

Which of the following statements about Cefiderocol is FALSE?

a)

It is administered intravenously

b)

It has a half-life of about 23 hours

c)

It undergoes renal excretion

d)

It is a Cephalosporin-siderophore conjugate

e)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 40-60%

60.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? SATA

a)

Proteus mirabilis will split Urea into Ammonia, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

b)

Salmonella typhosa will turn the indicator in the Thioglycolate broth red

c)

Escherichia coli will grow on a MacConkey agar plate

d)

Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive

e)

Streptococcus viridian produces complete hemolysis on a blood agar

61.

Which of the following bacteria is spiral in shape? SATA

a)

Actinomyces

b)

Yersinia

c)

Treponema

d)

Leptotrichia

e)

Borrelia

62.

Which of the following statements about Aztreonam is INCORRECT?

a)

It can be administered intramuscularly and by inhalation

b)

About 56% of the drug is excreted through the feces

c)

Its half-life is longer in elderly patients

d)

It is administered every 6-12 hours

e)

It can be administered intravenously

63.

Primaxin is effective in the treatment of infections caused by which of the following?

a)

Peptostreptococcus

b)

Corynebacterium

c)

Salmonella

d)

Pasteurella

e)

Fusobacterium

64.

When caused by susceptible organisms, Imipenem-Cilastatin is used to treat which of the following? SATA

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Meningitis

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Diabetic Foot Infection

e)

Peritonitis

65.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the syndrome it produces?

a)

Demeclocyline: SIADH

b)

Tetracycline HCl: Fanconi Syndrome

c)

Chloramphenicol: Grey Baby Syndrome

d)

Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome

e)

Neomycin: Malabsorption Syndrome

66.

Which of the following results DIRECTLY from the administration of Teixobactin? Inhibition of the: SATA

a)

Synthesis of the Park nucleotide

b)

Transpeptidation reaction

c)

Binding of Peptidoglycan to the bacterial cell membrane

d)

Transport of Peptidoflycan across the bacterial cell membrane

e)

D-alanyl-D-alanine synthase

67.

Which of the following is NOT matched with correct contents?

a)

Avycaz: Avibactam and Ceftizoxime

b)

Unasyn: Sulbactam and Ampicillin

c)

Recarbrio: Relebactam and Imipenem + Cilastatin

d)

Zerbaxa: Tazobactam and Ceftolozane

e)

Vabomere: Vaborbactam and Meropenem

68.

Which of the following is an indication of Vancomycin? SATA

a)

Meningitis caused by MRSA

b)

Pseudomembranous colitis caused Clostridium difficile

c)

Endocarditis caused by Enterococci

d)

Enterocolitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Meningitis caused by Flavobacterium meningosepticum

69.

Additive hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent administration of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

K-Tab

b)

Canagliflozin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Yaz

e)

Furosemide

70.

Which of the following statements about Fosfomycin is TRUE? SATA

a)

The calcium salt is available in granules

b)

The disodium salt is administered intravenously

c)

The usual dose for managing uncomplicated cystitis is one packet of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of hot water PO x 1 dose

d)

The drug is primarily excreted through the renal system

e)

The drug is effective against gram-negative bacilli

71.

Unasyn is active against all of the following bacteria EXCEPT:

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Moraxella catarrhalis

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

72.

Which of the following is a causative agent of Acute Necrotizing Fascitis?

a)

Alpha Streptococcus

b)

Group D Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

c)

Group B Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

d)

Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

e)

Staphylococcus dermatitis

73.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Primaxin?

a)

Seizures

b)

Headache

c)

Insomnia

d)

Somnolence

e)

Constipation

74.

A Pharmacist should question a prescription that calls for the per os administration of which of the following?

a)

Cefditoren

b)

Cephalexin

c)

Cefuroxime axetil

d)

Cefoperazone

e)

Cefpodoxime

75.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to grow on a MacConkey agar?

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Serratis marcescens

c)

Escheria coli

d)

Streptobaccillus monoliformis

e)

Providencia stuartii

76.

Which of the following grows readily on the MacConkey agar? SATA

a)

Streptococcus viridian

b)

Bacillus anthracis

c)

Pasteurella maltocida

d)

Francisella tularensis

e)

Listeria monocytogenes

77.

Which of the following involved in the pharmacological action of Primaxin? SATA

a)

Transpeptidase

b)

Carbapenemase

c)

Penicillinase

d)

Dehydropeptidase

e)

Peptidoglycan crosslinking

78.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Coagulation

b)

Nausea and Vomiting

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Eosinophilic Pneumonia

79.

Which of the following is an Isoxazollyl Penicillin that can be administered parenterally?

a)

Oxacillin

b)

Nafcillin

c)

Dicloxacillin

d)

Methicillin

e)

Cloxacillin

80.

All of the following are common to the glycopeptide antibacterials that are Vancomycin derivatives EXCEPT:

a)

IV administration

b)

Concentration-dependent bacterial activity

c)

Long-acting (Long t1/2)

d)

Effectiveness against VRE

e)

Production of the redman syndrome

81.

Which of the following inhibits the 2nd stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine terminus?

a)

Cycloserine

b)

Vancomycin

c)

Fosfomycin

d)

Bacitracin

e)

Ristocetin

82.

Select the INCORRECT statement:

a)

Teichoplanon has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin

b)

Vancomycin is administered IV and PO while Teicoplanin is administered IV, IM, and PO

c)

Vancomycin has a longer half-life than Teicoplanin

d)

Vancomycin is more likely than Teichoplanin to cause the red man syndrome

e)

Both Vancomycin and Teicoplanin undergo glomerular filtration

83.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce hemorrhagic episodes as an adverse effect?

a)

Ceftriaxone

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Moxalactam

d)

Cefotetan

e)

Cefoperazone

84.

Considering the antibacterial spectrum of its contents, which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Recarbrio?

a)

Complicated UTI

b)

Complicated Intra-Abdominal infections

c)

Heathcare-assocaited bacterial pneumonia

d)

Ventilator-associated bacterial pneumonia

e)

Anthrax

85.

Mr. Qua's endocarditis was caused by a HACEK organism; which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to have been implicated in Mr. Qua's endocarditis?

a)

Haemophilus aphrophilus

b)

Acinetobacter baumanni

c)

Cardiobacterium hominis

d)

Kingella kingae

e)

Eikenella corrodens

86.

Which of the following has been implicated in human-bite wounds? SATA

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes, anginosus

c)

Eikenella corrodes

d)

Corynbacterium diphtheriae

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

87.

Which of the following may result from therapy with Rocephin? SATA

a)

Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea, and Flatulence

b)

Cholestasis

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Casts in the urine

e)

Pseudolithiasis

88.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce a Disulfiram-like action?

a)

Cefamandole

b)

Cephalexin

c)

Cefmetazole

d)

Cefoperazone

e)

Cefotetan

89.

Which of the following statements about Fosfomycin is FALSE?

a)

It is used to treat cystitis caused by Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis

b)

It is an inhibitor of the 2nd stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis

c)

It is used to treat uncomplicated UTI caused by Escheria coli

d)

It is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus faecalis

e)

It can inhibit RSV-indsuced inflammation in the lungs

90.

Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Lipid II and Lipid III?

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Carbenicillin

c)

Bactoprenol

d)

Teixobactin

e)

Oritavancin

91.

Which of the following is LEAST LIEKLY to be an adverse effect of Fetroja?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Altrial Fibrillatio

c)

Seizures

d)

Elevation of AST and ALT

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

92.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by first using its siderophore properties to traverse the outer cell membrane of the susceptible bacterium?

a)

Cefdinir

b)

Cefpirome

c)

Cefsulodin

d)

Cefozopram

e)

Cefiderocol

93.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 5th-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefpirome

b)

Ceftobiprole

c)

Cefmenoxime

d)

Cefpodoxime

e)

Ceftibuten

94.

Which of the following is an inhibitor of Pyruval transferase?

a)

Seromycin

b)

Fosfomycin

c)

Daptomycin

d)

Cephamycins

e)

Vancomycin

95.

Which of the following is an indication Ampicillin? SATA

a)

Typhus

b)

Nocardiosis

c)

Shigellosis

d)

Gonorrhea

e)

Proteus mirabilis-induced UTI

96.

Amoxicillin is less effective than Ampicillin in the treatment of infections caused by all of the following species EXCEPT:

a)

Actinomyces

b)

Listeria

c)

Shigella

d)

Campylobacter

e)

Escherichia

97.

Additive hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent administration of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Ramipril

b)

Yaz

c)

Lasix

d)

Invokana

e)

Dyrenium

98.

Which of the following is a Major Penicillin Determinant that is employed in the determination of Pencillin allergy?

a)

Benzylpenicillin

b)

Carboxypenicillin

c)

Benzylpenicilloate

d)

Penicillolyl-polylysine

e)

Benzylpenicillou-propylamine

99.

Which of the following infectious diseases is NOT matched with the correct organism that causes it?

a)

Well's Disease: Fusobacterium

b)

Whooping Cough: Bordetella

c)

Toxic Shock Syndrome: Staphylococcus

d)

Plague: Yersinia

e)

Trench Mouth: Treponema

100.

During the process of CABG, which of the following is the recommended Cephalosporin for prophylaxis? SATA

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Cefotaxime

c)

Cefuroxime

d)

Ceftaroline

e)

Cefditoren

101.

Select the INCORRECT statement: A concomitant administration of ___ and ___ may result in ____.

a)

Probenecid; Penicillin G; a decrease in Penicillin G renal excretion

b)

Piperacillin; HCTZ; additive hypokalemia

c)

Ampicillin; Oral contraceptives; breakthrough bleeding

d)

Nafcillin; Coumadin; Increased INR

e)

Penicillin VK; Olmesartan; additive hyperkalemia

102.

Administering HCTZ (Hydrochlorothiazide) with which of the following penicillins may result in additive HYPOkalemia?

a)

Piperacillin (Piperacil)

b)

Pen VK

c)

Pen G (Bicillin, Benzathine, Wycillin)

d)

Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Trimox)

e)

Dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

103.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be employed prophylactically during Dental Surgery?

a)

Keflex

b)

Duricef

c)

Rocephin

d)

Ancef

e)

Cefobid

104.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist recommend for the treatment of severe secondary peritonitis caused by CAPES organisms?

a)

Ancef

b)

Zinacef

c)

Keflin

d)

Maxipime

e)

Spectracef

105.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Ureidopenicillin?

a)

Azlocillin

b)

Ticarcillin

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Methicillin

e)

Cloxacillin

106.

Considering their antibacterial spectra, Cephamycins are effective against all of the following species EXCEPT:

a)

Moraxella

b)

Corynebacterium

c)

Proteus

d)

Bacteroides

e)

Peptostreptococcus

107.

Aztreonam should NOT be used to treat a lower respiratory tract infection caused by which of the following species?

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Acinetobacter

c)

Streptococcus

d)

Proteus

e)

Haemophilus

108.

Primaxin is NOT effective in the treatment of an infection that is caused by which of the following?

a)

Klebsiella

b)

Shigella

c)

Bacteroides

d)

Acinetobacter

e)

Peptococcus

109.

Which of the following statements about Carbapenems is INCORRECT?

a)

Ertapenem has a longer half-life than Imipenem

b)

Like Imipenem, Ertapenem is given IV and IM

c)

Like Doripenem, Meropenem is administered IV

d)

Doripenem has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Ertapenem

e)

Meropenem binds to PBP3 while Imipenem does not

110.

Mr. Zet is diagnosed with Cholera; Which of the following is CORRECT about the causative agent of his diagnosed condition? SATA

a)

Gram-positive

b)

Aerobic

c)

Gram-negative

d)

Anaerobic

e)

Coccus

111.

SATA: Which of the following is an adverse effect of Primaxin (Imipenem)?

a)

Headaches

b)

Insomnia

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Seizures

e)

Delirium

112.

A Cephamycin is effective in treating the infections caused by all of the following genera EXCEPT:

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Escherichia

c)

Haemophilus

d)

Peptostreptococcus

e)

Bacteroides

113.

With respect to Acid-Fast staining method, which of the following statements is FALSE? SATA

a)

The primary staining is hot carbon fuschin

b)

The decolorizer is 95% ethyl alcohol

c)

The Mordant is Lugol's Solution

d)

The primary stain is Crystal Violet

e)

The decolorizer is acid alcohol

114.

SATA: How would you classify Vibrio Vulnificus based on its oxygen requirement and based on the growth pattern (shape)?

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Aerobic

d)

Anaerobic

e)

Comma-Shaped, Produces a Flesh-Eating Infection

115.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a)

Cefuroxime is effective against Fusobacterium Nucle but Cefotetan is NOT

b)

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) is LESS effective than Cefadroxil in treating Staph. Infections

c)

URTIs caused by Moraxella Catarrhalis can be effectively treated with Cefotetan (Cefotan) but NOT with Cephalexin (Keflex)

d)

Both Cefazolin (Ancef) and Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) are effective in treating infections caused by Klebsiella Pneumoniae

e)

Cefmetazole (Zefazone) is effective against Proteus Vulgaris, but Cefazolin (Ancef) is NOT

116.

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT matched with its correct source?

a)

Thienamycin: Streptomyces cattleya

b)

Penicillin G: Penicillium chrysogenum

c)

Cefoxitin: Cephalosporium acremonium

d)

Aztreonam: Chromobacterium violaceum

e)

Bacitracin: Bacillus subtilis

117.

A Pharmacist should question a prescription that calls for the per os administration of which of the following?

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Dicloxacillin

c)

Geocillin

d)

Azlocillin

e)

Amoxicillin

118.

Which of the following has the highest plasma protein-binding capablity?

a)

Oxacillin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Methicillin

d)

Ampicillin

e)

Piperacillin

119.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be inactivated by beta-lactamase I?

a)

Penicillin VK

b)

Mazlocillin

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ticarcillin

e)

Cloxacillin

120.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Monobactam?

a)

Biapenem

b)

Panipenem

c)

Meropenem

d)

Doripenem

e)

Tigemonam

121.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of cellulitis caused by MRSA?

a)

Doribax

b)

Teflaro

c)

Veetids

d)

Invanz

e)

Primaxin

122.

Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Lipid III?

a)

Oritavancin

b)

Cycloserine

c)

Carumonam

d)

Teixobactin

e)

Cefadroxil

123.

The mechanism of action of Recarbrio involves the inhibition of which of the following? SATA

a)

Penicillinase

b)

Transpeptidase

c)

Dehydropeptidase-I

d)

Amidase

e)

Elastase

124.

A disulfiram-like action can be observed when alcohol is ingested concurrently with which of the following? SATA

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefmandole

c)

Cefmetazole

d)

Cefoperazone

e)

Moxalactam

125.

In Renal Dysfunction, it is NOT necessary to alter the dose or frequency of administration of which of the following? SATA

a)

Cefobid

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefepime

d)

Ceftriaxone

e)

Cefamandole

126.

Which of the following is a 1st-generation Cephalosporin that is employed in dental surgery prophylaxis? SATA

a)

Ancef

b)

Keflex

c)

Duricef

d)

Rocephin

e)

Claforan

127.

Which of the following is a Cephalosporin that is LIKELY to be employed prophylactically during hysterectomy? SATA

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefazolin

d)

Cefotaxime

e)

Cefdinir

128.

Which of the following is used to manage Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Procaine Penicillin G

c)

Aspirin

d)

Benadryl

e)

Probenecid

129.

An S-shaped bacterium will be retrieved from the biological specimen obtained from an individual who has which of the following conditions? SATA

a)

Weil's Disease

b)

Relapsing Fever

c)

Rat-Bite Fever

d)

Gingivostomatitis

e)

Syphilis

130.

Aztreonam should NOT be used to treat infections caused by which of the following?

a)

Aeromonas hydrophilia

b)

Moraxella catarralis

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Enterobacter aerogenes

e)

Serratia marcescens

131.

Which of the following statements about drug-to-drug interactions involving Penicillins is FALSE? A concurrent administration of ____ and ___ will result in ___.

a)

Nafcillin; Warfarin; Decreased INR

b)

Ticarcillin; Coumadin; Hemorrhagic episodes

c)

Penicillin VK; Invokana; additive hyperkalemia

d)

Piperacillin; HCTZ; additive hypokalemia

e)

Methicillin; Gentamicin; Reduced incidence of nephrotoxicity

132.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Bacitracin? SATA

a)

Azotemia

b)

Nausea and Diarrhea

c)

Skin Rash

d)

Pain at Injection Site

e)

Albuminuria

133.

Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Teflaro (Ceftaroline) when it is used to treat community-acquired pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae?

a)

200 mg PO BID x 10 days

b)

400 mg IM Q12H x 5 days

c)

400 mg IV Q6H x 14 days

d)

600 mg IM Q6H x 5 days

e)

600 mg IV Q12H x 7 days

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1st Grade - University