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2024 Practice Test #1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mechanical exhaust for central supply locations shall not be less than __________.

a)

50 cfm

b)

72 cfm

c)

100 cfm

d)

500 cfm

2.

Pipe labels shall NOT be located at which of the following?

a)

At least once above every room

b)

On horizontal piping only

c)

On both sides of walls or partitions

d)

In every story height traversed by risers

3.

It is the responsibility of the __________ to furnish documentation, certifying that all installed piping materials are cleaned for oxygen service.

a)

Authority having jurisdiction

b)

Installer

c)

Contractor

d)

Verifier

4.

A(n) __________ can be used as a substitute for the EOSC at a category 1 facility.

a)

Bulk oxygen source

b)

Emergency plan

c)

In-building emergency reserve

d)

Main line valve

5.

A valve installed in each medical gas and vacuum piping system, shall be tested to verify which of the following?

a)

Date of installation

b)

Proper operation and rooms or areas of control

c)

Flow and pressure drops

d)

Pressure range

6.

Refer to diagram 3. What is the minimum distance requirement at letter D?

a)

10 feet

b)

15 feet

c)

20 feet

d)

25 feet

7.

The Medical-Surgical Vacuum exhaust shall be located ____________________.

a)

indoors with diffusers

b)

outdoors

c)

on a roof with water dilution

d)

in a confined area

8.

Instrument air systems with standby headers shall be alarmed at all master panels, just before the reserve begins to supply the system indicating __________________.

a)

high output temperature

b)

reserve in use

c)

compressor failure

d)

all of the alarms will be indicated

9.

Medical air receivers shall comply with Section _______, Unfired Pressure Vessels, of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.

a)

VII

b)

VIII

c)

IX

d)

XI

10.

Initial inspection and testing of cryogenic fluid central supply systems, shall be conducted by a party technically competent, and who meets the requirements of ASSE/IAPMO/ANSI________.

a)

6030

b)

6035

c)

6050

d)

6055

11.

The Medical-Surgical Vacuum exhaust shall be located ____________________.

a)

at a level different from air intakes

b)

at a level different from other exhausts

c)

at a level different fron vacuum inlets

d)

at the same level as vacuum inlets

12.

An EOSC is not required if a facility has which of the following?

a)

A bulk oxygen system sufficient for 30 day’s supply

b)

An in-building emergency reserve header sufficient for 1 hour normal operation

c)

The bulk oxygen is remote from the building served

d)

An in-building emergency reserve header sufficient for 1 day's normal operation

13.

Policies shall be established and maintained that permit the __________ to supersede the requirements of NFPA 99, in order to satisfy the emergency needs of the patient.

a)

authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)

b)

attending medical professional

c)

governing body

d)

operations manager

14.

Manufactured assemblies employing flexible hose shall not be labeled with __________.

a)

Color code

b)

Standard pressure

c)

System name or symbol

d)

Date of installation

15.

Which is a permitted use of the medical-surgical vacuum system?

a)

Liquid or debris disposal

b)

Non-medical or non-surgical applications

c)

Waste anesthetic gas disposal

d)

Vacuum steam condensate return

16.

When brazing dissimilar metals NPS ____ and smaller, flux coated brazing rod shall be permitted to be used.

a)

3 inch

b)

1 inch

c)

3/4 inch

d)

1/2 inch

17.

Refer to diagram 4. The valve labeled #15 is a __________.

a)

Future connection

b)

Service connection

c)

Dead end connection

d)

Zone valve connection

18.

Final line filters for instrument air shall be rated for a minimum of _____ percent efficiency at _____ micron.

a)

98% @ .01

b)

100% @ .01

c)

98% @ .10

d)

100% @ .10

19.

Vacuum pumps dedicated for WAGD service, shall be designed of materials, and using lubricants and sealants that are inert in the presence of __________________.

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrous oxide

c)

halogenated anesthetics

d)

all of the answers listed are correct

20.

Which of the following shall be installed to allow modification of lateral branch piping from a main or riser without shutting down the entire main, riser or facility?

a)

In-line valve

b)

Main control valve

c)

Service valve

d)

Zone valve box

21.

When PVC plastic is used in a category 1 dental vacuum system, it shall be ___________.

a)

schedule 20

b)

schedule 40

c)

schedule 80

d)

schedule 40 or schedule 80

22.

What is the minimum flow coefficient of a 1" positive pressure valve?

a)

31

b)

30

c)

17

d)

110

23.

Fittings, valves, and other components for oxygen use in a Category 1 distribution system, shall be __________ until prepared for installation.

a)

Delivered sealed, labeled, and kept sealed

b)

Kept at a minimum inventory level

c)

Stored in a locked room or secure facility

d)

Plugged or capped by the manufacturer

24.

Instrument air systems with standby headers shall be alarmed at all master panels, just before the reserve falls below one average hour’s supply indicating __________________.

a)

system failure

b)

reserve in use

c)

reserve low

d)

all of the alarms will be indicated

25.

Liquid containers shall have additional product identification (such as a 360 degree wrap-a-round tape for medical liquid containers) visible from all directions with a minimum of ______ inch high letters.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

26.

The locations for medical gas central supply systems and storage of positive pressure gases, excluding cryogenic fluid central supply systems, requiring heating to maintain compliant enclosure temperatures, shall meet which of the following requirements?

a)

Compliant fuel-fired heating equipment permitted in the same room

b)

If in a secured location, racks and chains are not required

c)

In-room heating element maximum temperature of 266 degrees F

d)

Shall be under continuous surveillance

27.

Locations for central supply systems (excluding fluid central supply systems) shall meet which of the following requirements?

a)

If indoors shall have interior finishes of noncombustible or limited combustible materials

b)

Shall be constructed with access to move equipment and cylinders

c)

Shall be provided with lockable doors, gates or able to be secured

d)

Required to meet all that are listed

28.

A standard gauge pressure of 160-185 psi applies to which of the following?

a)

Laboratory vacuum

b)

Laboratory air

c)

Non-medical air

d)

None of the systems listed

29.

Power for local alarms shall be powered from essential electrical system that is used to power the _____.

a)

lighting

b)

fire alarms

c)

air compressors

d)

ventilation

30.

One area alarm panel shall be acceptable to monitor multiple rooms located_________________.

a)

within the same facility

b)

within an immediate vicinity

c)

on more than one floor

d)

within multiple buildings

31.

Oxygen concentrator supply systems used as all three sources of supply shall include an oxygen concentration monitor, sampling gas on the patient side of the line pressure controls, and on the source side of the source valve. What is the capability required for the monitor?

a)

Monitoring 91% oxygen with + 1.0% accuracy

b)

Monitoring 93% oxygen with + 1.0% accuracy

c)

Monitoring 95% oxygen with + 1.0% accuracy

d)

Monitoring 99% oxygen with + 1.0% accuracy

32.

Under normal operation only ________ dryer(s)-filter(s)-regulator sequence(s) shall be open to airflow, with the other sequence(s) valved off.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

A ______ inch sample port shall be provided downstream of the final line pressure regulators, dew point monitor and carbon monoxide monitor, and upstream of the source valve, to allow for sampling of the medical air.

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

3/8

d)

1/2

34.

When purging a system for brazing, the purging gas source shall be monitored, and the installer shall be _______________ when the source content is low.

a)

audibly alerted

b)

notified by supervision

c)

responsible for replacing the cylinder

d)

visually alerted

35.

Which of these would not breach the vacuum system?

a)

Addition of a system component

b)

Removal of a system component

c)

Replace a system component with an identical one

d)

Testing a system component with a leak detecting solution

36.

Piping between the vacuum pump and the source shut off valve shall be permitted to be ________.

a)

Brass pipe

b)

Galvanized steel pipe

c)

Black steel pipe

d)

Any of the listed materials

37.

Station outlets or inlets shall not be place on the ________ of Medical Gas Rail (MGR) assemblies.

a)

top

b)

bottom

c)

ends

d)

top, bottom or ends

38.

Medical air compressor intake shall be located outdoors a minimum distance of ______ from all vehicular exhausts and noxious fumes.

a)

10 ft

b)

20 ft

c)

25 ft

d)

There is no distance requirement

39.

Shutoff Valves do NOT need to be labeled with _____________.

a)

name or chemical symbol

b)

gas or vacuum system color code

c)

room or area controlled

d)

normal operating pressure

40.

Medical Gas Rail (MGR) assemblies shall connect to the pipeline, through fittings that are ___ to the pipeline.

a)

soldered

b)

brazed

c)

glued

d)

threaded

41.

Cryogenic fluid central supply systems shall include _______, with capacity determined after consideration of the customer usage requirements, delivery schedules and proximity to alternative supplies.

a)

one or more main supply vessels

b)

two or more main supply vessels

c)

three or more final line regulators

d)

four or more reserve headers

42.

The mandatory master alarm panels shall be arranged such that the failure of either panel would __________ any signal on the other panel.

a)

disable

b)

not disable

c)

actuate

d)

notify

43.

Manufactured assemblies for medical gas systems employing flexible hose shall use flexible connectors with a minimum burst gauge pressure of how many psi?

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

1500

d)

2000

44.

To prevent damage when testing outlets/inlets, you must use which of these components?

a)

O-rings/seals

b)

Interchangeable outlet/inlet adapters

c)

Gas-specific adapters as described by the manufacturer

d)

Miscellaneous fittings as required

45.

Nonstationary booms and articulating assemblies, utilizing flexible connectors, shall be tested for leaks every ______ months.

a)

6

b)

12

c)

18

d)

24

46.

What is the standard gauge pressure (psi) for oxygen gas service?

a)

0-300

b)

50-55

c)

15-30

d)

It varies with system type

47.

For medical-surgical vacuum systems greater than 5 in. HgV, piping shall be hard-drawn, seamless copper tube type ________.

a)

ASTM B88

b)

ASTM B280

c)

ASTM B819

d)

Any of the listed types are acceptable

48.

What sort of treatment shall be performed BEFORE brazing cut ends of a tube used for piping medical gas?

a)

An argon purge must be done

b)

Cut ends must be rolled smooth or deburred

c)

Extensions need to be added for brazing

d)

Treatment is NOT required, they may be brazed “as is”

49.

Local alarm panels shall be permited to be located _________________.

a)

on or in control panels

b)

within a monitoring device

c)

on a separate alarm panel

d)

at any of the listed locations

50.

Central supply systems for medical vacuum shall be equipped with filtration sized for ________ of peak calculated demand while one is isolated.

a)

50%

b)

100%

c)

150%

d)

200%

51.

Where installed in a down-facing position, such as in a ceiling or ceiling column, station outlets/inlets shall be __________ connectors.

a)

D.I.S.S.

b)

Threaded

c)

Quick-connect

d)

Chemetron

52.

In a medical gas system with emergency reserve, which alarm system(s) will activate when, or just before, the changeover to the reserve supply occurs?

a)

Area

b)

Local

c)

Local and Master

d)

Master

53.

Axially swaged fittings providing metal-to-metal seals, are suitable for service up to ____ psi.

a)

100

b)

300

c)

500

d)

1000

54.

For medical air using liquid ring compressors, the seal water shall be ___ to control waterborne pathogens.

a)

Treated

b)

Hyper-chlorinated

c)

As recommended by the AHJ

d)

As recommended by the manufacturer

55.

If the system (source gas) is used to verify the piping purity, it shall be tested __________.

a)

At the most remote outlet from the renovation

b)

At the outlet closest to the renovation

c)

At the source equipment

d)

Before the system tie-in

56.

Under which of these conditions shall the instrument air reserve header cylinders be permitted to be stored with the instrument air compressor?

a)

The mechanical equipment room does NOT contain a boiler

b)

The medical air compressors are in the same room

c)

The only motor-driven machinery in the room is for the instrument air equipment

d)

The room is secured with lockable doors

57.

A document in which the main text contains only mandatory provisions. Non-mandatory provisions are located in the appendix or annex. This is the NFPA definition for which of the following?

a)

Guide

b)

Procedure

c)

Reference

d)

Standard

58.

Oxygen concentrator supply systems used as all three sources of supply shall include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

The control arrangements shall be able to maintain stable pressures within the limits of Table 5.1.11

b)

The auxiliary source connection shall be provided and located on the source side of the source valve

c)

The control arrangements shall be redundant, such that each component of the control mechanism can be isolated for service or replacement, while maintaining normal operation.

d)

The system shall be protected against over pressurization

59.

The maintenance of a Category 1 medical gas system must be performed by individuals qualified to perform these operations. What certification must the individual/individuals obtain?

a)

ASSE 6040

b)

ASTM 6010

c)

AWS B-22

d)

CGA G-4.1

60.

Who is the individual who is responsible for reviewing all inspection and testing reports prior to the use of new, additional, renovated or temporary medical gas and vacuum installations?

a)

Inspector of record

b)

Installing contractor

c)

On-site verifier

d)

Responsible facility authority

61.

The minimum backfilled cover above the top of the pipe or its enclosure, for buried piping outside of buildings shall be 36 in., except that a minimum cover shall be reduced to ____ inches where there is no potential for damage from surface loads or surface conditions.

a)

16

b)

18

c)

20

d)

24

62.

When vacuum systems are used to serve WAGD systems, the medical-surgical vacuum source shall be labeled to indicate ______________.

a)

vacuum only

b)

WAGD only

c)

the system with the highest vacuum level

d)

both vacuum and WAGD

63.

Refer to Diagram #12, identify letter A.

a)

Riser valve in a closed position

b)

Riser valve in an open position

c)

Service valve in a closed position

d)

Service valve in an open position

64.

Which of the following conditions must be met where medical gas and vacuum systems are installed by

non-certified personnel?

a)

An installer certified to ASSE 6010 must be present to oversee the installation work

b)

An inspector certified to ASSE 6020 is on the jobsite to inspect the installation work

c)

The installer must be an employee of an authorized Medical Gas contractor, and only while an installer certified to ASSE 6010 is present to oversee the installation work

d)

Installation by anyone other than 6010 certified personnel is NOT permitted

65.

Which of the following is labeled incorrectly?

a)

Medical-surgical vacuum with green background and white text

b)

Oxygen with green background and white text

c)

Medical air with yellow background and black text

d)

Medical-surgical vacuum with white background and black text

66.

Which level of sedation shall be administered by a Category 3 medical gas system?

a)

General anesthesia

b)

Deep Sedation

c)

Minimal or no sedation

d)

Moderate sedation

67.

NFPA 99 requires that flexible connectors, connected with manufactured assemblies, shall include all EXCEPT which of the following?

a)

Date of installation

b)

Name of vacuum or gas systems

c)

Negative operating pressure

d)

System color code

68.

NFPA specifies that the medical gas piping system shall be protected all EXCEPT which of the following?

a)

Corrosion

b)

Combustible liquids

c)

Physical damage

d)

Freezing

69.

All piping for station outlets & inlets shall be identified as to the name or __________ for the specific medical support gas or vacuum provided.

a)

Chemical symbol

b)

Color

c)

Operating pressure

d)

Style (quick-connect or DISS)

70.

The quality of instrument air shall include all of the following EXCEPT________________.

a)

be filtered to .01 micron

b)

be isolated and kept below 40 psig

c)

be free of liquids

d)

be dry to a dew point of -40° F

71.

In a category 2 dental system oxygen piping shall be ___________.

a)

1 size smaller than nitrous oxide

b)

1 size larger than nitrous oxide

c)

the same size as nitrous oxide

d)

there are no requirements for oxygen and nitrous oxide in a category 2 system

72.

Threaded fittings shall NOT be approved for connections for _______ in medical gas and vacuum systems.

a)

medical gas and vacuum distribution piping

b)

medical gas and vacuum gauges

c)

medical gas and vacuum alarm devices

d)

source equipment on the source side of the source valve

73.

After completion of all installer-performed tests, the code allows for which of these methods to be used to determine that no cross-connection exists?

a)

Individual pressurization to 150 psi

b)

Individual pressurization and pressure differential

c)

Pressure differential of 30 psi above normal operating pressure

d)

None of the options are allowed

74.

Which of these is a requirement for area alarm panels?

a)

Monitored 24/7 continuously

b)

Provide visual and audible indication

c)

Provided in area of air compressors and vacuum pumps

d)

Shall indicate if pressure drops or increases by 10 percent

75.

The maximum support spacing for 3/4" plastic pipe used in dental vacuum systems is ________.

a)

3 feet

b)

4 feet

c)

5 feet

d)

6 feet

76.

Where liquid ring compressors having water-cooled heads or water-cooled aftercoolers are used, the receivers shall be equipped with a high water level sensor that activates a(n) ________ alarm indicator.

a)

area

b)

local

c)

master

d)

pressure

77.

The ____________ or assembly shall close automatically to stop the flow of gas or vacuum,

when the _____________ or assembly is removed.

a)

Primary, secondary

b)

Secondary, primary

c)

emergency, secondary

d)

secondary, emergency

78.

Liquid ring compressors, service water and seal water shall be treated to control ________.

a)

Waterborne pathogens

b)

Chlorine

c)

Hyper-chlorination

d)

Shall be treated to control all that is listed

79.

Copper tubing for vacuum or WAGD service that is installed along with any medical gas tubing, shall prior to installation, be _________________ or otherwise identified to preclude using materials or installation procedures, in medical gas that are not suitable for oxygen

a)

brazed and annealed

b)

soldered and quenched

c)

predominantly labeled

d)

cleaned and stamped

80.

For the initial pressure test for pressure gases and vacuum systems, the test pressure shall be 1.5 times the normal operating pressure, but not less than a gauge pressure of ________.

a)

50 psi

b)

100 psi

c)

150 psi

d)

60 psi

81.

Which of the following shall require the installer to provide documentation prior to any installation of a Category 2 medical gas piping system?

a)

Brazed piping

b)

Dental equipment hook up

c)

Future piping connections

d)

Installer braze log

82.

Manifolds for gas cylinders & manifolds for cryogenic liquid containers share which of these requirements?

a)

Each header shall have a minimum of 3 connections

b)

Each manifold shall be located indoors

c)

Primary & secondary headers shall be located in the same enclosure

d)

The reserve headers shall provide sufficiently for one average day

83.

Which of these is a requirement for a station outlet?

a)

A secondary demand valve

b)

A primary valve

c)

A primary valve and a secondary valve

d)

A primary optional in-line

84.

Brazed joints shall be the __________ type.

a)

hub and spigot

b)

flanged

c)

grooved

d)

socket

85.

Refer to diagram 4. What is the item at #3?

a)

Relief valve

b)

Particulate filter

c)

Alarm sensor

d)

Demand check fitting

86.

Which of the following is NOT required of computer systems used as a substitute master alarm in a

medical gas or vacuum alarm system?

a)

Computer systems shall be permitted to communicate directly to the sensors/switches, in the same manner as an alarm panel, if operation of another alarm panel is not impaired.

b)

Operating programs used to substitute for medical gas alarms, shall be allocated secondary priority of a life safety signal

c)

The system shall be continuously attended by a responsible party or provide remote signaling to the responsible party

d)

The system shall be provided with an audio alert

87.

A signal from each ________ system shall be connected to the master alarm panels,

to indicate that a problem is present with the source equipment.

a)

Area alarm

b)

Pressure switch

c)

Anesthetizing

d)

Local alarm

88.

Performance qualification of brazers shall remain in effect indefinitely, unless the brazer does NOT braze with the qualified procedure for longer than what period of time?

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

2 years

d)

Brazing certs do not expire

89.

Two or more medical gas piping shall NOT be interconnected EXCEPT:

a)

For systems with the same contents with an in-line valve installed between them

b)

For testing

c)

For systems with the same contents with a check valve installed between them

d)

Interconnection is never permitted

90.

High carbon monoxide levels shall be monitored by the local alarm, and shall indicate when the medical air carbon monoxide level exceeds ____________.

a)

5 ppm

b)

10 ppm

c)

15 ppm

d)

20 ppm

91.

If a medical gas system where the analog indicator total range is 0 to 300 psi, and the normal range was indicated in the top third, where would the needle point on the indicator?

a)

0 to 100 psi

b)

0 to 300 psi

c)

100 to 200 psi

d)

200 to 300 psi

92.

Installers of Category 1 medical gas piping systems must be qualified to ASSE 6010. What is the certification requirement for installers of a Category 3 system?

a)

ASSE 6010

b)

ASSE 6020

c)

ASSE 6030

d)

Category 3 does not require certification

93.

Refer to diagram 4. The item #13 would best be described as a(n) __________ valve.

a)

In-line shutoff

b)

Riser

c)

Service

d)

Main line

94.

What valves shall be operable from a standing position, in the corridor on the same floor they serve?

a)

Isolation valves

b)

Service valves

c)

Zone valves

d)

In-line shutoff valves

95.

In a Category 3 medical gas piping system, the master alarm panel shall be located in an area of _______.

a)

Continuous observation

b)

Continuous surveillance

c)

Routine observation

d)

Routine maintenance

96.

The standing pressure test for positive pressure medical gas piping shall be conducted with the source valve closed, and the piping subjected to which test time and pressure?

a)

8 hours at 150 psi

b)

8 hours at 20% above normal operating pressure

c)

24 hours at 20% above normal operating pressure

d)

24 hours at 150 psi

97.

Refer to diagram 3. What is the minimum distance requirement at letter A?

a)

10 feet

b)

15 feet

c)

20 feet

d)

25 feet

98.

Medical air intakes shall maintain a distance of how many feet, from areas where noxious fumes can collect?

a)

10'

b)

15'

c)

20'

d)

25'

99.

Components of manufactured assemblies shall have a flame spread index of not greater than ________ when tested in accordance with ASTM E84.

a)

100

b)

150

c)

200

d)

250

100.

What is required if another alarm condition occurs while the audible alarm is manually silenced?

a)

Nothing the visual indicator is still active

b)

The visual indicator must blink

c)

The audible signal will beep

d)

Re-initiation of the audible signal