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BV Intra Op

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following incisions describes a Chevron incision?

a)

Midline from just below the xiphoid process at an oblique angle to the costal margin.

b)

A bilateral subcostal incision in the abdomen, in the shape of an inverted "V," used in upper abdominal surgery.

c)

Angles from the midline, following along the seventh or eighth intercostal space, used for esophagogastric access or Hiatal hernias.

d)

Used to access pelvic bones, transverse incision follows the symphysis pubis.

2.

What is the position of choice for a lumpectomy?

a)

Supine

b)

Kraske

c)

Prone

d)

Lateral recumbent

3.

A patient that presents with obstructed breathing and nasal drainage has been diagnosed with a deviated septum. What procedure will they be scheduled for?

a)

Myringotomy

b)

Septoplasty

c)

Mastoidectomy

d)

Ethmoidectomy

4.

What is the term that describes the action of a surgeon capable of operating a robot during a surgical procedure without having direct contact with their patient?

a)

Telechir

b)

Telepresence

c)

Telesurgery

d)

Telerobotic

5.

Which of the following statements regarding an end-to-end anastomosis of the bowel is correct?

a)

The anastomosis is best accomplished using a one-layer closure technique.

b)

If a stapler is used to transect the bowel, the staple line will not be excised prior to the anastomosis.

c)

Open ends of the bowel may be suctioned to remove any fecal matter prior to anastomosis.

d)

The mucosal layer is typically closed with a non-absorbable continuous suture.

6.

What is one of the goals of a Nissen fundoplication procedure?

a)

Inguinal hernia

b)

Femoral hernia

c)

Umbilical hernia

d)

Hiatal hernia

7.

Which of the following is an advantage of a paramedian vertical abdominal incision compared to a median vertical abdominal incision?

a)

Decreased intraoperative bleeding

b)

Decreased infection rate

c)

Better wound strength

d)

No atrophy of the rectus abdominus muscle

8.

The surgeon is ready to start the opening to expose the femoral canal during a total hip arthroplasty, what instrument should the surgical technologist have available?

a)

Bone elevator

b)

Bone retractor

c)

Intramedullary Reamer

d)

Bone Holding Clamp

9.

When the circulator opens an envelope folded sterile package to give it to the sterile team member, the non-sterile individual opens the first flap?

a)

On the left or right side

b)

Toward him/herself

c)

Away from him/herself

d)

Onto the sterile field

10.

Which of the following sutures would most likely be used when closing the uterus during a cesarean section?

a)

2-0 or 0 non-absorbable suture

b)

2-0 or 0 absorbable suture

c)

#2 non-absorbable suture

d)

3-0 absorbable suture

11.

Select the best method for the surgical technologist to re-scrub the sterile field after leaving the room for a short period of time:

a)

The surgical technologist will step away from the sterile field, remove gloves and gown, and re-glove and re-gown before returning to the sterile field.

b)

The surgical technologist will step away from the field, remove gloves, and re-glove before returning to the sterile field.

c)

The surgical technologist will step away from the field, the circulator will untie the gown, the surgical technologist will then face the circulator, the circulator will remove the gown from the shoulders, and the surgical technologist will hold their arms out with their palms oht

d)

The surgical technologist will step away from the field, remove gloves and gown, and re-glove and re-gown before returning to the sterile field.

12.

There are various preexisting hemostatic disorders, some are acquired others are genetic, these prevent the blood to adequately coagulate; which of the following is a preexisting hemostatic disorder?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Liver disease

c)

Aplastic anemia

d)

Alcohol induced liver failure

13.

You are attending a thoracic surgery for a patient with lung cancer. During the thoracotomy the surgeon asks for a clamp to grasp a pulmonary segment. Which clamp would most likely be used?

a)

Kelly clamp

b)

Duval clamp

c)

Bulldog clamp

d)

Babcock clamp

14.

Which of the following fractures involves the piercing of bone through skin?

a)

Comminuted

b)

Compound

c)

Greenstick

d)

Oblique

15.

For patients who are diagnosed with bladder malignancy, a radical cystectomy with ileal conduit is performed. To maintain urinary continuity, the ureters will be diverted to the:

a)

Rectum

b)

Ileum

c)

Ilium

d)

Urethra

16.

Which of the following bladder catheters has a small, curved tip designed to maneuver around an enlarged prostate?

a)

Malecot

b)

Pezzer

c)

Foley three-way

d)

Coude'

17.

When a telescope is introduced to the body, the difference between room temperature and body temperature will cause which of the following on the lens?

a)

Fogging

b)

Cracks

c)

Clearness

d)

Crystallization

18.

While preparing for a carotid endarterectomy, the surgical technologist will need which of the following suture for the vessel closure?

a)

6-0 Prolene

b)

2-0 Vicryl

c)

6-0 Chromic Gut

d)

2-0 Silk

19.

A myringotomy is a surgical procedure performed due to chronic:

a)

Laryngitis

b)

Sinusitis

c)

Rhinitis

d)

Otitis media

20.

To achieve intraperitoneal distention, a cannulated needle will provide the following.

a)

Back flow

b)

Air flow

c)

Pneumoperitoneum

d)

Intussusception

21.

Who is responsible for monitoring implants on the surgical field?

a)

CST (certified surgical technologist)

b)

Surgeon

c)

Circulator

d)

Surgical First Assist

22.

Which of the following would be an accurate characteristic of CO2 gas used during insufflation of the abdominal cavity during laparoscopy?

a)

Highly combustible

b)

Better solubility in blood

c)

High risk of gas embolism

d)

May cause extreme intraperitoneal adhesions

23.

During orthopedic surgery once the surgeon has drilled an initial hole, the next step would require the following instrument prior to insertion of the screw:

a)

Osteotome

b)

Drill

c)

Tap

d)

Depth gauge

24.

A surgeon is performing a cervical cone biopsy and has encountered bleeding. What solution can be used to control the bleeding?

a)

Monsel's solution

b)

Lugol's solution

c)

Collodion

d)

Acetic acid

25.

Which of the following sutures is a monofilament, non-absorbable suture used to close the peritoneum?

a)

Prolene

b)

Silk

c)

Vicryl

d)

Monocryl

26.

Which of the following incisions is used during an open gastrostomy procedure?

a)

McBurney incision

b)

Upper paramedian

c)

Pfannenstiel

d)

Right subcostal

27.

What is the purpose of a three-way foley after a TURP?

a)

Irrigate and maintain hemostasis

b)

Keep the site sterile

c)

Monitor output

d)

Monitor input

28.

A Rongeur is issued for removing small amounts of bone during laminectomies and various orthopedic surgical procedures. This instrument is considered to be a:

a)

Clamping instrument

b)

Cutting instrument

c)

Grasping instrument

d)

Probing instrument

29.

Shorter endoscopic instrumentation are routinely used in which of the following specialties?

a)

Gynecology

b)

Cardiothoracic

c)

General

d)

Orthopedic

30.

When passing instruments, how should the surgical technologist always pass them?

a)

Always by the box lock

b)

Always by the tips

c)

Always in the position of function

d)

Always by the screw

31.

What item is placed over suture ends to prevent cutting into the skin?

a)

Vessel loops

b)

Suture anchors

c)

Bridges

d)

Bolsters

32.

A pediatric patient is diagnosed with Hirschsprung Disease. What surgical procedure will address this pathology?

a)

Anal transposition

b)

Gastrostomy

c)

Robot-Assisted Laparoscopic Pyeloplasty

d)

Resection and pull-through of the right colon

33.

What nerve will you find within the carotid sheath?

a)

Trigeminal nerve

b)

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

c)

Vagus nerve

d)

Facial nerve

34.

The main role of a certified surgical technologist during a code blue is to:

a)

Perform chest compressions.

b)

Prepare and give intravenous medications as directed.

c)

Leave the operating room to avoid overcrowding.

d)

Keep himself or herself sterile and prevent contamination of the sterile field.

35.

During an open cholecystectomy, it is important to expose the common bile duct. What would the retractor of choice be?

a)

Israel

b)

Senn

c)

Bookwalter

d)

Deaver

36.

The surgeon has just performed a cesarean section and notices a hole in the bowel. What abdominal retractor should the surgical technologist tell the circulator to obtain?

a)

Finochietto

b)

Cloward

c)

Bookwalter

d)

Hohmann

37.

Which of the following retractors would be most used in open liver procedures?

a)

Weitlaner

b)

Army-Navy

c)

Harrington

d)

O'Connor-O'Sullivan

38.

The final intraoperative step to be done before wound closure, to ensure hemostasis is achieved is?

a)

Suturing

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Wound irrigation

d)

Instrument counts

39.

Which operating room sentinel event(s) listed below would necessitate further analysis and investigating?

a)

Latex allergy

b)

Burn to the patient from the ESU pencil

c)

Retained instrument

d)

--

40.

When performing a tympanoplasty, which suction tip is preferred for this surgical procedure?

a)

Pincheon

b)

Frazier

c)

Yankhauer

d)

Rosen

41.

What type of suture is commonly used to close the mucosa of the intestine in a gastrointestinal procedure?

a)

Cotton

b)

Vicryl

c)

Chromic gut

d)

Pronova, Monofilament

42.

Disinfectants used to kill all bacteria, viruses and fungi are classified as:

a)

Low level

b)

High level

c)

Intermediate level

d)

Antiseptic

43.

You have injured your foot during a 5K race. At the physician's office visit, the physician asks you to point your toe as if you want to dip it in water. What is the joint movement of the ankle that will allow you to point your toe?

a)

Supination

b)

Circumduction

c)

Eversion

d)

Plantar flexion

44.

Which of the following describes a tract leading from a point of infection to a point of eruption outside the body?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Hernia

c)

Fistula

d)

Seroma

45.

Which of the following is true of the AST guideline on bowel technique?

a)

The bowel technique should be recognized as beginning when the skin incision is made.

b)

The instruments in the second Mayo stand set up are considered contaminated after coming in contact with the open GI tract.

c)

Sterile towels should be placed around the surgical incision site after the GI tract is opened.

d)

The CST should wait until the surgical team members change gloves and gowns before donning a new sterile gown and gloves.

46.

When passing endoscopic instruments to a surgeon, the Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) should pass the working end of the instrument in which position toward the endoscope's opening?

a)

Downward

b)

Upward

c)

Diagonally

d)

Neutral

47.

The surgeon has just closed an open reduction internal fixation of a right distal radius and has decided to apply a cast. Which of the following materials should the surgical technologist have available for the surgeon to apply before the casting material?

a)

Coban

b)

Webril

c)

Esmark

d)

Ace wrap

48.

Which operating room sentinel event(s) listed below would necessitate further analysis and investigating?

a)

Latex allergy

b)

Burn to the patient from the ESU pencil

c)

Retained instrument

d)

--

49.

When performing a tympanoplasty, which suction tip is preferred for this surgical procedure?

a)

Pincheon

b)

Frazier

c)

Yankhauer

d)

Rosen

50.

What type of suture is commonly used to close the mucosa of the intestine in a gastrointestinal procedure?

a)

Cotton

b)

Vicryl

c)

Chromic gut

d)

Pronova, Monofilament

51.

Disinfectants used to kill all bacteria, viruses and fungi are classified as:

a)

Low level

b)

High level

c)

Intermediate level

d)

Antiseptic

52.

You have injured your foot during a 5K race. At the physician's office visit, the physician asks you to point your toe as if you want to dip it in water. What is the joint movement of the ankle that will allow you to point your toe?

a)

Supination

b)

Circumduction

c)

Eversion

d)

Plantar flexion

53.

Which of the following describes a tract leading from a point of infection to a point of eruption outside the body?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Hernia

c)

Fistula

d)

Seroma

54.

Which of the following is true of the AST guideline on bowel technique?

a)

The bowel technique should be recognized as beginning when the skin incision is made.

b)

The instruments in the second Mayo stand set up are considered contaminated after coming in contact with the open GI tract.

c)

Sterile towels should be placed around the surgical incision site after the GI tract is opened.

d)

The CST should wait until the surgical team members change gloves and gowns before donning a new sterile gown and gloves.

55.

When passing endoscopic instruments to a surgeon, the Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) should pass the working end of the instrument in which position toward the endoscope's opening?

a)

Downward

b)

Upward

c)

Diagonally

d)

Neutral

56.

The surgeon has just closed an open reduction internal fixation of a right distal radius and has decided to apply a cast. Which of the following materials should the surgical technologist have available for the surgeon to apply before the casting material?

a)

Coban

b)

Webril

c)

Esmark

d)

Ace wrap

57.

Patients requiring hemodialysis need to have what procedure performed?

a)

A. Aortofermoral bypass

b)

B. Endarterectomy

c)

C. Arteriovenous fistula

d)

D. Cardiac catheterization

58.

During a procedure, the CST (certified surgical technologist) notices the Bovie pencil lying exposed on the field. What action should the CST take?

a)

None since the Bovie is not being used

b)

Alert the surgeon

c)

Cross the field and place the Bovie in a proper receptacle

d)

Alert the circulating nurse

59.

What is the term used when a clot dislodges and escapes either the iliac or femoral veins?

a)

Varicose vein

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Deep vein thrombosis

d)

Arteriosclerosis

60.

Which of the following is an emphasis of CPR guidelines?

a)

Give 2 rescue breaths before starting chest compressions.

b)

Rate of compressions should be 80 per minute.

c)

In order to decrease time without compressions, after a shock is given, compressions should start immediately.

d)

If there is a single rescuer, the compression to breath ratio is 60:2 for an adult.

61.

Select the correct order of the phases of anesthesia.

a)

Maintenance, Emergence, Induction, Recovery

b)

Emergence, Induction, Recovery, Maintenance

c)

Induction, Maintenance, Emergence, Recovery

d)

Recovery, Maintenance, Emergence, Induction

62.

Which of the following thoracic procedures involves inserting a scope into the chest between the pleural sacs to view the associated structures such as the heart and large vessels?

a)

Bronchoscopy

b)

Mediastinoscopy

c)

Thoracoscopy

d)

Angiography

63.

During a total hip arthroplasty, what components are replaced?

a)

Acetabulum, femoral head and pelvic pocket only

b)

Acetabulum, femoral neck and femoral head only

c)

Femoral head and neck only

d)

Femoral head and acetabulum only

64.

The surgeon is performing a carotid endarterectomy and needs to elevate the plaque. Which instrument should the surgical technologist pass to the surgeon?

a)

Debakey

b)

Freer

c)

Weitlaner

d)

Bulldog

65.

Which of the following procedures involves excision of a hepatocellular tumor?

a)

Liver resection

b)

Liver biopsy

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Hemicolectomy

66.

The surgeon has made an incision for a total abdominal hysterectomy. What abdominal retractor should the surgical technologist have available?

a)

Adson-Beckman

b)

O'Sullivan-O'Connor

c)

Leyla-Yasargil

d)

Greenberg

67.

The surgeon is performing a liver resection and asks for a suture, what type of needle tip should the suture have?

a)

Side cutting

b)

Blunt

c)

Cutting

d)

Tapercut

68.

When may a specimen be passed to the circulator?

a)

Immediately after obtaining it

b)

Upon the surgeon's permission is granted

c)

When the circulator asks for it

d)

Upon completion of the case

69.

Choose the correct statement regarding why fingernail polish on surgical patients must be removed prior to surgery.

a)

Fingernail polish on surgical patients may contribute to post-operative wound infection.

b)

Fingernail polish will interfere with the oxygen level assessment.

c)

Fingernail polish may interfere with the surgical prep.

d)

The area under fingernail polish is rich with resident flora.

70.

When reviewing the concepts of electrosurgical electrical energy which of the following flow is accurately defined?

a)

While using a bipolar energy flow alternate site burn may occur

b)

While using monopolar energy flow alternate site burn may occur

c)

Monopolar electrical energy passes through tissue and returns through the instrument

d)

Bipolar electrical energy passes through tissue and returns to the grounding pad

71.

To repair a laceration on the liver, the surgical technologist should make sure that the needle tip for the suture to be used is:

a)

Blunt

b)

Reverse cutting

c)

Cutting

d)

Tapered

72.

What is a major concern for a surgeon while performing telesurgery?

a)

Distance

b)

Trembling hands

c)

Malfunction of the robotic arm

d)

Time delay

73.

Which of the following surgeries is performed by connecting new vessels to the myocardium?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft

b)

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement

c)

Liver transplantation

d)

Renal transplantation

74.

Which one of the following drapes would be referred to as a fenestrated drape?

a)

A drape that has a squared off window allowing for exposure of the operative site

b)

A drape that has two tails and may be placed around the neck region of the body

c)

A drape that has an impregnated self-adhesive plastic

d)

A drape that could be used to drape a two basin ring stand

75.

The surgeon just completed a lobectomy on his patient. The patient will receive a chest tube to provide negative pressure to the thoracic cavity. When will the chest tube be attached to the closed drainage system?

a)

Before he checks for air leaks during positive pressure inspiration

b)

Once closure of the pleural space is complete

c)

Once the patient is transferred to PACU

d)

Immediately after the tube is inserted into the thoracic cavity

76.

A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves the removal of:

a)

The entire sphenoid sinus

b)

A tumor on the pituitary gland

c)

A meningioma

d)

A tumor of the eighth cranial nerve

77.

What is the common reason for a total gastrectomy?

a)

Malignancy

b)

Excessive stomach acid

c)

Bloating

d)

Chronic abdominal pain

78.

Preparing the operating room for a breast reconstruction with a micro vascular free flap, how many set ups would there be?

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

Four

79.

Which of the following describes a hernia with a compromised blood supply that may lead to necrosis?

a)

Inguinal

b)

Strangulated

c)

Congenital

d)

Incarcerated

80.

The surgeon is performing an iridectomy, which instrument would be used as an eye speculum?

a)

Bishop-Harmon

b)

Bowman

c)

Barraquer

d)

Keratome

81.

When doing a bronchoscopy, which characteristics would be suggestive of right main bronchus instead of the left main bronchus?

a)

A) Wider, shorter, more vertical

b)

B) Narrower, shorter, more horizontal

c)

C) Wider, longer, more horizontal

d)

D) Narrower, longer, more vertical

82.

What can be used in place of surgical ligatures to occlude vessels?

a)

Sponges

b)

Clips

c)

Sutures

d)

Clamps

83.

A Doppler probe can be used within a sterile field as long as the surgical technologist has ________.

a)

Wiped it down with saline

b)

Covered it with a sterile drape

c)

Wiped it down with sterile water

d)

Soaked in Cidex®

84.

The surgeon has made an incision for an anterior cervical discectomy, which of the following retractors should the surgical technologist have available?

a)

Balfour

b)

Cloward

c)

Deaver

d)

Mayfield

85.

Which of the following retractors is typically used for a pneumonectomy?

a)

Harrington

b)

Balfour

c)

Army – Navy

d)

Allison lung retractor

86.

Which of the following information is the surgical technologist responsible for reporting to the circulator for documentation in the operating room record?

a)

Amount of contrast used during the procedure.

b)

Amount of prep solution used.

c)

Amount of saline used during the procedure.

d)

Amount of Diprivan used.

87.

What is the key skill a CST (certified surgical technologist) must possess for the intraoperative phase of surgical case management?

a)

Anticipation

b)

Good communication skills

c)

Good rapport with the circulator

d)

Organizational skill

88.

Which of the following are the most common injuries associated with laser surgery?

a)

Infection

b)

Eye injury and tissue burn

c)

Infertility and genetic mutation

d)

Wound dehiscence

89.

Which of the following procedures carries the risk of developing post-operative pelvic floor weakness?

a)

Esophagectomy

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Craniectomy

d)

Hysterectomy

90.

A removal of the entire breast, lymph nodes, minor pectoral muscle is known as what?

a)

Modified mastectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Radical mastectomy

d)

Excisional biopsy

91.

Which of the following instruments is placed into the cervical canal to determine the direction and depth of the uterine cavity?

a)

Hegar

b)

Goodell

c)

Sims

d)

Bozeman

92.

What is the procedure that removes the fibrotic plaque that may develop in the intima layer of the arteries?

a)

Arteriovenous fistula creation

b)

Angioplasty

c)

Endarterectomy

d)

Thrombectomy

93.

Retracting what muscle will expose the thyroid gland?

a)

Suprahyoid

b)

Platysma

c)

Trapezius

d)

Sternocleidomastoid

94.

Which of the following refers to placement of one or more clamps at a right angle to a tube or blood vessel during surgery in the GI tract?

a)

Double-clamp

b)

Clamp and divide

c)

Cross-clamp

d)

Division

95.

A surgeon is doing an abdominal wall repair and asks for a suture, but you can't quite hear what size she asked for. What size is she most likely to need?

a)

8-0

b)

6-0

c)

4-0

d)

2-0

96.

The surgical technologist is preparing to help the surgeon close on an aortic valve replacement. The surgeon is using a looped PDS suture to close the chest wall. Which of the following cutting devices should the technologist have ready to pass to the assistant?

a)

Curved Mayo scissors

b)

Metzenbaum scissors

c)

Straight Mayo scissors

d)

Potts Smith scissors

97.

To restore circulation in the iliac arteries an aortofemoral bypass is performed. A graft is implanted between the aorta and the femoral arteries to bypass the occluded iliacs. The ends of the graft are usually trimmed in a:

a)

90-degree angle

b)

30-degree angle

c)

45-degree angle

d)

75-degree angle

98.

The surgical technologist is scrubbed in on an incision and drainage of an abscess on the left thigh. How should the surgical technologist anticipate the surgeon would close and dress the wound?

a)

Close with a 2-0 PDS and dressed with a 3-layer dressing

b)

Leave the wound open and packed with iodoform gauze

c)

Wound is packed with iodoform gauze, and skin is closed with retention sutures

d)

Close with a 2-0 nylon and dressed with fluffs and paper tape

99.

In cases involving the biliary tract, spleen, or pancreas, both general and vascular instruments are used. Which instrument should the CST have ready for the surgeon for any of these procedures?

a)

Potts – Smith scissors

b)

Right angle

c)

Senn retractors

d)

Mayo scissors

100.

During a laparoscopic procedure, which of the following will the surgeon use to remove a specimen?

a)

Lab sponge

b)

Endo Catch

c)

Ray Tec

d)

Kittner