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Worksheets

Day 6 39-48

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The standard meter is defined as wavelengths in a vacuum of the orange-red line of the spectrum of krypton 86

a)

1,560,763.73

b)

1,650,763.73

c)

1,750,763.73

d)

1,850,763.73

2.

Originally defined as the fraction 1/86400 of the mean solar day and now defined as the duration of 9,192,631,770 periods of the radiation of a certain state of the cesium-133 atom

a)

Second

b)

Minute

c)

Hour

d)

Day

3.

The ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water

a)

Specific weight

b)

Relative weight

c)

Specific gravity

d)

Mass

4.

The ___ of a substance is its density relative to that of pure water.

a)

density

b)

specific weight

c)

specific gravity

d)

pressure

5.

What is another name for specific gravity?

a)

Density

b)

Relative density

c)

Specific weight

d)

Mass

6.

What is the specific gravity of water?

a)

1.0

b)

1000

c)

62.4

d)

0.8

7.

What is another term for density?

a)

Specific gravity

b)

Specific weight

c)

Inertia

d)

Malleability

8.

Which of the following is NOT a density of water?

a)

1000 kg/m^3

b)

9.81 kN/m^3

c)

1 gram/cc

d)

64.2 lb/ft^3

9.

What is the specific gravity of mercury?

a)

1.0

b)

0.8

c)

7.5

d)

13.6

10.

Absolute zero temperature is

a)

32 °F

b)

0 °C

c)

4 °C

d)

0 °K

11.

At what temperature readings do the Fahrenheit and Celsius have the same value?

a)

-30°C

b)

-35°C

c)

-40°C

d)

-45°C

12.

Densed condition of water is at what temperature?

a)

0 °C

b)

2 °C

c)

4 °C

d)

100 °C

13.

Indicate the FALSE statement about temperature.

a)

Boiling point of centigrade scale is 100°

b)

Fahrenheit scale was invented by a German

c)

Absolute temperature scale is expressed in °K

d)

Absolute temperature in Fahrenheit scale is -273°

14.

Standard atmospheric pressure.

a)

9810 N/m^2

b)

13.7 psi

c)

0.5 bar

d)

760 mm of Hg

15.

Absolute pressure equals

a)

Gauge pressure

b)

Atmospheric pressure

c)

Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure

d)

Barometric pressure

16.

The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called

a)

Gauge pressure

b)

Barometric pressure

c)

1 torr

d)

All of the above

17.

Under normal condition, the gauge pressure at water surface is

a)

Less than zero

b)

Equal to zero

c)

Greater than zero

d)

Half the atmospheric pressure

18.

An instrument used to measure air pressure is the

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Wind vane

d)

Pitot tube

19.

The atmospheric pressure at mean sea level is known as the standard atmospheric pressure and is equal to how many psi?

a)

13.7

b)

14.7

c)

15.7

d)

16.7

20.

At constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature. This is known as

a)

Boyle’s Law

b)

Charles’ Law

c)

Gay-Lussac law

d)

Ideal gas law

21.

At constant temperature, the volume is inversely proportional to the pressure. This is known as

a)

Boyle’s Law

b)

Charles’ Law

c)

Gay-Lussac Law

d)

Ideal Gas Law

22.

All are scalar quantities except

a)

Acceleration

b)

Speed

c)

Energy

d)

Temperature

23.

All are vector quantities except

a)

Displacement

b)

Electric field intensity

c)

Torque

d)

Mass

24.

A vector is a straight line segment that has a definite

a)

length and direction

b)

direction and sense

c)

length and sense

d)

length, direction and sense

25.

The scalar product of two vectors is sometimes known as

a)

dot product

b)

resultant

c)

cross product

d)

magnitude

26.

Which of the following is incorrect?

a)

All vector quantities have magnitudes

b)

All scalar quantities have directions

c)

All scalar quantities have magnitudes

d)

All vector quantities have directions

27.

The ___ of two vectors is obtained by adding one vector to the negative of the other.

a)

magnitude

b)

sum

c)

product

d)

difference

28.

The distance per unit time

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Motion

29.

The displacement per unit time

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Motion

30.

Defined as the gravitational force exerted on an object because of its attraction to some other masses such as the earth

a)

Weight

b)

Mass

c)

Inertia

d)

Either mass or weight

31.

Defined quantitatively as the amount of matter of which the object is made. It also refers to the measure of the object’s inertia

a)

Weight

b)

Mass

c)

Relative density

d)

Specific weight

32.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

The weight and mass of a body depends upon its location

b)

The mass of the body is dependent on its location

c)

The weight of a body is independent of its location

d)

The weight of a body depends on its location while the mass is independent of its location

33.

Which of the following is true about the weight of an object?

a)

It is the force with which it is attracted to the earth

b)

It is the same as the mass of the object

c)

It is equivalent to the mass of the object divided by the gravitational acceleration

d)

It is constant anywhere in the universe

34.

A measure of inertia of a body, which is its resistance to a change in velocity

a)

Force

b)

Mass

c)

Acceleration

d)

Moment of inertia

35.

A quantitative measure of inertia

a)

Weight

b)

Mass

c)

Force

d)

Acceleration

36.

Indicate the FALSE statement

a)

Weight of body is a gravitational force

b)

Mass is the measure of the response of the body to an applied force

c)

Weight of the body varies with its location

d)

Weight of the body is always equal to its mass

37.

A cart loaded with gravel is hard to get started rolling because of its large

a)

Mass

b)

Weight

c)

Density

d)

Volume

38.

The mass to which a force of one pound will give an acceleration of one foot per second per second

a)

Slug

b)

Dyne

c)

Erg

d)

Joule

39.

The tendency of any object to remain at rest or to continue in motion is called

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Mass

c)

Inertia

d)

Static

40.

Any influence capable of producing change in the motion of an object is called

a)

Force

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Vector

41.

Which of the following is NOT a unit of force?

a)

Pound

b)

Erg

c)

Dyne

d)

Newton

42.

The unit of force which is equivalent to 1 gram-cm/sec^2

a)

Joule

b)

Slug

c)

Dyne

d)

Newton

43.

The product of force and displacement is called

a)

energy

b)

power

c)

work

d)

momentum

44.

Which of the following is NOT a unit of work?

a)

Joules

b)

Kilowatt-hour

c)

Erg

d)

Slug

45.

What is the SI unit of work?

a)

Joule

b)

Kg – m

c)

N – cm

d)

Foot – pound

46.

The work done by the external force on particles is equal to the ___ of the particle.

a)

change in momentum

b)

impulse

c)

change in kinetic energy

d)

change in potential energy

47.

The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the ___ of the system.

a)

Total potential energy

b)

Total impulse

c)

Total mechanical energy

d)

Total momentum

48.

There is no work done when

a)

the force is parallel to the displacement

b)

the force is perpendicular to the displacement

c)

there is an angle between the force and the displacement

d)

all of the above

49.

The work done by a force of 1 newton acting through a distance of 1m is known as

a)

watt

b)

erg

c)

joule

d)

Btu

50.

The work done in lifting an object of mass “m” to a height “h” is

a)

mh

b)

mgh

c)

mh/g

d)

mgh/2

51.

Indicate the false statement about work.

a)

Work = force x distance

b)

Work is a scalar quantity

c)

The unit of work in the SI system is joules and erg in the English system

d)

Work = power x time

52.

The force due to gravity does not work on objects that

a)

fall to the ground

b)

is moved vertically upward

c)

is moved parallel to the surface of the earth

d)

all of the above

53.

The rate of doing work

a)

Force

b)

Energy

c)

Power

d)

Momentum

54.

ring which it acts is known as

a)

momentum

b)

impulse

c)

coefficient of restitution

d)

impact

55.

Momentum is the product of mass and

a)

acceleration

b)

velocity

c)

force

d)

time

56.

Change of momentum is equal to

a)

displacement

b)

impulse

c)

power

d)

kinetic energy

57.

What is the SI unit of Impulse?

a)

N-s

b)

kg-m/s

c)

Slugs/s

d)

N-m/s

58.

What is the SI unit of momentum?

a)

N-s

b)

kg-m/s

c)

Slugs/s

d)

N-m/s

59.

If the velocity of the body doubled in value, its will also doubled

a)

acceleration

b)

impulse

c)

momentum

d)

kinetic energy

60.

The negative ration of the relative velocity after a collision to a relative velocity before a collision

a)

Coefficient of friction

b)

Coefficient of sliding

c)

Coefficient of kinetic friction

d)

Coefficient of restitution

61.

A collision in which the total kinetic energy after collision is less than that before collision

a)

Elastic collision

b)

Inelastic collision

c)

Straight line collision

d)

Off center collision

62.

When the colliding bodies stick together on impact which results in the maximum possible loss in kinetic energy, it is said to be collision

a)

elastic

b)

inelastic

c)

completely inelastic

d)

none of the above

63.

Which of the following is true about collision?

a)

In elastic collision, no kinetic energy is lost

b)

In elastic collision, the two colliding bodies stick together after impact

c)

In completely inelastic collision, no kinetic energy is lost

d)

Kinetic energy is not conserved in an elastic collision

64.

At what situation when the colliding objects stops and the target moves off with the same speed after collision?

a)

When their masses are equal to the target is stationary

b)

When the target is stationary even if their masses are not equal

c)

When their masses are equal and the target is moving with a speed less than that of the colliding body

d)

When their masses are equal and the target is moving with a speed greater than that of the colliding body

65.

If the colliding object has a mass less than that of the stationary target, after impact, the;

a)

colliding object stops

b)

the colliding object continues its motion in the same direction with reduced speed

c)

the colliding object continues its motion in the same direction with the same speed

d)

the lighter object bounces off the heavier one

66.

If the colliding object has a mass greater than that of the stationary target, after impact, the

a)

colliding object stops

b)

the colliding object continues its motion in the same direction with reduced speed

c)

the colliding object continues its motion in the same direction the same speed

d)

the lighter the object bounces off the heavier one

67.

For perfect elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution, e, is equal to

a)

0

b)

1

c)

Negative value

d)

Infinity

68.

For perfect inelastic collision, the coefficient of restitution, e, is equal to

a)

0

b)

1

c)

Negative value

d)

Infinity

69.

In an elastic collision,

a)

The kinetic energy is conserved

b)

The kinetic energy is not conserved

c)

The objects stick together after impact

d)

The loss of kinetic energy is maximum

70.

“For every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction”. This is known as

a)

Newton’s first law

b)

Newton’s second law

c)

Newton’s third law

d)

Law of inertia

71.

“Every body continues in its state of rest or at constant speed in a straight line motion, it is compelled to change that state because of forces acting on it”. This is known as

a)

Newton’s first law

b)

Newton’s second law

c)

Newton’s third law

d)

Kepler’s law

72.

“An unbalanced force acting on an object will cause the object to accelerate in the direction of the force”. This is known as

a)

Newton’s first law

b)

Newton’s second law

c)

Newton’s third law

d)

Kepler’s law

73.

Newton’s second law of motion states that the rate of change of momentum with respect to time is

a)

Force

b)

Energy

c)

Power

d)

Work

74.

The accurate formulation of the law of motions, as well as of gravitational was made by

a)

Galileo

b)

Kepler

c)

Varignon

d)

Newton

75.

The law which describes the motion of stars, planets and comets

a)

Law of universal gravitation

b)

Newton’s law of motions

c)

Kepler’s laws

d)

Big bang and black hole

76.

Which of the following does not describe that object as observed from earth?

a)

Apogee

b)

Perigee

c)

Eccentricity

d)

Focus

77.

If an external pressure is applied in a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at every point in the fluid by the amount of external pressure. This is known as

a)

Archimedes principle

b)

Pascal’s law

c)

Boyle’s law

d)

Bernoulli's theorem

78.

According to this law: “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them”

a)

Law of universal gravitation

b)

Coulomb’s law

c)

Newton’s law

d)

Inverse-square law

79.

“At any two points along a streamline in an ideal fluid in a steady flow, the sum of the pressure, the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume has the same value”. This concept is known as

a)

Pascal’s Theorem

b)

Bernoulli’s theorem

c)

Hydraulic theorem

d)

Ideal fluid theorem

80.

“Whenever a net force acts on a body, it produces an acceleration in the direction of the resultant force, an acceleration that is directly proportional to the mass of the body. This theory is popularly known as

a)

Faraday’s law of forces

b)

Newton’s second law of motion

c)

Newton’s first law of motion

d)

Hooke’s law of equilibrium

81.

A measure of the resistance of a body it offers to any changes in its angular velocity, determined by its mass and distribution of its mass about the axis of rotation is known as

a)

moment of inertia

b)

friction

c)

torsion

d)

angular acceleration

82.

In the equation E = mc^2, c is

a)

the distance between the neutral axis to the outermost fiber

b)

Einstein constant

c)

speed of light

d)

speed of sound

83.

The range of a projectile depends on

a)

initial velocity only

b)

initial velocity and weight of the body

c)

initial velocity and angle of projection

d)

initial velocity, weight of the body and angle of projection

84.

In a trajectory, air resistance decreases

a)

the speed

b)

the maximum height

c)

the range of projectile

d)

all of the above

85.

In the absence of air resistance, a projectile sent off at an angle of θ above the horizontal with an initial velocity of V has a horizontal range of

a)

R = (V^2/g) sin2θ

b)

R = (2Vsinθ)/g

c)

R = (V/g)sin2θ

d)

R = (2Vsinθ)/g

86.

In the preceding question, the time of flight is

a)

t = (2V sin^2 θ)/g

b)

t = (V^2 sin^2 θ)/g

c)

t = (V^2 / g) sin2θ

d)

t = (2Vsinθ)/g

87.

The trajectory of a projectile is a graph of

a)

circle

b)

parabola

c)

ellipse

d)

hyperbola

88.

If an object is thrown vertically upward, its acceleration

a)

is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically downward

b)

is equal to that of an object thrown vertically downward

c)

greater than that of the object thrown vertically downward

d)

zero until the object reaches maximum point

89.

The acceleration is the resultant force on this object

a)

directly proportional to

b)

inversely proportional to

c)

directly proportional to the square of

d)

inversely proportional to the square of

90.

The acceleration is the mass of the object

a)

directly proportional to

b)

inversely proportional to

c)

directly proportional to the square of

d)

inversely proportional to the square of

91.

Refers to the vertical speed at which the force of air resistance is just sufficient to balance the body’s weight

a)

Gravitational acceleration

b)

Terminal speed

c)

Drag

d)

Lift

92.

Objects falling in air from the same height will not reach the ground at the same time because:

a)

air resistance increases with velocity

b)

falling body will eventually reaches terminal velocity

c)

if it reaches terminal velocity, it cannot fall any faster than that

d)

all of the above

93.

A point on the object from which it can be suspended in any orientation without tending to rotate

a)

Center of gravity

b)

Barycenter

c)

Centroid

d)

All of the above

94.

What is another term for centroid?

a)

Center of gravity

b)

Center of mass

c)

Barycenter

d)

All of the above

95.

Centrifugal force is directly proportional to

a)

the square of the tangential velocity

b)

the tangential velocity

c)

radius of curvature

d)

the weight of an object

96.

The amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 pound of water at 1°F

a)

Calorie

b)

Thermal energy

c)

Specific heat

d)

British Thermal Unit (BTU)

97.

Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise a temperature of 1 gram of water at 1°C

a)

1 gram

b)

1 kilogram

c)

1 pound

d)

1 ton

98.

The amount of heat needed to change the temperature of a unit quantity of it by 1°

a)

BTU

b)

Heat transfer

c)

Temperature

d)

Specific heat capacity

99.

What is specific heat?

a)

A temperature of 1 kg sample reported in °C

b)

The heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1°F

c)

The energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance 1°C

d)

Any of the above

100.

Any body immersed in a fluid is subjected to a buoyant force which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. This is known as

a)

Pascal’s Law

b)

Bernoulli’s theorem

c)

Archimedes principle

d)

Venturi’s principle

101.

The total hydrostatic force on plane area is directly proportional to

a)

Density of fluid

b)

Square of the pressure head

c)

Square of the area

d)

Cube of the area

102.

Buoyant force is equal to

a)

density of fluid x total volume

b)

density of fluid x volume above the surface

c)

density of fluid x volume submerged

d)

specific gravity of fluid x volume submerged

103.

Refers to the tendency of the liquid surface to contact to the minimum possible area in any situation

a)

Ductility

b)

Viscosity

c)

Surface tension

d)

Capillarity

104.

Refers to the measure of the fluid’s internal friction

a)

Capillary

b)

Viscosity

c)

Surface tension

d)

Laminar flow

105.

The of a machine equals to the ratio between its actual and its theoretical mechanical advantage

a)

output

b)

input

c)

efficiency

d)

power

106.

Study of motion with reference to the force which causes the motion is

a)

statics

b)

dynamics

c)

kinetics

d)

kinematics

107.

An impulse causes

a)

the object’s momentum to change

b)

the object’s momentum to decrease

c)

the object’s momentum to increase

d)

the object’s momentum to remain constant or be conserved

108.

Momentum is a property related to the objects

a)

motion and mass

b)

mass and acceleration

c)

motion and velocity

d)

weight and velocity

109.

Centrifugal force is

a)

directly proportional to the radius of the curvature

b)

directly proportional to the square of the tangential velocity

c)

inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity

d)

directly proportional to the square of the weight of the object

110.

A measure of the resistance of a body it offers to any change in its angular velocity, determined by the mass and distribution of its mass about the axis of rotation is known as

a)

moment of inertia

b)

torsion

c)

friction

d)

angular acceleration

111.

Momentum is the product of mass and

a)

acceleration

b)

velocity

c)

force

d)

time

112.

The moment of inertia of a plane figure,

a)

increases as distance of the axis moves farther from the centroid

b)

is maximum at the centroidal axis

c)

is zero at the centroidal axis

d)

decreases as the distance of the axis moves farther from the centroid

113.

To maximize the horizontal range of the projectile, which of the following applies?

a)

Maximize velocity

b)

Maximize the angle of elevation

c)

Maximize the angle of elevation

d)

The tangent function of the angle and velocity of trajectory must be equal to 1

114.

Moment of inertia of any plane figure is expressed in units of length of the

a)

first power

b)

second power

c)

third power

d)

fourth power

115.

A branch of physical science which deals with state of rest or motion of bodies under the action of forces

a)

Mechanics

b)

Kinematics

c)

Kinematics

d)

Statics

116.

A branch of mechanics which deals with bodies at rest

a)

Statics

b)

Dynamics

c)

Kinetics

d)

Kinematics

117.

Branch of mechanics which deals with bodies in motion

a)

Statics

b)

Dynamics

c)

Kinetics

d)

Kinematics

118.

The action of a force is characterized by

a)

its magnitude

b)

the direction of its action

c)

point of application

d)

all of the above

119.

For a system to be in equilibrium,

a)

the force polygon must close

b)

all forces must be concurrent, if not acting parallel

c)

it must satisfy the 3 static equations

d)

all of the above

120.

A pair of forces equal in magnitude, opposite in direction, and not in the same line is called

a)

moment

b)

torque

c)

couple

d)

all of the above

121.

The exerted by a force on a body is the measure of its effectiveness in turning the body about a certain pivot

a)

couple

b)

torque

c)

moment arm

d)

all of the above

122.

A body is said to be in 'rotational equilibrium' when

a)

no net torque acts on it

b)

no net force acts on it

c)

its vector sum of the forces is zero

d)

the forces acting on the body are non-concurrent

123.

A couple consists of two forces, in magnitude, parallel and oppositely directed

a)

directly proportional

b)

equal

c)

unequal

d)

inversely proportional

124.

The of the body or system is the point about with the product of the mass and moment arm sums up to zero

a)

center of gravity

b)

center of mass

c)

centroid

d)

all of the above

125.

The point through which the resultant of the distributed gravity force passes regardless of the orientation of the body is space

a)

Center of inertia

b)

Center of mass

c)

Centerpoint

d)

Center of gravity

126.

If an object exerts a normal force on a surface, then its normal force is

a)

equal to the weight of the object

b)

less than the frictional force

c)

parallel to the surface

d)

perpendicular to the surface

127.

Whenever the surfaces of two bodies are in contact, there will be a limiting amount of resistance to sliding between them. This is known as

a)

friction

b)

coefficient of friction

c)

angle of friction

d)

coefficient of sliding

128.

The moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to the base b is

a)

bh^3 / 12

b)

bh^3 / 6

c)

bh^3 / 36

d)

bh^3 / 3

129.

The moment of inertia f a triangle with respect to the base is time its moment of inertia with respect to its centroidal axis?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

130.

What is the moment of inertia of a circle of

a)

πr^4 / 16

b)

πr^4 / 2

c)

πr^4 / 24

d)

πr^4

131.

The moment of inertia of the circle with respect to its tangent is times its centroidal moment of inertia

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

132.

The moment of inertia of a rectangle with respect to the base is times its moment of inertia with respect to the centroid

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

133.

What is the mass moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m and radius r?

4 lines
134.

Given a cylinder of radius r, altitude h and mass m. What is its mass of inertia?

a)

½ mr^2

b)

¼ mr^2

c)

1/3 mr^2

d)

2/5 mr^2

135.

A structure is called if at least one of its individual members is a multiforce member

a)

Truss

b)

frame

c)

three-hinged arch

d)

bridge

136.

Another term of moment of inertia

a)

Moment of area

b)

Second moment of area

c)

Moment of mass

d)

All of the above

137.

The diagram of an isolated body with the representation of all external forces acting on it is called

a)

Maxwell diagram

b)

stress-strain diagram

c)

free body diagram

d)

shear and moment diagram

138.

A framework composed of members joined at their ends to form a rigid structure

a)

Machine

b)

Truss

c)

Joist

d)

Purlin

139.

The moment of the resultant of two concurrent forces with respect to a center of their planes is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments of the components with respect to the same center

a)

Law of reaction

b)

Varignon’s theorem

c)

Mass moment of inertia

d)

Law of inertia

140.

The condition exist I structures where the reactive forces exceed the number of independent equations for equilibrium. Such case is called

a)

statically determine

b)

statically indeterminate

c)

static equilibrium

d)

none of the above

141.

Two lengths of a steel wire are used to support a chandelier of weight. The tension in the wire must

a)

each be W/2

b)

each be W

c)

have a vector sum of magnitude W

d)

have a vector sum of magnitude >W

142.

The built-in or fixed support is capable of supporting

a)

½ mr^2

b)

¼ mr^2

c)

1/3 mr^2

d)

2/5 mr^2

143.

Which of the following BEST describes d’Alembert’s principle?

a)

F = ma

b)

First law of motion

c)

Stress is directly proportional to strain

d)

F = kx

144.

The theorem which is closely related to d’Alembert’s theorem is the

a)

Newton’s first law of motion

b)

Newton’s third law of motion

c)

Newton’s second law of motion

d)

Bernoulli’s theorem

145.

is the quality of being plastically elongated

a)

Flexibility

b)

Plasticity

c)

Malleability

d)

Ductility

146.

It is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress

a)

Proportionality constant

b)

Strain

c)

Factor of safety

d)

Modulus

147.

The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously stand is called

a)

bearing strength

b)

yield strength

c)

ultimate strength

d)

fatigue strength

148.

The distance that the top surface is displaced in the direction of the force divided by the thickness of the body is known as

a)

longitudinal strain

b)

linear strain

c)

shear strain

d)

volume strain

149.

The ratio of the tensile stress to tensile strain

a)

Shear modulus

b)

Modulus of elasticity

c)

Bulk modulus

d)

Hooke’s law