WorksheetsPRCC-AUBF_1MT-P4
Total questions: 151
Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Nonglucose reducing substance present
a)
Glucose oxidase negative, Clinitest positive
b)
1+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest Negative
c)
4+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest negative
2.
Possible interfering substance for reagent strip
a)
Glucose oxidase negative, Clinitest positive
b)
1+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest Negative
c)
4+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest negative
3.
Small amount of glucose presnet
a)
Glucose oxidase negative, Clinitest positive
b)
1+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest Negative
c)
4+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest negative
4.
Possible oxidizing agent interference on reagent strip
a)
Glucose oxidase negative, Clinitest positive
b)
1+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest Negative
c)
4+ Glucose oxidase positive, Clinitest negative
5.
What is the commonly found reducing sugars that is considered most clinically significant as it represents an inborn error of metabolism?
a)
Glucose
b)
Galactose
c)
Lactose
d)
Maltose
e)
Fructose
6.
Clinical reasons for increased fat metabolism include the inability to metabolize carbohydrate, as in diabetes mellitus, increased loss of carbohydrate from vomiting and inadequate intake of carbohydrate associated with starvation and malabsorption
a)
Glucose
b)
Ketones
c)
Blood
d)
Bilirubin
7.
78%
a)
Betahydroxybutyric acid
b)
Acetoacetic acid
c)
Acetone
8.
20%
a)
Betahydroxybutyric acid
b)
Acetoacetic acid
c)
Acetone
9.
Which ketone body in an alkaline medium reacts with nitroferriccyanide to produce a color change from beige to purple?
a)
Betahydroxybutyric acid
b)
Acetoacetic acid
c)
Acetone
10.
2%
a)
Betahydroxybutyric acid
b)
Acetoacetic acid
c)
Acetone
11.
Chemstrip and vChem reagent strips include glycine in the reaction pad, which enables the detection of ..
a)
Betahydroxybutyric acid
b)
Acetoacetic acid
c)
Acetone
12.
Based on sodium nitroprusside (nitroferriccyanide) legal's reaction to measure ketones
a)
Urine reagent strip
b)
Glucose reagent strip
c)
Ketone reagent strip
13.
5 to 10 mg/dL acetoacetic acid
a)
Ketones multistix
b)
Ketones chemstrip
14.
9 mg/dL acetoacetic acid, 70 mg/dL acetone
a)
Ketones multistix
b)
Ketones chemstrip
15.
amount of acetoacetic acid in multistix (ketones)
a)
5 to 10 mg/dL
b)
9 mg/dL
c)
70 mg/dL
16.
amount of acetoacetic acid in chemstrip (ketones)
a)
5 to 10 mg/dL
b)
9 mg/dL
c)
70 mg/dL
17.
amount of acetone in chemstrip (ketones)
a)
5 to 10 mg/dL
b)
9 mg/dL
c)
70 mg/dL
18.
Sodium nitroprusside only
a)
Ketones multistix
b)
Ketones Chemstrip
19.
Sodium nitroprusside, glycine
a)
Ketones multistix
b)
Ketones Chemstrip
20.
Color of ketones in multistix/chemstrip
a)
Yellow
b)
Blue
c)
Purple
d)
Green
21.
Pthalein dyes
a)
False positive ketones
b)
False negative ketones
22.
Levodopa
a)
False positive ketones
b)
False negative ketones
23.
Medications having sulfhydryl groups
a)
False positive ketones
b)
False negative ketones
24.
Highly pigmented red urine
a)
False positive ketones
b)
False negative ketones
25.
Improperly preserved urine
a)
False positive ketones
b)
False negative ketones
26.
5 mg/dL ketones is reported as?
a)
Trace
b)
Small
c)
Moderate
d)
Large
27.
15 mg/dL ketones is reported as?
a)
Trace
b)
Small
c)
Moderate
d)
Large
28.
40 mg/dL ketones is reported as?
a)
Trace
b)
Small
c)
Moderate
d)
Large
29.
80 to 160 mg/dL ketones is reported as?
a)
Trace
b)
Small
c)
Moderate
d)
Large
30.
performed within 30 seconds... sodium nitroprusside, glycine, disodium phosphate and lactose (addition of lactose enhances color results)
a)
Ketone reagent strip
b)
Acetest/Bumintest
c)
Micral test
d)
Glucose test
31.
acetest/bumin test for ketones is performed within
a)
15 seconds
b)
20 seconds
c)
30 seconds
d)
60 seconds
32.
considered clinically significant
a)
>5 RBC/UL
b)
Hematuria
c)
Hemoglobinuria
d)
Myoglobinuria
33.
renal calculi
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
34.
glomerulonephritis
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
35.
pyelonephritis
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
36.
tumors
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
37.
trauma
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
38.
exposure to toxic chemicals
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
39.
anticoagulants
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
40.
strenuous exercise
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
41.
transfusion reactions, hemolytic anemia, severe burns, infections/malaria, strenuous exercise/red blood cell trauma, brown recluse spider bites
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
42.
transfusion reactions
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
43.
hemolytic anemia
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
44.
severe burns, infections/malaria
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
45.
strenuous exercise/red blood cell trauma
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
46.
brown recluse spider bites
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
47.
muscular trauma/crush syndromes, prolonged coma, convulsions, muscle-wasting diseases, alcoholism/overdose, drug abuse, extensive exertion, cholesterol-lowering statin medications
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
48.
muscular trauma/crush syndromes
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
49.
prolonged coma
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
50.
convulsions
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
51.
muscle-wasting diseases
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
52.
alcoholism/overdose
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
53.
drug abuse, extensive exertion
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
54.
cholesterol-lowering statin medications
a)
Hematuria
b)
Hemoglobinuria
c)
Myoglobinuria
55.
Hematuria
a)
Cloudy red urine, microscopic intact RBCs
b)
Clear red urine
c)
Considered clinically significant na
56.
Hemoglobinuria
a)
Cloudy red urine, microscopic intact RBCs
b)
Clear red urine
c)
Considered clinically significant na
57.
Myoglobinuria
a)
Cloudy red urine, microscopic intact RBCs
b)
Clear red urine
c)
Considered clinically significant na
58.
>5 RBCs/UL
a)
Cloudy red urine, microscopic intact RBCs
b)
Clear red urine
c)
Considered clinically significant na
59.
Hemoglobin (Hemoglobinuria)
a)
Clear red urine, RED OR PINK plasma
b)
Clear red urine, Normal plasma
60.
Myoglobin (Myoglobinuria)
a)
Clear red urine, RED OR PINK plasma
b)
Clear red urine, Normal plasma
61.
Decreased haptoglobin
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
62.
Intravascular hemolysis
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
63.
Increased Ck, Aldolase
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
64.
Rhabdomyolysis
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
65.
Normal plasma
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
66.
Red or pink plasma
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
67.
In blondheim's test, which one has clear supernatant fluid?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
68.
In blondheim's test, which one has supernatant fluid that is NEGATIVE for blood?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
69.
In blondheim's test, which one has red precipitate?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
70.
In blondheim's test, which one has NO precipitate?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
71.
In blondheim's test, which one has supernatant that is POSITIVE for blood?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
72.
Blondheim's test/Ammonium sulfate test: hemoglobin
a)
Clear supernatant fluid
b)
Red supernatant fluid
73.
Blondheim's test/Ammonium sulfate test: myoglobin
a)
Clear supernatant fluid
b)
Red supernatant fluid
74.
Hemoglobin
a)
No precipitate
b)
Red precipitate
75.
Myoglobin
a)
No precipitate
b)
Red precipitate
76.
added to 5 ml of centrifuged urine
a)
2.5g of ammonium sulfate
b)
3 g of ammonium sulfate
c)
3.5 g of ammonium sulfate
d)
2.8 g of ammonium sulfate
77.
In blondheim's test, which one has red supernatant fluid?
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
78.
Its concentration in the urine must be at least 25 mg/dL before the red pigmentation can be visualized
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
79.
remains in supernatant
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
80.
produces a red precipitate and supernatant that tests negative for blood
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Myoglobin
81.
The principle of this screening test is based on the fact that the larger hemoglobin molecules are precipitated by the ammonium sulfate and myoglobin remains in the supernatant. Therefore, when myoglobin is present, the supernatant retains the red color and gives a positive reagent strip test for blood.
a)
Blondheim's test
b)
Blood reagent strip
c)
Bilirubin reagent strip
d)
Glucose reagent strip
e)
Ketones reagent strip
82.
pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin to catalyze a reaction between hydrogen peroxide and the chromogen tetramethylbenzidine to produce an oxidized chromogen, which has a green to blue color.
a)
Blondheim's test
b)
Blood reagent strip
c)
Bilirubin reagent strip
d)
Glucose reagent strip
e)
Ketones reagent strip
83.
In blood reagent strip, pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin to catalyze a reaction between hydrogen peroxide and the chromogen tetramethylbenzidine to produce an oxidized chromogen, which has a --- color
a)
Yellow to green
b)
Green to blue
84.
In blood reagent strip, chromogen reacts with a peroxide in the presence of hemoglobin or myoglobin to become oxidized and produce a color change from --
a)
Yellow to green
b)
Green to blue
85.
Blood multistix
a)
5 to 20 RBC/ML
b)
5 RBCs/mL
86.
Blood: 5 to 20 RBCs/mL; 0.015 to 0.062 mg/dL hemoglobin
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
87.
Blood: 5 RBCs/mL hemoglobin corresponding to 10 RBCs/mL
a)
Multistix
b)
Chemstrip
88.
Diisopropylbenzene dehydroperoxide tetramethylbenzidine
a)
Blood multistix
b)
Blood chemstrip
89.
dimethyldihydroperoxyhexane tetramethylbenzidine
a)
Blood multistix
b)
Blood chemstrip
90.
Yellow to green
a)
Positive blood
b)
Negative blood
91.
Green blue
a)
Positive blood
b)
Negative blood
92.
speckled
a)
wbc
b)
rbc
c)
plt
d)
hgb
93.
Strong oxidizing agents
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
94.
bacterial peroxidases
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
95.
Menstrual contamination
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
96.
high specific gravity/crenated cells
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
97.
Formalin
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
98.
Captopril
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
99.
High concentrations of nitrite
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
100.
Ascorbic acid 25 mg/dL
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
101.
Unmixed specimens
a)
False positive blood
b)
False negative blood
102.
early indication of liver disease, principal source is hemoglobin released daily from the breakdown of senescent red blood cells in the reticuloendothelial system; produces a beer brown or dark yellow foam in urine.
a)
Ketones
b)
Glucose
c)
Blood
d)
Bilirubin
103.
Clinical significance include hepatitis, cirrhosis, liver disorders, biliary obstruction like gallstones or carcinoma
a)
Ketones
b)
Glucose
c)
Blood
d)
Bilirubin
104.
bilirubin
a)
Root beer brown
b)
Beer brown or dark yellow foam
c)
Red wine or light yellow foam
105.
COmvines with 2-4, dichloroaniline diazonium salt or 2,6-dichlorobenzene-diazonium-tetrafluoroborate in an acid medium to produce an azodye with colors ranging from increasing degrees of TAN OR PINK TO VIOLET
a)
Urine reagent strip
b)
Ketones reagent strip
c)
Blood reagent strip
d)
Bilirubin reagent strip
106.
Multistix: 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL bilirubin
Chemstrip: 0.5 mg/dL bilirubin
a)
Blood
b)
Glucose
c)
Ketones
d)
Bilirubin
107.
Multistix: 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL bilirubin
a)
Degrees of tan
b)
Yellow to green
108.
Chemstrip: 0.5 mg/dL bilirubin
a)
Degrees of tan
b)
Yellow to green
109.
Highly pigmented urines
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
110.
phenazopyridine
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
111.
indican (intestinal disorders)
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
112.
Lodine metabolites
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
113.
Specimen exposure to light
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
114.
Ascorbic acid 25 mg/dL
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
115.
High concentrations of nitrite
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
116.
High concentrations of nitrite
a)
False positive bilirubin
b)
False negative bilirubin
117.
Urine bilirubin: BILE DUCT OBSTRUCTION
a)
Positive super (+++)
b)
Positive or negative (di siya sure alin dyan)
c)
Negative
118.
Urine bilirubin: LIVER DAMAGE
a)
Positive super (+++)
b)
Positive or negative (di siya sure alin dyan)
c)
Negative
119.
Urine bilirubin: HEMOLYTIC DISEASE
a)
Positive super (+++)
b)
Positive or negative (di siya sure alin dyan)
c)
Negative
120.
Urine urobilinogen in Bile duct obstruction
a)
Normal
b)
Medyo super positive (++)
c)
Super positive (+++)
121.
Urine urobilinogen in Liver disease
a)
Normal
b)
Medyo super positive (++)
c)
Super positive (+++)
122.
Urine urobilinogen in Hemolytic disease
a)
Normal
b)
Medyo super positive (++)
c)
Super positive (+++)
123.
Prehepatic jaundice
a)
Bilirubin negative, Urobilinogen INCREASED
b)
Bilirubin Positive, Urobilinogen Normal to INCREASED
c)
Bilirubin positive, Urobilinogen DECREASED to absent :(((
124.
Hepatic jaundice
a)
Bilirubin negative, Urobilinogen INCREASED
b)
Bilirubin Positive, Urobilinogen Normal to INCREASED
c)
Bilirubin positive, Urobilinogen DECREASED to absent :(((
125.
Posthepatic jaundice
a)
Bilirubin negative, Urobilinogen INCREASED
b)
Bilirubin Positive, Urobilinogen Normal to INCREASED
c)
Bilirubin positive, Urobilinogen DECREASED to absent :(((
126.
Prehepatic jaundice
a)
Normal
b)
Pale, chalky "alcoholic"
127.
Hepatic jaundice
a)
Normal
b)
Pale, chalky "alcoholic"
128.
Post-Hepatic jaundice
a)
Normal
b)
Pale, chalky "alcoholic"
129.
Hemolytic disorders
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
130.
Transfusion reactions
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
131.
Sickle cell disease
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
132.
Hereditary spherocytosis
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
133.
Hemolytic disease of newborns
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
134.
Ineffective erythropoiesis
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
135.
Thalassemia
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
136.
Pernicious anemia
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
137.
Hepatitis
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
138.
Cirrhosis
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
139.
Genetic disorders
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
140.
Gallstones
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
141.
Tumors
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
142.
Fibrosis
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
143.
Bilirubin negative
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
144.
Urobilinogen increased
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
145.
urobilinogen: normal to increased
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
146.
Urobilinogen decreased to absent
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
147.
Bilirubin positive
a)
Prehepatic jaundice
b)
Hepatic jaundice
c)
Post-hepatic jaundice
148.
Confirmatory test for bilirubin using disk
a)
Ectotest
b)
Ictotest
c)
Octotest
d)
Actotest
149.
presence of blue to purple color on the mat
a)
Positive for ICTOtest
b)
Negative for ICTOtest
150.
slight pink or red color and other colors
a)
Positive for ICTOtest
b)
Negative for ICTOtest
151.
Add water directly to the mat, presents interference
a)
Positive for ICTOtest
b)
Negative for ICTOtest
100 %