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Taxation IV Quiz

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Indirect Tax is a

a)

Regressive tax

b)

Progressive tax

c)

Tax on tax

d)

Value added tax

2.

___ is levied on Inter-State supplies of goods or services or both.

a)

CGST

b)

SGST

c)

IGST

d)

Both (a) and (b)

3.

The liability to pay tax on goods shall arise at the

a)

Dispatch of goods

b)

Time of supply

c)

Removal of goods

d)

Delivery of goods

4.

Rate of tax on platinum, CGST and SGST together is

a)

2.5%

b)

3%

c)

18%

d)

28%

5.

A registered person who is liable to pay tax under section 9(3) or 9(4) shall issue a ___ at the time of making payment to the supplier.

a)

Receipt voucher

b)

Refund voucher

c)

Payment voucher

d)

Credit/Debit Note

6.

Input Tax Credit of CGST can be first utilized to pay output liability of

a)

SGST

b)

CGST

c)

IGST

d)

UTGST

7.

The first 2 digits of GSTIN represent

a)

Entity code

b)

Country code

c)

State code

d)

Checksum character

8.

___ of supply is the amount upon which tax is levied and collected.

a)

Cost

b)

Value

c)

Turnover

d)

Gross value

9.

Content of Tax invoice is given in

a)

Rule 46

b)

Rule 47

c)

Rule 48

d)

Rule 49

10.

Input tax does not include

a)

IGST on import of goods

b)

SGST and UTGST

c)

Tax paid under composition levy

d)

Tax payable under section 9(3) and 9(4)

11.

GST is a ___ tax.

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Personal

d)

Corporate

12.

CGST is levied by the ___ Government.

a)

State

b)

Central

c)

Both State & Central

d)

None

13.

Input tax credit of SGST can be utilized against output liability of

a)

SGST and CGST

b)

SGST only

c)

SGST and IGST

d)

IGST only

14.

The maximum rate of GST shall not exceed

a)

12%

b)

18%

c)

28%

d)

40%

15.

GST came into effect in India from

a)

1st April 2010

b)

1st April 2016

c)

1st July 2017

d)

1st July 2018

16.

GST Council is chaired by

a)

Prime Minister

b)

Union Finance Minister

c)

RBI Governor

d)

President of India

17.

IGST is applicable on

a)

Intra-State supplies

b)

Imports and Exports

c)

Local Supplies only

d)

None of the above

18.

Composition scheme is applicable if turnover does not exceed

a)

₹20 lakh

b)

₹50 lakh

c)

₹75 lakh

d)

₹1 crore

19.

The validity of e-way bill is based on

a)

Invoice value

b)

Distance of transport

c)

Type of goods

d)

Vehicle used

20.

HSN code in GST is used for

a)

Accounting purposes

b)

Classification of goods

c)

Invoicing

d)

Audit

21.

A person who has obtained or is required to obtain more than one registration will be treated as....

a)

Defaulter

b)

Casual taxable person

c)

Distinct person

d)

Invalid

22.

State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE.

4 lines
23.

Alphabet “S” under GST stands for

a)

Servicing

b)

Service

c)

Services

d)

Serviced

24.

GST is levied in India on the basis of principle

a)

Origin

b)

Destination

c)

Inception

d)

None of the above

25.

GST is currently being levied on

a)

Alcoholic liquor for Human consumption

b)

Tobacco

c)

Petroleum Products

d)

All of the above

26.

Funeral, burial, crematorium or mortuary including transportation of the deceased shall be treated as

a)

Supply of goods

b)

Supply of services

c)

Neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of services

d)

Either as a supply of goods or a supply of services

27.

Place of supply in case of installation of elevator is

a)

Where the movement of elevator commences from the supplier’s place

b)

Where the delivery of elevator is taken

c)

Where the installation of elevator is made

d)

Where address of the recipient is mentioned in the invoice

28.

Mr. A has started supplying goods & services in the state of Rajasthan. He is required to obtain registration, if his aggregate turnover exceeds during a financial year

a)

₹10 Lakh

b)

₹20 Lakh

c)

₹30 Lakh

d)

₹40 Lakh

29.

The term Goods under section 2(52) excludes

a)

Actionable claims

b)

Money and securities

c)

Grass and things attached to earth

d)

Growing Crops

30.

___ means taking goods out of India to a place outside India

a)

Import of Goods

b)

Export of Goods

c)

Intra-State supply

d)

Inter-State supply

31.

Renting of rooms where charges are ___ or more per day is taxable

a)

₹100

b)

₹500

c)

₹1,000

d)

₹10,000

32.

Aggregate Turnover does not include

a)

Inward supply under RCM

b)

Outward supply under RCM

c)

Fully Exempt Supply

d)

Partially Exempt Supply

33.

GST is charged on ___ of goods or services

a)

Demand

b)

Manufacture

c)

Supply

d)

Consumption

34.

___ is levied on interstate supplies of goods or services or both.

a)

CGST

b)

SGST

c)

IGST

d)

Both (a) and (b)

35.

___ means taking goods out of India from a place outside India.

a)

Intra State Supply

b)

Inter State Supply

c)

Export of Services

d)

Export of goods

36.

The liability to pay tax on goods shall arise at the ___.

a)

Removal of goods

b)

Dispatch of goods

c)

Time of supply

d)

Delivery of goods

37.

___ is an instrument containing all the necessary details of transactions of supply of goods and services.

a)

Delivery Challan

b)

Invoice

c)

E-way bill

d)

Sales Voucher

38.

___ includes non-taxable supply.

a)

Aggregate Turnover

b)

Exempt Supply

c)

Inward Supply

d)

Export Supply

39.

Non–Resident Taxable person can file return in form ___

a)

GSTR – 5

b)

GSTR – 4

c)

GSTR – 1A

d)

GSTR – 10

40.

Every person shall have ___ in order to be eligible for grant of registration.

a)

PAN Number

b)

TAN Number

c)

Aadhar Card Number

d)

VAT / Service Tax Number

41.

Application for cancellation of Registration cannot be made by a person who has voluntarily registered for a period of ___ from the effective date of registration.

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

3 months

d)

1 month

42.

The integrated tax on import of goods shall be levied at the point when duties of ___ are levied on the goods u/s 12 of the Customs Act, 1962.

a)

Excise

b)

Service Tax

c)

GST

d)

Customs

43.

The export of goods or services is considered as a

a)

Zero Rate Supply

b)

Taxable supply taxed at 12%

c)

Taxable supply taxed at 50%

d)

Taxable supply taxed at 18%

44.

The validity of the registration certificate is

a)

One Year

b)

Five Years

c)

No Validity

d)

Valid till it is cancelled

45.

Under GST law, value of supply is

a)

shall include discounts

b)

shall exclude all taxes

c)

shall include GST paid

d)

shall include taxes other than GST

46.

The original copy of a tax invoice of goods belongs to

a)

Supplier

b)

Transporter

c)

GST Department

d)

Recipient of supply

47.

Goods are packed and transported with insurance, packing materials, transport and insurance. This is a case of

a)

Mixed supply

b)

Composite supply

c)

Common supply

d)

Continuous supply

48.

Services by any court or Tribunal established under any law is

a)

Supply of Goods

b)

Supply of Services

c)

Both Supply of Goods and Services

d)

Neither Supply of Goods nor supply of services

49.

Mr. P supplied goods of ₹1,00,000 to Mr. Q, who returned goods of ₹10,000 due to inferior quality. Mr. P will later issue

a)

Credit note

b)

Debit note

c)

Tax invoice

d)

Delivery challan

50.

Maximum service period required to constitute a continuous supply of services with periodic payment

a)

Exceeding 6 months

b)

6 months

c)

Exceeding 3 months

d)

3 months

51.

GST number does not include

a)

PAN

b)

State Code

c)

Aadhaar Number

d)

Alphabet

52.

As per Section 25 of CGST Act, 2017, a casual taxable person shall apply for registration at least ___ prior to the commencement of business.

a)

5 days

b)

10 days

c)

7 days

d)

30 days

53.

The underwriter is entitled to claim remuneration on

a)

The issue price of shares underwritten

b)

The face value of shares actually purchased

c)

The face value of shares not purchased by him

d)

None of the above

54.

Accounting for amalgamation is governed by

a)

Accounting Standard 1

b)

Accounting Standard 13

c)

Accounting Standard 14

d)

Accounting Standard 11

55.

Internal Reconstruction

a)

No company is liquidated

b)

Only one company goes into liquidation

c)

Two or more companies are liquidated

d)

One or more companies go into liquidation

56.

Amount of calls in advance is treated as

a)

Secured creditor

b)

Asset not specifically pledged

c)

Preferential creditor

d)

Unsecured creditor

57.

Interest on debenture and unsecured loan is payable up to the date of actual payment

a)

If the company is solvent

b)

If the company is insolvent

c)

Whether the company is solvent or insolvent

d)

None of the above

58.

Marked applications refer to

a)

Applications bearing the stamp of the underwriters

b)

Applications carrying the signature of public who applied for shares

c)

Applications carrying the stamp of company which offered the shares

d)

None of the above

59.

Buyback must be completed within ___ from the date of passing the resolution.

a)

12 months

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

2 months

60.

The asset which is not taken under the Net Assets method of calculating purchase consideration is

a)

Loose Tools

b)

Bills Receivables

c)

Machinery

d)

Share issue expenses

61.

Capital Redemption Reserve can be utilized only for

a)

Issue of fully paid bonus shares to the members

b)

Issue of partly paid bonus shares to the members

c)

Writing off losses

d)

None of the above

62.

For capital reduction under internal reconstruction, authorization/approval is required from

a)

Shareholders

b)

Articles of Association

c)

Tribunal

d)

All of the above

63.

A company is allowed to convert fully paid shares into stock.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The balance in security premium account cannot be transferred to capital reduction account.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Buyback of security is governed by section 68 of Companies Act.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Cancellation of contingent liability is treated as profit to the company.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Equity shares can be bought back out of fresh issue of shares only.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Underwriting may be done by individuals, partnership firms or joint stock companies.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Marked applications are also known as direct applications.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Local taxes are an example of secured creditors.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

In the case of amalgamation there are two or more liquidations and one formation.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

If the company is insolvent, interest on debentures is payable up to the date of actual payment.

a)

True

b)

False