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PRC-HEMA_1MT1

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for molecular diagnostic tests?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
2.
Which type of EDTA tube is centrifuged within 6 hours after collection?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
3.
Which type of EDTA tube contain spray-coated K2 EDTA (plastic)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
4.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for whole blood hematology?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
5.
Which type of EDTA tube is designed with special crossmatch label for patient information?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
6.
Which type of EDTA tube contain either clot activator (plastic serum) or K2EDTA (plastic)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
7.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for trace element, toxicology, and nutritional chemistry determinations?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
8.
Which type of EDTA tube has K2EDTA (plastic)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
9.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for lead determinations (contains <0.01 ug/mL or ppm of lead)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
10.
Which type of EDTA tube contain K2EDTA with gel?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Red
e)
Tan
11.
Buffered Sodium Citrate GLASS
a)
0.105 M
b)
0.109 M
12.
Buffered Sodium Citrate pLASTIC
a)
0.105 M
b)
0.109 M
13.
Which anticoagulant is used for platelet studies, and coagulation determinations?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
14.
Which anticoagulant is the remedy for Platelet Satellitism?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
15.
Which anticoagulant is used for plasma determinations in chemistry, osmotic fragility test, blood gas studies?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
16.
Which anticoagulant causes cellular clumping (especially of platelets), leading to pseudoleukocytosis and pseudothrombocytopenia on some analyzers?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
17.
Which anticoagulant inhibits thrombin (therefore, it is contraindicated for coagulation studies)?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
18.
Which anticoagulant is used for blood culture specimen collections in microbiology?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
19.
Which anticoagulant is used on blood bank tests, HLA tests, DNA tests, and paternity tests?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
20.
Which antiglycotlytic agent is used on glucose level determination (for delayed testing of blood glucose levels)?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
21.
Potassium oxalate or Sodium EDTA (Na2EDTA) is the anticoagulant in this tube.
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
22.
If a blood film is not stained within 2 hours, heparin gives what background color with Wright's stain?
a)
Yellow
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
Red
23.
Which of the following causes the least interference in chemistry testing?
a)
Sodium Heparin
b)
Lithium Heparin
24.
Which anticoagulant is Light-sensitive?
a)
Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, Dipyridamole (CTAD)
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
25.
Which anticoagulant is has normally slightly yellowish appearance that becomes clear when no longer viable?
a)
Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, Dipyridamole (CTAD)
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
26.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tubes has glass (silicone-coated), plastic (silicone-coated with clot activator) additive?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
27.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube is used for serum determinations in chemistry?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
28.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube is used for routine blood donor screening and diagnostic of serum for infectious disease?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
29.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube has a blod clotting time of 60 minutes or 1 hour?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
30.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube contain clot activator and gel additive?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
31.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube has 30 minutes blood clotting time?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
32.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube contain thrombin-based clot activator?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
33.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube is used on STAT serum determinations in chemistry?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
34.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube has a blood clotting time of 5 minutes?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
35.
Tourniquet application
a)
1 to 2 inches below the puncture site
b)
1 to 2 inches above the puncture site
c)
3 to 4 inches below the puncture site
d)
3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
36.
Anchor the vein with the thumb....
a)
1 to 2 inches below the puncture site
b)
1 to 2 inches above the puncture site
c)
3 to 4 inches below the puncture site
d)
3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
37.
Cleansing of venipuncture site is done in a
a)
Circular motion with friction
b)
Lateral motion with friction
c)
Horizontal motion with friction
d)
Back and forth motion with friction
38.
Remove the tourniquet as soon as blood flow is established or after no longer than
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes
d)
4 minutes
39.
If tourniquet is left on for a longer time because of difficulty in finding a vein, it should be removed for how many minutes and reapplied before the venipuncture is performed?
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes
d)
4 minutes
40.
The most common skin antiseptic.
a)
70% Isopropyl alcohol
b)
Non-alcohol based antiseptic
c)
Tincture of iodine, 1 to 10% Povidone Iodine
41.
Collecting blood for legal blood alcohol level
a)
70% Isopropyl alcohol
b)
Non-alcohol based antiseptic
c)
Tincture of iodine, 1 to 10% Povidone Iodine
42.
Used for preparing sterile sites for blood culture.
a)
70% Isopropyl alcohol
b)
Non-alcohol based antiseptic
c)
Tincture of iodine, 1 to 10% Povidone Iodine
43.
What is the technique of choice to obtain blood from newborns and pediatric patients? It may also be used on adult patients who are severely burned and whose veins are being reserved for therapeutic purposes, patients who are extremely obese, and in elderly patients with fragile veins.
a)
Venipuncture
b)
Skin puncture
c)
Arterial blood gas
d)
Arteial puncture
44.
What is the skin puncture site for children older than 1 and adults?
a)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the dominant hand
b)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the non-dominant hand
c)
Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel.
45.
What is the skin puncture site for infants under 1 year of age?
a)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the dominant hand
b)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the non-dominant hand
c)
Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel.
46.
Heel puncture must not be deeper than how many mm beneath the plantar heel-skin surface of the heel?
a)
1.2 mm
b)
2.0 mm
c)
2.3 mm
d)
2.4mm
47.
Osteomyelitis can be prevented by penetrating the skin no deeper than..?
a)
1.2 mm
b)
2.0 mm
c)
2.3 mm
d)
2.4mm
48.
introduced the stochastic model of hematopoiesis (states that HSCs randomly commit to self-renewal or diUerentiation).
a)
Till and McCulloch
b)
Till and McKenzie
c)
Toni fowler
49.
suggests that the microenvironment in the bone marrow determines whether the HSC will self-renew or diUerentiate.
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
50.
states that HSCs randomly commit to self-renewal or diUerentiation
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
51.
States that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called a “pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell”.
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
52.
Suggests that each blood cell lineage is derived from its own unique stem cell.
a)
Instructive model of hematopoesis
b)
Stochastic model of hematopoesis
c)
Monophyletic theory
d)
Polyphyletic theory
53.
What is the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists?
a)
Monophyletic theory
b)
Polyphyletic theory
54.
Which hematopoietic development phase include yolk sac as the site of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
55.
Which hematopoietic development phase include liver as the site of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
56.
Which hematopoietic development phase include bone marrow as the site of hematopoiesis?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
57.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins at around the 19th day of embryonic development?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
58.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins at 5 to 7 gestational weeks (1st month)?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
59.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins between the fourth and fifth month of fetal development?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
60.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve yolk sac erythroblasts; and production of hemoglobin Gower-1, Gower-2, and Portland needed for delivering oxygen to rapidly developing embryonic tissues?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
61.
Which hematopoietic development phase is characterized by recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes, and monocytes colonizing the fetal liver, thymus, spleen, placenta, and bone marrow?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
62.
Which hematopoietic development phase begins megakaryocytes production?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
63.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve Hemoglobin F (Fetal hemoglobin) as the predominant hemoglobin?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
64.
Which hematopoietic development phase becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis by the end of 24 weeks of gestation?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
65.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve messenchymal cells that differentiate into structural elements that support developing hematopoietic elements like stromal cells and reticular adventitial cells?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
66.
Which hematopoietic development phase has the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio that gradually approaches 3:1 to 4:1 in healthy adult levels?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
67.
Which hematopoietic development phase involve the starting detection of Hb F and Hb A?
a)
Mesoblastic phase
b)
Hepatic phase
c)
Medullary phase
68.
Warming the skin puncture site increases the blood flow by
a)
Three-fold
b)
Seven-fold
c)
Six-fold
d)
Ten-fold
69.
Puncture the finger _ to fingerprint
a)
Lateral
b)
Horizontal
c)
Veritcal
d)
Perpendicular
70.
Mesoblastic phase site of development
a)
Yolk Sac
b)
Liver
c)
Bone marrow
71.
Hepatic phase site of development
a)
Yolk Sac
b)
Liver
c)
Bone marrow
72.
Medullary phase site of development
a)
Yolk Sac
b)
Liver
c)
Bone marrow
73.
Most common gauge with length of
a)
21 gauge 1 inch length
b)
22 gauge 2 inches length
c)
23 gauge 1 inch length
d)
16 gauge 3 inches length
74.
What is the most common cause of needle puncture?
a)
Recapping
b)
Not using PPE
c)
Improper disposal
75.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow is considered as the hematopoietically active marrow?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
76.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow is considered as the hematopoietically inactive marrow?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
77.
Which of the following major component of the bone marrow is composed of adiposytes?
a)
Red marrow
b)
Yellow marrow
78.
(the process of replacing the active marrow with adipocytes or yellow marrow) which eventually results in restriction of active marrow to Vertebrae Proximal end of large bones Skull Ileac crest Sternum Ribs
a)
Retrogression
b)
Agression
c)
Retrograde
d)
Renegade
79.
What is the largest cell in the bone marrow?
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Macrophages
c)
Mast cells
d)
Osteoblast
e)
Osteoclast
80.
Synthesizes new bone matrix
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Macrophages
c)
Mast cells
d)
Osteoblast
e)
Osteoclast
81.
Has a characteristic “waterbug/comet” appearance.
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Macrophages
c)
Mast cells
d)
Osteoblast
e)
Osteoclast
82.
The largest lymphoid organ in the body.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
83.
Vital but not essential for life and functions as an indiscriminate filter of the circulating blood
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
84.
Contains about 20 – 40 mL of blood.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
85.
Serves as the major site of blood cell production during the second trimester of fetal development.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Heart
86.
Maintains HSCs and progenitor cells to produce blood cells (extramedullary hematopoiesis) as a response to infectious agents or in pathologic myelofibrosis of the bone marrow.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
87.
Located along the lymphatic arteries that are parallel to but are not part of the circulatory system
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
88.
Located along the lymphatic arteries that are parallel to but are not part of the circulatory system
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
89.
Serves as a site of lymphocyte proliferation; involved in the initiation of specific immune response to foreign antigen; filtering particulate matter, debris, and bacteria entering the lymph node via the lymph.
a)
Liver
b)
Spleen
c)
Kidney
d)
Lymph nodes
90.
Lymph node outer region; involves primary follicles, secondary follicles (follicles with germinal centers (foci of activated B cell proliferation)
a)
Cortex
b)
Medullar
c)
Paracortex
91.
Inner region; cords is consist of plasma cells and B cells
a)
Cortex
b)
Medullar
c)
Paracortex
92.
Located between the cortex and the medulla; contains predominantly T cells and numerous macrophages
a)
Cortex
b)
Medullar
c)
Paracortex
93.
Utilized for the analysis of individual cell morphology
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
94.
Disturbs the bone marrow architecture.
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
95.
The marrow is removed intact without disturbing the bone architecture (cylinder of gelatinous red marrow)
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
96.
Provides a better picture of the real structure of bone marrow.
a)
Bone marrow aspirate
b)
Bone marrow biopsy
97.
Bone marrow smears are retained for how many years?
a)
1 year
b)
5 years
c)
10 years
d)
15 years
98.
indicators of “loss of stemness”
a)
CD34+
b)
CD38-
c)
HLA-DR low
d)
Lin-
99.
EARLIEST IDENTIFIABLE HUMAN HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELLS (HSCs
a)
CD34+
b)
CD38-
c)
HLA-DR low
d)
Lin-
100.
Cells are phagocytized with subsequent degradation of cell organelles
a)
Pitting
b)
Culling
101.
Splenic macrophages remove inclusions or damaged surface membrane from circulating RBCs
a)
Pitting
b)
Culling
102.
Platelet and leukocyte counts temporary effect upon performing splenectomy
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
103.
Which type of splenic tissue is composed primarily of vascular sinuses separated by cords of reticular cell meshwork (cords of Billroth)? This creates a spongelike matrix that functions as a filter for blood passing through the region. As RBCs pass through, there is a decrease in blood flow, leading to stagnation
a)
White pulp
b)
Marginal zone
c)
Red pulp
104.
Earliest committed progenitor
a)
Burst-forming unit-erythroid (BFU-E)
b)
Colony-forming unit-erythroid (CFU-E)
105.
BFU-E to CFU-E
a)
1 week
b)
18 to 21 days
106.
CFU-E to Pronormoblast
a)
1 week
b)
18 to 21 days
107.
Pronormoblast to RBC
a)
1 week
b)
18 to 21 days
108.
BFU-E to RBC (Total Time)
a)
1 week
b)
18 to 21 days
109.
Beginning of globin production
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
110.
One pronormoblast gives rise to two daughter pronormoblasts. More than one division is possible before maturation into basophilic normoblasts.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
111.
Undergoes mitosis, giving rise to two daughter cells. More than one division is possible before it matures into polychromatic normoblasts.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
112.
Detectable hemoglobin synthesis occurs (first stage of synthesis).
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
113.
This is the last stage capable of mitosis
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
114.
This is also the last stage of DNA synthesis.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
115.
This is the last stage of RNA synthesis.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
116.
There is no more DNA content after this stage.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
117.
Enucleation or the removal of nucleus from the cell occurs during this stage.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
118.
This is the first stage without a nucleus.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
119.
There is no more RNA content after this stage.
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
120.
They reside in the bone marrow for 1 – 2 days and move in the peripheral blood, taking 1 day before reaching maturity
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
121.
When seen using a Wright stain, they are called polychromatic erythrocytes. When seen using Vital stains, they are called reticulocytes
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
122.
Degradation of mitochondria and other organelles takes place in this stage via autophagy
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
123.
RNA is removed by P5'NT -1enzyme
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
124.
first precurosr normally seen in the blood
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
125.
Salmon-pink cytoplasm with bluish tinge seen using vital stain
a)
Rubriblast/Pronormoblast
b)
Prorubricyte/Basophilic Normoblast
c)
Rubricyte/Polychromatic normoblast
d)
Metarubricyte/orthochromatic normoblast
e)
Reticulocyte/polychromatic reticulocyte
126.
RBC lifespan in premature neonate
a)
35 – 50 days
b)
60 – 70 days
c)
120 days
127.
RBC lifespan in term neonate
a)
35 – 50 days
b)
60 – 70 days
c)
120 days
128.
RBC lifespan in adult
a)
35 – 50 days
b)
60 – 70 days
c)
120 days
129.
major stimulatory cytokine/hormone for RBC production.
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Erythroferrone
c)
Hepcidin
130.
Source: Kidneys (peritubular fibroblasts) Target: Erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow.
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Erythroferrone
c)
Hepcidin
131.
Increased iron absorption by the production of
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Erythroferrone
c)
Hepcidin
132.
Inactivates hepcidin
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Erythroferrone
c)
Hepcidin
133.
Increased iron absorption
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Erythroferrone
c)
Hepcidin
134.
Decreases serum iron by closing ferroportin
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Erythroferrone
c)
Hepcidin
135.
Conversion time of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin
a)
10 minuttes
b)
less than 10 minutes
c)
1 hour
136.
Conversion time of methemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin
a)
10 minuttes
b)
less than 10 minutes
c)
1 hour
137.
Conversion time of carboxyhemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin
a)
10 minuttes
b)
less than 10 minutes
c)
1 hour
138.
MEMBRANE LIPIDS Inner layer:
a)
Phosphatidylserine
b)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
c)
Phosphatidylcholine
d)
Sphingomyelin
139.
MEMBRANE LIPIDS Outer layer:
a)
Phosphatidylserine
b)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
c)
Phosphatidylcholine
d)
Sphingomyelin
140.
Increased distribution on outer layer of senescent RBCs and serves as a receptor that macrophages bind to, leading to increased RBC death.
a)
Phosphatidylserine
b)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
c)
Phosphatidylinositol
d)
Phosphatidylcholine
e)
Sphingomyelin
141.
Present in both layers:
a)
Free cholesterol
b)
Phosphatidylinositol
c)
Sphingomyelin
142.
confers tensile strength on the lipid bilayer. As it rises, the membrane gains strength but loses elasticity.
a)
Free cholesterol
b)
Phosphatidylcholine
c)
Sphingomyelin
143.
M & N antigen
a)
Glycophorin A
b)
Glycophorin B
c)
Glycophorin C, D
144.
Ss antigen
a)
Glycophorin A
b)
Glycophorin B
c)
Glycophorin C, D
145.
Gerbich antigens
a)
Glycophorin A
b)
Glycophorin B
c)
Glycophorin C, D
146.
Function: Provides lateral or horizontal membrane stability
a)
Cytoskeletal Proteins
b)
Aquaporin A
147.
Transmembrane protein that regulates the influx of water into the RBC in response to osmotic changes.
a)
Cytoskeletal Proteins
b)
Aquaporin A
148.
The erythrocytes’ membrane is
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Semipermeable
149.
Erythrocyte membrane is .. to Na+ , K+ , and Ca2+
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Semipermeable
150.
Erythrocyte membrane is .. to water, HCO3 - , and Cl
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Semipermeable
151.
Horizontal interaction defect that inhibits the membrane’s ability to rebound from deformation Ultimately, the RBCs progressively elongate to form visible elliptocytes, which causes a mild to severe hemolytic anemia
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
152.
Autosomal dominant mutations that lead to too few vertical anchorages to maintain membrane stability. This leads to reduced surface area-to-volume ratio and the formation of spherocytes.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
153.
aka hereditary hydrocytosis
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
154.
The RBC membrane is excessively permeable to sodium and potassium.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
155.
A.K.A. Hereditary xerocytosis
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
156.
The RBC membrane is excessively permeable to potassium.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
e)
Hereditary nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia
157.
The collective term for anemia caused by shortened RBC survival because of enzyme deficiencies in glycolysis.
a)
Hereditary elliptocytosis
b)
Hereditary spherocytosis
c)
Overhydrated stomatocytosis
d)
Dehydrated stomatocytosis
e)
Hereditary nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia