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BIO- Exam 2 Review

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 3hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of cell has no nucleus?

a)

Eukaryote

b)

Prokaryote

c)

Animal

d)

Plant

2.

Plants and animal cells are examples of ___ cells

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

alien

d)

animal

3.

Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

bacteria

d)

battery

4.

Which type of cell contains a nucleus?

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

5.

Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.

c)

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.

6.

What are the two categories of Prokaryotic Cells?

a)

There is only one category

b)

Plant and Animal

c)

Bacteria and Archaea

d)

Big and Small

7.

What are Eukaryotic Cells?

a)

Cells that contain a nucleus, membrane-bound organelles, and the basis of uni-cellular and multi-celled organisms

b)

Cells that have a nucleus

c)

Cells that do not have a membrane

d)

Cells that have membrane-bound organelles

8.

During a biology class, Arjun was asked to identify which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic organism. Which one should he choose?

a)

Animals

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Plants

9.

The Cell Theory:

  1. 1. All living organisms are composed of one or more ​ (a)   . (Unicellular or Multicellular)

  2. 2. All cells arise from ​ (b)   cells. (Not from Spontaneous Generation)

  3. 3. Cells are the structural and functional unit of ​ (c)   . (Nothing living smaller than a Cell)

Choose from the below words
cells
preexisting
life
10.

Match the following

a)

Complex Cells that contain a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

1.

Eukaryotic Cells

b)

Simple Cells that are missing a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

2.

Prokaryotic Cells

c)

Basic Unit of Life.

3.

Cells

11.

The monomers of nucleic acids are

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Fatty Acids

12.

DNA and RNA are an example of

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nuclei Acids

13.

Lipids are used for long-term storage of energy and also for

a)

Genetic Information

b)

Insulation

c)

Structure

d)

Fast energy

14.

(question 11) Lipids are made up of which of the following?

a)

glycerol and fatty acids tails

b)

glycerol and monolipids

c)

fatty acids and phosolipids

d)

amino acids and nucleotides

15.

(question 10) What is the monomer for a protein?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Nucleotide

16.

(question 9) Which biomolecule includes fats, such as triglycerides, oils, waxes, and steroids (cholesterol); insoluble in water; provides energy storage, insulation, part of cell membrane, and hormones

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Protein

17.

(question 8) What are the four biological molecules?

a)

proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids

b)

proteins, enzymes, cells, lipids

c)

water, air, earth, and fire

d)

carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous

18.

(question 6) Which biomolecule contain your genetics?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

19.

(question 1) Enzymes are a type of which biomolecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

20.

(question 13) All polymers are made up of...

a)

monosaccharides

b)

monomers

c)

proteins

d)

None of these

21.

(question 14) What are foods that are high in carbs?

a)

Eggs, fish, poultry

b)

Cheese, meats, vegetables

c)

Bread, potatoes, and pasta

d)

Multitude of oils, butter and condiments

22.

(question 18) What is the purpose of an enzyme?

a)

give permission for the reaction

b)

raise activation energy

c)

speed up reactions

d)

control how many reactions occur

23.

(question 19) What is the name of Letter D

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

24.

(question 21) Which of the following is a simple sugar?

a)

Glucose

b)

Flour

c)

Seeds

d)

Lactase

25.

(question 22) Which of these affects an enzymes ability to function? (2 answers)

a)

The mood of the enzyme

b)

pH (scale that measures acidity)

c)

Catalyst

d)

Temperature

26.
The energy needed to start a chemical reaction
a)
Catalyst
b)
Activation Energy
c)
Substrates
d)
Reactants
27.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of enzymes?.

a)

Enzymes are not found in living organisms

b)

Enzymes help to speed up chemical reactions

c)

Enzymes are made carbohydrates

d)

Enzymes increase the activation energy of a chemical reaction

28.
In this diagram A is the
a)
substrate
b)
enzyme
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
product
29.

Enzymes are also considered to be biological ____________

a)

catalysts

b)

organisms

c)

life

d)

denatures

30.
The substance(s) that enter an enzyme and are either joined or broken apart
a)
Reactants
b)
Products
c)
Substrates
d)
Denatures
31.
The area of an enzyme where the substrate binds to the enzyme
a)
Product
b)
Active Site
c)
Catalyst
d)
Complex
32.
In this diagram B is the
a)
substrate
b)
active site
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
product
33.
Most enzymes end in......?
a)
-ose
b)
-itin
c)
-ase
d)
-ome
34.
Which molecules in this reaction are the products?
a)

CH4 and O2

b)
H2O and O2
c)
CO2 and H20
d)
CH4 and H20
35.
Which molecules in this reaction are the reactants?
a)

CH4 and O2

b)
H2O and O2
c)
CO2 and H20
d)
CH4 and H20
36.

What term is used to describe the process of an enzyme changing shape due to extreme heat or pH levels?

a)
depolarize
b)

catalyze

c)
polymerize
d)
denature
37.
Which of the following accurately describes this graph?
a)

Green reaction has an enzyme, so less energy is used than the purple reaction

b)
This reaction is endothermic and absorbing energy from its surroundings.
c)
The activation energy is the same for both the purple and green reactions.
d)
Different products are produced in the green reaction and purple reaction.
38.

Label the phases if the cell cycle.

a)Interphase
b)G1
c)S Phase
d)G2
e)Mitosis
1
2
3
4
5
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
39.

Match the following

a)

G1

1.

Gap or growth phase; cell doubles in size

b)

G2

2.

Cell prepares for division; doubles number of organelles

c)

S

3.

DNA is replicated

d)

Mitosis

4.

Process in which the nucleus is divided

e)

Cytokinesis

5.

Process of division of the cytoplasm

40.

Which phase is known as the rest phase, when cells are not growing or preparing to divide?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G0

d)

G2

41.

Which Phase does the cell spend 90% of its life in?

(a)  

42.

Place to following steps of Mitosis in order.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

1)
2)
3)
4)
43.

Match the following

a)

Genetic material condenses

1.

Prophase

b)

Chromosomes line up in middle of cell

2.

Metaphase

c)

Sister chromatid moves apart

3.

Anaphase

d)

The cell starts to split into two

4.

Telophase

e)

Cell growth, and DNA replicates

5.

Interphase

44.

What phase of the Cell Cycle is the arrow pointing to:

(a)  

Choose from the below words
Metaphase

Anaphase

Interphase

Prophase

45.

Identify the phase of Mitosis from the Illustration:

Nuclear membrane disappears

Chromosomes can now be seen

Centrioles move to opposite sides



(a)  

46.

Identify the phase of Mitosis in the Illustration:

Chromatids separate

(a)  

47.

What stage of the Cell Cycle is shown in the illustration?

(a)  

48.

Identify the phase of Mitosis in the Illustration:

Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell

Spindle fibers extend from the centrioles to the middle of the chromosomes

(a)  

49.

Cells of organisms must go through cell division for?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of these

50.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome 
51.

What happens in cytokinesis?

a)

The chromosomes become visible; nucleus disappears; spindles form

b)

The chromosomes align in the middle of the cell

c)

The DNA is duplicated

d)

The cytoplasm divides into two new daughter cells

52.

Which phase is this in?

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

53.

Reorder the following stages of Mitosis from start to finish.

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
54.

Select the following stage of mitosis: PROPHASE

A
B
C
D
55.
Order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
56.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
57.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
58.
The bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together come from...
a)
the attraction of phosphate groups 
b)
strong bonds between  bases and sugars
c)
carbon to carbon bonds in the sugar
d)
weak hydrogen bonds between the bases
59.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
60.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
61.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
62.
The nucleic acid DNA is composed of
a)
sugar, protein, and nitrogenous bases.
b)
protein, nitrogenous bases, and phosphate.
c)
nitrogenous bases, phosphate, and RNA.
d)
sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous bases.
63.
DNA replication turns one strand of DNA into two new strands of DNA. What percent of each new strand is the old strand?
a)
Half of each new DNA is the old DNA
b)
The old strand of DNA was digested, so none
c)
The new DNA is entirely made up of the old DNA
d)
About every sixth base comes from the old DNA
64.
Sometimes, DNA is called "semi-conservative." Why might this be?
a)
The old strand is "conserved" and used to make the new strands
b)
Uracil is "conserved" in that it is only used to make the new strands
c)
ATP is "conserved" via the usage of facilitated diffusion
d)
Ligase is "conserved" in that it is denatured by the process
65.

Which of the following best describes the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

Single helix

b)

Double helix

c)

Triple helix

d)

Linear strand

66.

During DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for adding new nucleotides to the growing DNA strand?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Primase

d)

Polymerase

67.

What is the complementary base pair for adenine in DNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

68.

What is the function of the sugar-phosphate backbone in a DNA molecule?

a)

It provides structural support to the DNA strand

b)

It catalyzes DNA replication

c)

It stores genetic information

d)

It binds to ribosomes during translation

69.

During DNA replication, which base pairs with cytosine?

a)

Uracil

b)

Adenine

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

70.

What is the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

The endosymbiotic theory explains how plants produce energy through photosynthesis.

b)

The endosymbiotic theory is about the formation of the solar system.

c)

The endosymbiotic theory describes the evolution of dinosaurs.

d)

The endosymbiotic theory explains the origin of eukaryotic cells from symbiotic relationships between prokaryotic organisms.

71.

List two key pieces of evidence supporting endosymbiosis.

a)

1. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have double membranes. 2. They contain their own circular DNA.

b)

Both organelles are derived from the nucleus of the cell.

c)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts are found in all eukaryotic cells.

d)

They are responsible for protein synthesis in the cell.

72.

What are the three major principles of cell theory?

a)

All living organisms are made of tissues and organs

b)

1) All living organisms are composed of one or more cells, 2) The cell is the basic unit of life, 3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

c)

Cells can spontaneously generate from non-living matter

d)

All cells contain a nucleus

73.

How do prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in that they lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, have circular DNA, and are generally smaller and simpler.

b)

Prokaryotic cells contain linear DNA and are larger than eukaryotic cells.

c)

Eukaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than prokaryotic cells.

d)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus and complex organelles.

74.
Stem cells are
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably
b)
undifferentiated and can be any type of cell
c)
never go through cell division
d)
only found in embryos
75.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart. 
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells. 
c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells. 
d)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells. 
76.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
77.
Which type of cell is unspecialized?
a)
skin cell
b)
stem cell
c)
liver cell
d)
muscle cell
78.

During which phase does DNA make a copy of itself?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

79.

What 3 phases make up Interphase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

e)

C

80.

True or False: A cell will not continue to the next phase if its DNA is damaged.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Osmosis is the movement of _________ through a membrane.

a)

food

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

energy

82.

When materials move in and out of a cell at the same rate, the cell is in

a)

Dynamic equilibrium

b)

Metabolism

c)

Imbalance

d)

Inertia

83.

Facilitated diffusion uses ___________ to move large or charged molecules from high to low concentration.

a)

energy

b)

cells

c)

carbohydrates

d)

proteins

84.
Which form of transport is being shown in the diagram.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
85.
Cells use energy to move materials across a membrane (low to high concentration).
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
86.

When a cell forms a vesicle around unwanted particles and expels it OUT of the cell.

a)

Pinocytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Receptor-mediated

d)

Exocytosis

87.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
88.

The two components of a virus are nucleic acid and __________.

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

glucose

89.

A virus is

a)

living

b)

non living

c)

dead

90.

Viruses need a ____________ in order to make copies of themselves.

a)

bacterial cell

b)

host cell

c)

capsid

d)

vaccine

91.

Virus' genetic information contains the code to:

a)

make copies of itself

b)

obtain and use energy

c)

reproduce

d)

grow and develop

92.

Which cycle kills the host cell immediately?

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

93.

During which cycle does a virus's genetic information become a part of the host cell's genetic information?

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

94.

A virus that hides within the host cell for up to years is going through the _______ cycle.

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

95.

A virus that goes through the ______ cycle will allow you to feel symptoms immediately due to the cells lysing.

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

96.

Vaccines are a preventative measure.

a)

True

b)

False

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