WorksheetsPRC-HEMA_1MT2
Total questions: 83
Worksheet time: 42mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Also known as the “pentose phosphate shunt”
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
2.
Production of NADPH using G6PD
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
3.
Reduces glutathione to active form
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
4.
Protection from oxidation
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
5.
In steady-stage glycolysis, 5-10% of G6P is diverted to this pathway. During oxidative challenge, the activity of this shunt may increase by up to 30-fold.
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
6.
Ø H2O2 oxidizes heme iron to the nonfunctional ferric state and oxidizes and denatures proteins and lipids
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
7.
G6PD provides the only means of generating NADPH for glutathione reduction, and in its absence, RBCs are particularly vulnerable to oxidative damage.
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
8.
The HMP pathway is not able to reduce methemoglobin once it forms.
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
9.
Ø The reduction of methemoglobin by NADPH is rendered more efficient in the presence of methemoglobin reductase, also called cytochrome-b5 reductase.
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
10.
This shunt generates 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate (2,3- BPG), also called 2,3- diphosphoglycerate.
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
11.
2,3 BPG production
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
12.
Methemoglobin reduction
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
13.
NADPH generation
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
14.
Normal fraction of central pallor
a)
1/3
b)
2/3
c)
3/4
15.
Hemoglobin is composed of .. heme
a)
Two different pairs
b)
Four groups
16.
Hemoglobin is composed of .. globin
a)
Two different pairs
b)
Four groups
17.
Alpha
a)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 16:
b)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 11:
18.
Zeta
a)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 16:
b)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 11:
19.
Epsilon
a)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 16:
b)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 11:
20.
Gamma
a)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 16:
b)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 11:
21.
Delta
a)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 16:
b)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 11:
22.
Beta
a)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 16:
b)
Coded on short arm of chromosome 11:
23.
2 Zeta + 2 Epsilon chains
a)
Gower-1
b)
Gower-2
c)
Portland
d)
Hb F
24.
2 Alpha + 2 Epsilon chains
a)
Gower-1
b)
Gower-2
c)
Portland
d)
Hb F
25.
2 Zeta + 2 Gamma chains
a)
Gower-1
b)
Gower-2
c)
Portland
d)
Hb F
26.
2 Alpha + 2 Gamma chains
a)
Gower-1
b)
Gower-2
c)
Portland
d)
Hb F
27.
Begins in early embryogenesis; peaks during third trimester and declines before birth.
a)
Gower-1
b)
Gower-2
c)
Portland
d)
Hb F
28.
Approximately .. mL of O2 is bound by each gram of hemoglobin
a)
1.34 mL
b)
1.32 mL
c)
1.33 mL
d)
1.35 mL
29.
2,3-BPG formation (oxygen release to tissues)
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
30.
Shift to the right (O2 dissociation curve)
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
31.
Converts ferric iron to ferrous iron
a)
Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
b)
Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
c)
Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
32.
Characterized by cherry-red blood discoloration.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
33.
Absorbance at 540 nm:
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
34.
Caused by exposure to carbon monoxide (CO) which has a 240 times aainity for hemoglobin than that of oxygen.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
35.
At 20-30%, toxic effects such as headache, dizziness, disorientation begin to appear.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
36.
At levels >40%, coma, seizure, hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia, pulmonary edema, and death may occur
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
37.
Absorbance at 630 nm:
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
38.
Formed by the reversible oxidation of heme iron to the ferric state (Fe3+).
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
39.
High level of methemoglobin is associated with a chocolate brown blood discoloration that does not revert back to a normal red color after exposure to oxygen.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
40.
The NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase 3 is a pathway that limits the accumulation of methemoglobin to only 1%.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
41.
EUects: Ø <25%: Asymptomatic Ø >30%: Cyanosis, symptoms of hypoxia Ø >50%: Coma, death
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
42.
Exogenous oxidants such as nitrites, primaquine, dapsone, or benzocaine can cause methemoglobinemia in the acquired form.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
43.
Formed by the irreversible oxidation of hemoglobin by drugs (i.e. sulfanilamides, phenacetin, nitrites, phenylhydrazine) or exposure to sulfur chemicals in industrial or environmental settings.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
44.
A sulfur atom is added to the pyrrole ring of heme and has a characteristic greenish pigment.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
45.
Despite having a similar peak with hemoglobin on a spectral absorption instrument, what diUerentiates sulfhemoglobin is that it does not shift when cyanide is added.
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
46.
Characterized by a greenish tinge or mauve lavender discoloration of the blood
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
47.
Does not revert back to normal color upon exposure to oxygen
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
48.
Caused by irreversible oxidation of heme iron to its ferric form
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
49.
By sulfanilamides, phenacetin, nitrites, phenylthydrazine, or exposure to sulfur chemicals in industrial or environmental settings
a)
Carboxyhemoglobin
b)
Methemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
50.
Contains iron actively functioning within cells, such as in hemoglobin, myoglobin, cytochromes, and enzymes.
a)
Functional Iron
b)
Storage Iron
c)
Transport Iron
51.
Iron in the ferrous form (Fe2+).
a)
Functional Iron
b)
Storage Iron
c)
Transport Iron
52.
Iron that is not actively functioning, but available for future use.
a)
Functional Iron
b)
Storage Iron
c)
Transport Iron
53.
Stored mainly in hepatocytes, macrophages of the spleen and bone marrow, and in some amount in every cell except mature RBCs. se.
a)
Functional Iron
b)
Storage Iron
c)
Transport Iron
54.
Iron in transit between body sites via plasma.
a)
Functional Iron
b)
Storage Iron
c)
Transport Iron
55.
Iron in the ferric form (Fe3+).
a)
Functional Iron
b)
Storage Iron
c)
Transport Iron
56.
Iron-free forms of transferrin and ferritin, respectively, with apotransferrin lacking bound iron and apoferritin empty of iron in its core.
a)
Apotransferrin and apoferritin
b)
Holo-transferrin and holo-ferritin
57.
Iron-loaded versions, with holotransferrin bound to iron in transit and holo-ferritin storing iron within its core for later use.
a)
Apotransferrin and apoferritin
b)
Holo-transferrin and holo-ferritin
58.
What is the most commonly used blood collection tubes in the Hematology section?
a)
a. Sodium citrate
b)
b. Sodium fluoride
c)
c. EDTA
d)
d. Lithium heparin
59.
The anticoagulant-to-blood ratio for a light blue-top is
a)
a. 1:4
b)
b. 4:1
c)
c. 9:1
d)
d. 1:9
60.
If a blood film is not stained within 2 hours, what background color will it give on a Wright's stain?
a)
a. Red
b)
b. Blue
c)
c. Green
d)
d. Purple
61.
Proper application of tourniquet:
a)
a. 1 to 2 inches below the puncture site
b)
b. 1 to 2 inches above the puncture site
c)
c. 3 to 4 inches below the puncture site
d)
d. 3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
62.
Cleansing of the venipuncture site should be in a ________ motion
a)
a. Circular; outside to inside
b)
b. Circular; inside to outside
c)
c. Back-and-forth with friction
d)
d. Figure-of-eight direction
63.
Finger puncture should be done ___ to the fingerprint
a)
a. Parallel
b)
b. Perpendicular
c)
c. Diagonal
d)
d. In any direction
64.
Which of the following should be the last to be filled when collecting blood from skin puncture?
a)
a. Tube for blood gas
b)
b. Glass slides
c)
c. Serum micro-collection tubes
d)
d. EDTA-microcollection tube
65.
During the 5th to 7th gestational weeks, what is the main site of hematopoiesis?
a)
a. Yolk sac
b)
b. Liver
c)
c. Spleen
d)
d. Bone marrow
66.
After retrogression, active marrow is restricted to the following bones, except:
a)
a. Vertebrae
b)
b. Skull
c)
c. Radius
d)
d. Illiac crest
67.
The following cells temporarily decreases after splenectomy except:
a)
a. Leukocytes
b)
b. Platelets
c)
c. RBCs
d)
d. None of the above
68.
Which of the following is true regarding early hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs)?
a)
a. CD38+
b)
b. HLA-DR (high
c)
c. CD34+
d)
d. All of the above
69.
Which of the following follows the general trends in the appearance in erythropoiesis?
a)
a. Increase in overall diameter
b)
b. Condensation of the nuclear chromatin
c)
c. N:C ratio increases
d)
d. Appearance of the nucleoli
70.
Detectable hemoglobin synthesis occurs in the:
a)
a. Rubriblast
b)
b. Prorubricyte
c)
c. Rubricyte
d)
d. Metarubricyte
71.
The pink color associated with stained hemoglobin is seen in which of the following stages?
a)
a. Rubriblast
b)
b. Prorubricyte
c)
c. Rubricyte
d)
d. Metarubricyte
72.
The orthochromatic erythroblast stage is the last stage of ___ synthesis
a)
a. DNA
b)
b. RNA
c)
c. Protein
d)
d. Ribosome
73.
The RBC lifespan in a term neonate is:
a)
a. 35 to 50 days
b)
b. 50 to 60 days
c)
c. 60 to 70 days
d)
d. 120 days
74.
Which RBC membrane lipid has an increased distribution on the outer layer of senescent RBCs and serves as a receptor that macrophages bind to, leading to increased RBC death?
a)
a. Sphingomyelin
b)
b. Phosphatidylcholine
c)
c. Phosphatidylethanolamine
d)
d. Phosphatidylserine
75.
The M & N antigens are located in which glycophorin?
a)
a. Glycophorin A
b)
b. Glycophorin B
c)
c. Glycophorin B
d)
d. Glycophorin D
76.
Production of 2,3-disphosphoglycertae occurs in which glycolysis diversion pathway?
a)
a. Hexose monophosphate pathway
b)
b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
c)
c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway
d)
d. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
77.
A ring of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen atoms with a central atom of ferrous iron
a)
a. Protoporphyrin IX
b)
b. Heme
c)
c. Hemoglobin
d)
d. Globin
78.
Heme biosynthesis begins in the ___ and ends in the ___ of erythroid precursor cells
a)
a. Mitochondria; Cytoplasm
b)
b. Mitochondria; Mitochondria
c)
c. Cytoplasm; Mitochondria
d)
d. Cytoplasm; Cytoplasm
79.
Which globin chain is coded on the short arm of chromosome 16?
a)
a. Alpha
b)
b. Epsilon
c)
c. Delta
d)
d. A and B
80.
In a normal adult, the composition of hemoglobin from the greatest to least is:
a)
a. Hb A > Hb A2 > Hb F
b)
b. Hb A > Hb F > Hb A2
c)
c. Hb F > Hb A > Hb A2
d)
d, Hb A2 > Hb A > Hb F
81.
At birth, which composition of hemoglobin is predominant?
a)
Hb A
b)
Hb F
c)
Hb A2
82.
It is formed by the irreversible oxidation of hemoglobin by drugs or exposure to chemicals in industrial or environmental settings
a)
a. Methemoglobin
b)
b. Carboxyhemoglobin
c)
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d)
d. Oxyhemoglobin
83.
The effect of hepcidin to the amount of serum iron:
a)
a. Increased
b)
b. Decreased
c)
c. No effect
d)
d. Variable effect
100 %
