WorksheetsPRC-HEMA_2MTP3
Total questions: 106
Worksheet time: 53mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The average volume of the RBC
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
2.
Reference Interval: 80 – 100 fL
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
3.
Expressed in femtoliters (fL).
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
4.
The average weight of hemoglobin in an RBC
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
5.
Expressed in picograms (pg)
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
6.
Reference Interval: 26 – 34 pg
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
7.
The average concentration of hemoglobin in each individual RBC
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
8.
Unit: grams per deciliter (g/dL)
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
9.
Reference interval: 32 – 36 g/dL
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
10.
This formula is used for computing...
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
11.
The volume of packed RBCs that occupies a given volume of whole blood.
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Plasma
d)
Serum
12.
Reported as a percentage or liters per liter (L/L).
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Plasma
d)
Serum
13.
Unit used for MCV
a)
fL
b)
pg
c)
g/dL
d)
L/L
14.
Unit used for MCH
a)
fL
b)
pg
c)
g/dL
d)
L/L
15.
Unit used for MCHC
a)
fL
b)
pg
c)
g/dL
d)
L/L
16.
Unit used for Hct
a)
fL
b)
pg
c)
g/dL
d)
L/L
17.
MCV reference range
a)
80 to 100
b)
26 to 34
c)
32 to 36
18.
What is the reference interval of hematocrit for an adult male?
a)
40 to 54%
b)
35 to 49%
c)
53 to 65%
19.
What is the reference interval of hematocrit for an adult female?
a)
40 to 54%
b)
35 to 49%
c)
53 to 65%
20.
What is the reference interval of hematocrit for a newborn?
a)
40 to 54%
b)
35 to 49%
c)
53 to 65%
21.
MCH reference range
a)
80 to 100
b)
26 to 34
c)
32 to 36
22.
MCHC reference range
a)
80 to 100
b)
26 to 34
c)
32 to 36
23.
Also known as “packed cell volume” or PCV.
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Plasma
d)
Serum
24.
This formula is used for computing....
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
25.
This formula is used in computing..
a)
Mean Cell Volume
b)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin
c)
Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration
26.
What is the average length of a microhematocrit tube?
a)
75 mm
b)
1.2 mm
c)
0.05 mL
d)
0.010 mL
e)
4 to 6 mm
27.
What is the average size of the inner bore of a microhematocrit tube?
a)
75 mm
b)
1.2 mm
c)
0.05 mL
d)
0.010 mL
e)
4 to 6 mm
28.
What is the average length of the plug of a microhematocrit tube?
a)
75 mm
b)
1.2 mm
c)
0.05 mL
d)
0.010 mL
e)
4 to 6 mm
29.
Which color of hematocrit tube is heparinized?
a)
Red-banded
b)
Blue-banded
c)
Purple-banded
d)
Green-banded
30.
Which color of hematocrit tube is non-heparinized (no anticoagulant)?
a)
Red-banded
b)
Blue-banded
c)
Purple-banded
d)
Green-banded
31.
A microhematocrit tube can hold.. of blood
a)
75 mm
b)
1.2 mm
c)
0.05 mL
d)
0.010 mL
e)
4 to 6 mm
32.
The reference method approved by the CLSI for hemoglobin determination
a)
Cyanmethemoglobin
b)
Carboxyhemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
33.
Which of the following methods involve using Drabkin solution?
a)
Cyanmethemoglobin
b)
Carboxyhemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
34.
Which of the following methods' reagent is photosensitive?
a)
Cyanmethemoglobin
b)
Carboxyhemoglobin
c)
Sulfhemoglobin
35.
Full conversion of normal hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin takes how many minutes?
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
30 minutes
d)
60 minutes
e)
Irreversible
36.
Full conversion of normal hemoglobin to sulfhemoglobin takes how many minutes?
a)
5 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
30 minutes
d)
60 minutes
e)
Irreversible
37.
Which of the following components of Drabkin's solution oxidizes hemoglobin to methemoglobin?
a)
Potassium ferricyanide
b)
Potassium cyanide
c)
Sodium bicarbonate
d)
Surfactant
38.
Which of the following components of Drabkin's solution converters methemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin?
a)
Potassium ferricyanide
b)
Potassium cyanide
c)
Sodium bicarbonate
d)
Surfactant
39.
What is the absorbance of cyanmethemoglobin?
a)
530 nm
b)
540 nm
c)
570 nm
d)
880 nm
40.
Handheld system (Hemocue), a POCT system for measuring cyanmethemoglobin is read at..
a)
530 nm
b)
540 nm
c)
570 nm
d)
880 nm
41.
A method that does not generate toxic wastes; used by some automated instruments.
a)
Sodium Lauryl Sulfate
b)
Potassium Lauryl Sulfate
c)
Sodium Lauric Sulfanate
42.
What will be the remedy if there is an interference related to High WBC count (>20 × 10^9/L) or high platelet count (>700 × 10^9/L) causing turbidity and falsely high results?
a)
Centrifuge the reagent-specimen solution and measure the supernatant
b)
Add 0.01 mL of patient's plasma to 5 mL of CMH reagent and use this solution as the reagent blank.
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted specimen + 1 part water) and multiply the result by 2 based on the standard curve
d)
Add 0.1 g of K2CO3 to the CMH reagent. Alternatively, use commercially modified CMH reagent containing KH2PO4 salt
43.
What will be the remedy if there is an interference related to Lipemia causing turbidity and falsely high results?
a)
Centrifuge the reagent-specimen solution and measure the supernatant
b)
Add 0.01 mL of patient's plasma to 5 mL of CMH reagent and use this solution as the reagent blank.
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted specimen + 1 part water) and multiply the result by 2 based on the standard curve
d)
Add 0.1 g of K2CO3 to the CMH reagent. Alternatively, use commercially modified CMH reagent containing KH2PO4 salt
44.
What will be the remedy if there is an interference related to Cells with hemoglobin S (Hb S) or hemoglobin C (Hb C) resistant to hemolysis causing turbidity?
a)
Centrifuge the reagent-specimen solution and measure the supernatant
b)
Add 0.01 mL of patient's plasma to 5 mL of CMH reagent and use this solution as the reagent blank.
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted specimen + 1 part water) and multiply the result by 2 based on the standard curve
d)
Add 0.1 g of K2CO3 to the CMH reagent. Alternatively, use commercially modified CMH reagent containing KH2PO4 salt
45.
What will be the remedy if there is an interference related to Abnormal globulins (e.g., plasma cell myeloma, Waldenström macroglobulinemia) precipitating in the reagent?
a)
Centrifuge the reagent-specimen solution and measure the supernatant
b)
Add 0.01 mL of patient's plasma to 5 mL of CMH reagent and use this solution as the reagent blank.
c)
Make a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted specimen + 1 part water) and multiply the result by 2 based on the standard curve
d)
Add 0.1 g of K2CO3 to the CMH reagent. Alternatively, use commercially modified CMH reagent containing KH2PO4 salt
46.
In Hemoglobin electrophoresis, if the pH is alkaline, what medium is used?
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Celite
c)
Citrate agar
d)
Toni fowler
47.
In Hemoglobin electrophoresis, if the pH is acid, what medium is used?
a)
Cellulose acetate
b)
Celite
c)
Citrate agar
d)
Toni fowler
48.
Measures the amount of circulating iron bound to transferrin, which is crucial for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia or iron overload.
a)
Serum Iron
b)
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
c)
Serum Ferritin
d)
Transferrin
49.
Indicates the total amount of transferrin available to bind iron, often used to assess iron status in anemia.
a)
Serum Iron
b)
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
c)
Serum Ferritin
d)
Transferrin
50.
Which of the following components of iron requires fasting?
a)
Serum Iron
b)
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
c)
Serum Ferritin
d)
Transferrin
51.
Reflects the body's iron stores; low ferritin levels are indicative of iron deficiency anemia.
a)
Serum Iron
b)
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
c)
Serum Ferritin
d)
Transferrin
52.
A protein that binds and transports iron. Called apotransferrin without iron, and holotransferrin when fully bound with iron.
a)
Serum Iron
b)
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)
c)
Serum Ferritin
d)
Transferrin
53.
Serum Iron: Decreased
Ferritin: Decreased
TIBC: Increased
The results are consistent with?
a)
Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)
b)
Anemia of Chronic Inflammation (ACI)
54.
Serum Iron: Decreased
Ferritin: Increased
TIBC: Decreased
The results are consistent with?
a)
Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)
b)
Anemia of Chronic Inflammation (ACI)
55.
Used to detect and monitor inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, infections, and certain malignancies.
a)
ESR
b)
CRP
c)
CBC
d)
PCR
56.
It measures the distance in millimeters that red blood cells fall in one hour when anticoagulated blood is left undisturbed at room temperature.
a)
ESR
b)
CRP
c)
CBC
d)
PCR
57.
The most commonly used manual method, and the method recommended by the ICSH and CLSI.
a)
Modified Westergren ESR
b)
Wintrobe ESR
58.
A 200-mm column is used.
a)
Modified Westergren ESR
b)
Wintrobe ESR
59.
Anticoagulant: EDTA
a)
Modified Westergren ESR
b)
Wintrobe ESR
60.
A 100-mm column is used.
a)
Modified Westergren ESR
b)
Wintrobe ESR
61.
Anticoagulant is previously oxalate
a)
Modified Westergren ESR
b)
Wintrobe ESR
62.
When performing ESR, the blood must be analyzed within how many hours at room temperature?
a)
4 hours
b)
30 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
24 hours
63.
When performing ESR, the blood may be stored for how many hours at refrigerated temperature (4C)?
a)
4 hours
b)
30 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
24 hours
64.
If a blood for ESR is stored for 24 hours, it must be rewarmed for how long?
a)
4 hours
b)
30 minutes
c)
15 minutes
d)
24 hours
65.
What is the reference range of ESR in Adult males on Modified Westergren?
a)
0 to 10 mm/Hr
b)
0 to 9 mm/Hr
c)
0 to 15 mm/Hr
d)
0 to 20 mm/Hr
66.
What is the reference range of ESR in Adult Females on Modified Westergren?
a)
0 to 10 mm/Hr
b)
0 to 9 mm/Hr
c)
0 to 15 mm/Hr
d)
0 to 20 mm/Hr
67.
What is the reference range of ESR in Adult males on Wintrobe?
a)
0 to 10 mm/Hr
b)
0 to 9 mm/Hr
c)
0 to 15 mm/Hr
d)
0 to 20 mm/Hr
68.
What is the reference range of ESR in Adult Females on Wintrobe?
a)
0 to 10 mm/Hr
b)
0 to 9 mm/Hr
c)
0 to 15 mm/Hr
d)
0 to 20 mm/Hr
69.
Which sedimentation stage on ESR takes place on the first 10 minutes?
a)
Lag phase
b)
Decantation phase
c)
Final settling phase
70.
Which sedimentation stage on ESR takes place on the next 40 minutes?
a)
Lag phase
b)
Decantation phase
c)
Final settling phase
71.
Which sedimentation stage on ESR takes place on the last 10 minutes?
a)
Lag phase
b)
Decantation phase
c)
Final settling phase
72.
Giant cell (temporal) arteritis
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
73.
Hyperfibrinogenemia
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
74.
Increased IgM
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
75.
Vibration during procedure
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
76.
Tilted ESR tube
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
77.
High room temperature
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
78.
Heparin or oxalate anticoagulant
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
79.
Renal failure
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
80.
Pregnancy
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
81.
Female sex
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
82.
Advance age
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
83.
Markedly increased IgG
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
84.
Increased alpha2-macroglobulin
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
85.
Hypercholesterolemia
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
86.
Rheumatoid arthritis
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
87.
Polymyalgia rheumatica
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
88.
Malignancies
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
89.
Infections
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
90.
Low room temperature
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
91.
Increased anticoagulant to blood ratio
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
92.
Refrigerated specimen not returned to room temperature for 15 minutes before testing
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
93.
Delay in testing over 4 h at RT
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
94.
Low-molecular-weight dextran
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
95.
Phenylbutazone
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
96.
Sodium salicylate
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
97.
Thiosemicarbazone
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
98.
Valproic acid
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
99.
Markedly increased bile salts
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
100.
Increase lysolecithin
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
101.
Increased fatty acids
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
102.
Hypofibrinogenemia
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
103.
Dysfibronogenemia
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
104.
Afibrinogenemia
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
105.
Congestive heart failure
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
106.
Cachexia
a)
Increased ESR
b)
Decreased ESR
100 %
