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I/O Psychology

Total questions: 234

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A company is considering using Al tools to automate reference checks by analyzing patterns in past performance reports and social media activity of applicants. Some HR staff are concerned that relying too heavily on Al may miss context, nuance, or personal traits not captured digitally. Why or why not should HR use Al-assisted reference checks as part of the hiring process?

a)

Because Al can efficiently process large volumes of reference data, highlight trends, and save time,

b)

Because combining Al-assisted reference checks with traditional verbal or written references allows HR to triangulate information, capturing both quantitative patterns and human insights.

c)

Because relying solely on Al reduces bias from human evaluators

d)

Because Al can flag inconsistencies or potential red flags in applicant histories, but final judgment should still include human interpretation to ensure fairness and accuracy.

2.

Developed the hierarchy of needs, a theory of human motivation based on fulfilling various needs levels

a)

Abraham Maslow

b)

Mary Parker Follett

c)

Elton Mayo

d)

Douglas McGregor

3.

A large retail company in Manila plans to hire 100 seasonal employees for the Christmas rush. The HR team posts an announcement on social media and quickly receives more than 500 applications. However, many of the applicants either lack the required customer service experience or do not meet the minimum educational background. The HR manager is concerned that screening all 500 applications manually will take too much time, and the company risks not filling the positions before the holiday season. As the HR consultant, why would developing a short online screening test be the BEST next step to address this problem?

a)

Because it ensures fairness in the selection process by giving every applicant a chance to be interviewed.

b)

Because it provides a quick, objective, and standardized way to filter applicants who meet the minimum requirements.

c)

Because it allows the company to immediately invite all applicants to a one-day mass hiring event.

d)

Because it avoids the need to evaluate resumes or educational background at the initial stage.

4.

What does it mean for the employees if they carry out zero-hours contract?

a)

Employers and employees would have less agreements.

b)

Employees with zero-hours contract are paid like the regular employees regardless of their productivity.

c)

It offers work-life balance.

d)

The employers will be able to save money.

5.

A medium-sized company with about 50-60 employees is experiencing very high demand from clients. As a result, employees are overworked, stressed, and showing signs of burnout. As an Industrial/Organizational (/0) Psychology Practitioner, which of the following interventions would be the MOST effective in addressing both the high demand and employee well-being?

a)

Require employees to work overtime until more staff can be hired.

b)

Immediately increase employee salaries to motivate them to work harder.

c)

Conduct a workload analysis, redesign jobs if necessary, and recommend recruitment of additional employees.

d)

Implement stricter monitoring and penalties to ensure maximum productivity.

6.

A medium-sized company in Cebu is rapidly expanding and plans to open two new branches within the year. The Human Resources Department has been tasked with hiring 30 new enmployees across various roles, including administrative staff, customer service representatives, and technical personnel. The HR manager notices that the company has been relying solely on employee referrals and walk-in applicants in the past, which has worked for filling a few positions. However, with the growing demand, this approach is no longer sufficient. The HR team also realizes that their job postings are vague, often just listing "Qualifications: Graduate of any course" without specifying skills or competencies. Some applicants complained during previous recruitment cycles that the job descriptions were unclear, and some who were hired eventually resigned after a few months, citing job mismatch and "unclear expectations." The company wants to avoid repeating these mistakes, since high turnover will slow down its expansion. As an l/o psychology practitioner tasked to improve the recruitment process, what is the most appropriate first step?

a)

Develop structured job postings that highlight organizational culture and employee benefits.

b)

Conduct a systematic job analysis to identify duties, requirements, and competencies.

c)

Create standardized interview protocols to ensure fairness and consistency across applicants.

d)

Establish partnerships with schools and job boards to broaden the applicant pool effectively.

7.

A retail company is experiencing high employee turnovers and low morale. Which organizational model would be most effective addressing these issues through employee engagement strategies?

a)

Organizational culture theory

b)

Scientific management

c)

Systems theory

d)

Structural functionalism

8.

A pharmaceutical company is developing new drug products and needs a structure that allows for rapid decision-making. Which organizational structure would best suit their needs?

a)

Functional structure

b)

Divisional structure

c)

Matrix structure

d)

Team-based structure

9.

An organization is undergoing rapid technological changes, and employees are resistant to adopting new tools. Which change management theory can help facilitate this transition?

a)

Chaos theory

b)

Kotter's 8-step change model

c)

Systems theory

d)

Organizational development theory

10.

What is considerably the main focus of I/O Psychology as a science?

a)

Work-life balance

b)

Manpower management

c)

People at work

d)

Career advocacy and development

11.

A. I/O Psychologists observer behavior of employees at their workplace under well controlled and systematic conditions.

B. I/O Psychologists apply the scientific method in their endeavour inside the boundaries of the workplace.

a)

Only A is true

b)

Only B is true

c)

Both A and B are true

d)

Neither A nor B is true

12.

What is considerably the purpose of I/O Psychology?

a)

To enhance the dignity and performance of human beings

b)

To improve the worth and act of the organization they work in

c)

To advance advancing the science and knowledge of human behaviour

d)

All of the above

13.

I/O psychology is the ____ study of human behaviour concerned with collecting the information regarding human behaviour at ___?

a)

Applied; organization

b)

Systematic; work

c)

Scientific; job

d)

Artful; work

14.

According to I/O psychology, what affects the work of an individual?

a)

Personal circumstances

b)

Work conditions

c)

Both personal and work circumstances

15.

What is arguably and considerably one of the possible applications of research outputs in I/O Psychology?

a)

Personnel administration

b)

Case management

c)

Company operations

d)

Policy implementation

16.

Which of the following is NOT one of the major concerns of I/O psychology

a)

Cultures and traditions

b)

Training and development

c)

Administration and legislation

d)

Leadership and management

17.

I/O Psychology is concerned with the application of information about human behaviour to the various problems of industrial human life. What characteristic of the field is being described?

a)

Systematic

b)

Functional/applied

c)

Scientific

d)

All of the above

18.

It studies the various methods of performing manual operations for the better utilization and the least waste of effort

a)

Industrial psychology

b)

Organizational psychology

c)

Industrial/organizational psychology

d)

Human-factors engineering

19.

Scientific selection and placement of is being done in I/O Psychology through:

a)

Proficient recruitment procedures

b)

Comprehensive psychological assessment

c)

Methodical hiring process

d)

All of the above

20.

Work should be properly divided according to the worker's:

a)

Abilities

b)

Skills/aptitudes

c)

Personality

d)

All of the above

21.

Which intervention strategy carries the highest risk of reducing employee well-being and productivity in the short term due to high levels of uncertainty, job loss fears, and widespread disruption of established norms?

a)

T-Group Sensitivity Training

b)

Job Rotation Programs

c)

Goal Setting and Management by Objectives

d)

Major Restructuring

22.

Which of the following interventions best exemplifies a large-scale organizational change that fundamentally alters the company's formal structure, authority lines, and delegation of power to improve overall effectiveness?

a)

Deploying a new, standardized performance appraisal system across all departments

b)

Conducting a series of workshops focused on improving inter-departmental communication and conflict resolution

c)

Undertaking corporate estructuring, like redefining the organizational chart, departmental boundaries, and formal reporting systems

d)

Implementing an extensive job enrichment program that provides greate autonomy and variety to individual employees

23.

When Jollibee acquired Mang Inasal, it integrated Mang Inasal's grilled menu into its product line while maintaining its own brand identity. What does this show about Jollibee's approach to organizational change?

a)

It focused on cost reduction rather than innovation.

b)

It avoided changes to maintain stability.

c)

It centralized operations to limit product variety.

d)

It used merger and acquisition to expand and adapt.

24.

Samsung quickly adjusts its product designs and prices in response to Apple's latest releases. What driver of change is influencing Samsung's decisions?

a)

Economic downturn

b)

Internal leadership shifts

c)

Government policies

d)

Market competition

25.

A manufacturing company plans to transition to a digital inventory system. The management decides to hire an external consultant to lead the change initiative. Which of the following best explains why this external change agent is an effective choice?

a)

The consultant has previously worked for the company and understands its long-standing practices.

b)

As an outsider, the consultant can provide fresh insights and objective strategies unclouded by internal biases.

c)

The consultant is more invested in maintaining harmony among existing teams than introducing new approaches.

d)

Employees are more likely to trust someone from outside than their current supervisors or managers.

26.

Imagine you are a leader deciding between organizational development and organizational transformation to address declining performance. Which would you choose and why?

a)

Organizational development, because it ensures systematic, continuous improvement.

b)

Organizational transformation, because it drives radical shifts to address systemic issues.

c)

Organizational development, because it emphasizes quick, tactical adjustments.

d)

Organizational transformation, because it avoids the need for long-term planning.

27.

Garden Niyo, a food manufacturing company in the Philippines restructures its packaging process after the government enforces stricter environmental regulations under the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) Act of 2022. Which of the following is the most likely external factor driving this organizational change?

a)

Shifts in consumer preferences for eco-friendly products

b)

New government regulations promoting environmental responsibility

c)

Internal audits identifying inefficiencies in packaging

d)

Competitive pressure from brands already using sustainable materials

28.

What is the primary difference between organizational change and organizational transformation?

a)

Change focuses on short-term tactical adjustments, while transformation addresses fundamental shifts in strategy, culture, and operations.

b)

Change emphasizes strategic growth, while transformation is limited to process adjustments.

c)

Transformation occurs without planning, while change is always systematic.

d)

Change involves leadership changes, while transformation focuses on infrastructure.

29.

How does Organizational Change differ from Organizational Development?

a)

Organizational Change is always gradual, while Organizational Development is immediate.

b)

Organizational Change refers to specific actions or transitions, while Organizational Development is a long-term, systematic process.

c)

Organizational Change focuses on cultural improvement, while Organizational Development focuses only on technical changes.

d)

Organizational Change is planned, while Organizational Development is reactive.

30.

A leader is engaged in a conflict where both parties have moderately important goals. What sitution would explain why a leader be most likely and justified to choose the Accommodation conflict style over the Competition style?

a)

When the issue is critical to the organization's mission.

b)

When maintaining a long-term, positive relationship with the opposing party.

c)

When a rapid, clear decision is needed under extreme time pressure.

d)

When the leader is certain that their position is correct.

31.

Imagine you are managing a workplace conflict where both parties refuse to compromise. Using a Raffy Tulfo-style approach to resolution, which of the following third-party interventions would be most effective?

a)

Facilitate a mediation where both parties are guided to reach mutua understanding through dialogue.

b)

Assign a neutral party to relay messages between sides without direct confrontation.

c)

Step in as an assertive third party, hear both sides publicly, and impose a firm binding solution to resolve the issue.

d)

Allow the parties to resolve the conflict on their own, without any third-party involvement.

32.

Which of the following best illustrates a cause of conflict based on the jurisdictional ambiguity in the Philippine setting?

a)

In the 2025 budget, the education sector received the largest allocation of 1.053 trillion pesos, while the military's modernization program received 35 billion pesos, less than initially proposed.

b)

The Department of Education (DepEd) depends on the Department of Budget and Management (DBM) to release funds for school programs.

c)

A barangay complains about a clogged canal. The LGU says it's the DPWH's job, while DPWH says it belongs to the LGU. No one fixes it because both think the other is responsible

d)

Marcos Jr. and Duterte differ in leadership styles-Marcos being more technocratic, while Duterte prefers a more direct, authoritative approach, leading to clashes in decision-making on government programs.

33.

A team of volunteers is working on organizing a Cordillera youth summit. Most members are focused on logistics, task checklists, and deadlines, but no one is fostering group morale or ensuring that all voices are heard. What should the team leader do to improve the group process?

a)

Encourage members to increase productivity by assigning more task-oriented roles.

b)

Continue with the current setup since task focus ensures faster completion.

c)

Assign or recruit someone to take on a social-oriented role to balance team dynamics.

d)

Reduce the number of meetings to limit interpersonal tension caused by individual

34.

A significant politcal crisis has emerged from a bitter feud between the Senate President and the Speaker of the House, leading to tensions that affect governance. What type of conflict is this?

a)

Interpersonal conflict

b)

Individual-group conflict

c)

Group-group conflict

d)

None of the above

35.

Alex has been asked to organize team meetings for a newly formed project team. He feels anxious, and his teammates are still polite, unsure of their roles, and cautious in their interactions. Based on this situation, which of the following best indicates that the team is in the forming stage of development?

a)

Team members begin to work smoothly toward goals with strong cooperation and high performance.

b)

Team members start to clarify expectations and task assignments

c)

Team members begin to compete for control and decision-making

d)

Team members interact respectfully but remain guarded and uncertain.

36.

A project manager at a La Union-based startup is assessing whether to organize a group of staff as a formal team. The task involves cross-functional input, shared accountability, and regular collaboration. Which of the following best supports calling this group a team?

a)

Each person works independently and focuses mainly on individual performance.

b)

Members often compete for leadership roles and resist shared authority.

c)

Interactions remain formal, and personal input is discouraged.

d)

Members depend on one another's input and skills to achieve a common goal.

37.

Employees feel their skills are underused and see no clear path for growth. How should HRM and HRD work together to respond?

a)

HRM strengthens evaluations; HRD builds training and career plans.

b)

HRM adjusts pay; HRD redesigns the performance system.

c)

HRM ensures legal compliance; HRD offers skills and growth programs.

d)

HRM and HRD jointly hire external trainers for all staff.

38.

When is it recommended to utilize labor relations over employee relations?

a)

When resolving a dispute between two employees over daily task assignments.

b)

When negotiating collective bargaining agreements with an organized union.

c)

When conducting performance reviews and issuing individual feedback.

d)

When implementing internal wellness programs for employee morale.

39.

Which of the following is not an example of one of the steps involved in strategic planning at all levels of an organization?

a)

Determining the organization's short-term purpose and the values that guide its actions.

b)

Conducting a comprehensive analysis of the company's strengths, weaknesses, and external factors.

c)

Setting measurable goals and defining clear directions to achieve organizational success.

d)

Creating a detailed plan of action to allocate resources and execute specific strategies for goal attainment.

40.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of Human Resource Planning (Workforce Planning)?

a)

An HR officer analyzes trends and gaps to plan future staffing.

b)

A manager assigns employees to tasks they personally enjoy, even if they lack the needed skills.

c)

A department head hires contractual workers only during the holiday season to meet customer demand.

d)

An HR manager enforces stricter rules, believing it will solve high turnover across all teams.

41.

A company is planning to make significant changes to its business processes to improve customer service and reduce operational costs. Which of the following best describes the approach the company is likely to use?

a)

Labor Relations

b)

Succession Planning

c)

Compensation System

d)

Reengineering

42.

What is a key difference between Talent Management and HRM?

a)

Talent management handles recruitment; HRM handles promotions.

b)

HRM focuses on hiring; talent management focuses on payroll.

c)

Talent management develops top talent; HRM handles general admin tasks.

d)

HRM and talent management are exactly the same.

43.

Which of the following best describes the difference between training and learning in Human Resource Development (HRD)?

a)

Training is informal and self-directed, while learning is always structured and led by an instructor.

b)

Training focuses on building specific job skills, while learning involves ongoing personal and professional growth.

c)

Training happens outside the organization, while learning takes place only during work hours.

d)

Training happens outside the organization, while learning takes place only during work hours.

44.

Which of the following best distinguishes mentoring from coaching in Human Resource Management?

a)

A senior staff supports a junior over time with career advice, while a supervisor helps an employee meet short-term performance goals.

b)

An employee reads a handbook to learn rules, while another attends a seminar for new skills.

c)

A new hire joins orientation on company culture, while another rotates departments to gain experience.

d)

Two staff collaborate on a project for teamwork, while another completes an online training course alone.

45.

A manager is deciding between employee training and human resource development to address skill gaps within the organization. Which of the following best shows the difference between the two?

a)

Training is for career growth; HRD is for immediate tasks.

b)

HRD uses external programs; training stays in-house

c)

Training is short-term; HRD supports long-term growth.

d)

HRD replaces training through evaluations.

46.

Nestlé wants to improve workforce capabilities. Which of the following reflects Human Resource Development (HRD) rather than Organization Development (OD)?

a)

Rolling out a company-wide change initiative to improve cross-functional collaboration.

b)

Revising the corporate structure to eliminate redundant managerial layers.

c)

Launching an internal review to align team culture with performance goals.

d)

Implementing technical training to build employee competencies for future roles.

47.

What is the key difference between Human Resource Management (HRM) and Human Resource Development (HRD)?

a)

HRM focuses on training and developing employees, while HRD involves broader management functions like recruitment and payroll.

b)

HRM is concerned with managing people within an organization, while HRD focuses on enhancing employee skills, growth, and career development.

c)

HRD emphasizes employee retention, while HRM focuses on employee termination processes.

d)

HRM deals with organizational strategies, while HRD only handles legal compliance.

48.

A weaving enterprise in Conner, Apayao plans to expand to urban markets like Baguio and Manila. Which approach best reflects a well-aligned strategy across product, money, people, and process to support successful market entry?

a)

Refines product designs to match urban tastes, retaining current pricing and production methods for consistency.

b)

Broadens product offerings to increase market reach, building on the business's creative strengths.

c)

Redesigns products for urban markets, allocates funds for marketing and logistics, trains staff, and upgrades operations.

d)

Accelerates product launches to build momentum and capture early sales opportunities.

49.

ln a Benguet food processing facility, tasks are unclear and staff roles overlap, leading to frequent errors. What needs improvement?

a)

Product and money

b)

Process and product

c)

People and process

d)

Process and money

50.

Why is it important for a company like SM Corporation to align its organizational structure with its strategy of diversification across retail banking, and property?

a)

It allows the company to focus solely on one core industry, minimizing operational complexity.

b)

It ensures that each business segment operates independently, without coordination or resource sharing.

c)

It enables specialization and accountability within each business unit, supporting the diverse strategy.

d)

It simplifies decision-making by consolidating all business activities under a single leadership team.

51.

Given the importance of coordinated disaster response in the Philippines, why would a network structure be more effective for disaster risk management than a hierarchical structure?

a)

It promotes coordination among independent organizations and allows flexibility in responding to diverse needs.

b)

It enables centralized control over all operations to ensure uniformity in response efforts across agencies.

c)

It reduces external collaboration to prevent conflicting protocols from different organizations.

d)

It assigns specific disaster types to agencies, minimizing the need for cross-sector coordination.

52.

In the context of reducing corruption in the Philippine government, what organizational change could improve accountability and transparency within a hierarchical structure?

a)

Introducing more levels of management to ensure clear authority and control.

b)

Encouraging a decentralized approach where each department has more autonomy.

c)

Shifting toward a flatter structure with clearer reporting lines and fewer bureaucratic hurdles.

d)

Creating separate departments with conflicting policies to prevent coordination problems.

53.

What is a potential consequence of the Philippine government's decentralization of services to local government units (LGUs) through the Mandanas Ruling?

a)

It increases centralization by empowering regional offices to make decisions independently.

b)

It may result in the duplication of resources as each LGU operates with more autonomy.

c)

It eliminates the need for collaboration between national and local governments.

d)

It leads to the immediate resolution of inefficiencies in government service delivery.

54.

It is defined as a set of propositions that explain or predict how groups and individuals behave in varying organizational structures and circumstances.

a)

Organizational Theory

b)

Classical Theory

c)

Systems Theory

d)

Motivation Theory

55.

Which of the following is not a basic component of Classical Theory?

a)

A system of differentiated activities

b)

People

c)

Authority

d)

Input and Output

56.

Functional is to ______ as Scalar is to ______.

a)

Horizontal; Vertical

b)

Vertical; Horizontal

c)

Horizontal; Horizontal

d)

Vertical; Vertical

57.

This refers to the number of subordinates a manager is responsible for supervising.

a)

Span of control

b)

Staff function

c)

Division of labor

d)

Unity of command

58.

In this framework, the organization is viewed as a machine—a pragmatic machine whose focus is simply to run more effectively.

a)

Scientific Management

b)

Bureaucracy

c)

Administrative Management

d)

Neo-classical

59.

He developed a relatively universal set of organizing principles for managers to apply in organizations.

a)

Frederick Taylor

b)

Max Weber

c)

Henri Fayol

d)

Tom Holland

60.

He conducted the Hawthorne Studes, highlighting the importance of social factors and informal groups in influencing worker behavior.

a)

Douglas McGregor

b)

Abraham Maslow

c)

Elton Mayo

d)

Mary Parker Follett

61.

Proposed Theory X and Theory Y, contrasting assumptions about employees and suggesting management approaches based on trust and empowerment

a)

Abraham Maslow

b)

Elton Mayo

c)

Douglas McGregor

d)

Mary Parker Follett

62.

Pioneered participative management, encouraging employee involvement in decision-making

a)

Robert House

b)

Mary Parker Follett

c)

Henri Fayol

d)

Douglas McGregor

63.

Which of the following is not typically recognized as one of the core functions of a manager?

a)

Planning

b)

Commanding

c)

Controlling

d)

Cooperating

64.

An employee receives instructions from only one manager to avoid confusion in completing a task. This example BEST refers to which principle of Administrative Management?

a)

Unity of Command

b)

Unity of Direction

c)

Division of Work

d)

Scalar Chain

65.

This theory recognizes the importance of individual or group behavior and emphasizes human relations.

a)

Neo-classical Theory

b)

Classical Theory

c)

Systems Theory

d)

Motivation Theory

66.

Which theory is based on the idea that we compare the ratios of what we bring to a situation and what we get out of it with what others bring to and get out of the situation?

a)

Expectancy Theory

b)

Equity Theory

c)

Goal-Setting Theory

d)

Needs Theory

67.

Which of the following is not a recommended way to resolve underpayment inequity?

a)

Increasing outcomes

b)

Decreasing inputs

c)

Changing the comparison other

d)

Decreasing outcomes

68.

These individuals are altruistic and are relatively content with receiving lower outcomes for their inputs.

a)

Benevolents

b)

Givers

c)

Equity-sensitives

d)

Two of the options are correct

69.

Which organizational theory traces its origins to the biological sciences?

a)

Neo-classical Theory

b)

Classical Theory

c)

Systems Theory

d)

Motivation Theory

70.

Which of the following is not a key element of Open Systems Theory?

a)

Input

b)

Throughput

c)

Output

d)

Entropy

71.

According to this theory, there is no particular managerial action or organizational design that is appropriate for all situations.

a)

Contingency Theory

b)

Classical Theory

c)

Systems Theory

d)

Motivation Theory

72.

This refers to the division of labor as well as the patterns of coordination, communication, workflow, and formal power that direct organizational activities, and arrangement of work functions within an organization designed to achieve efficiency and control.

a)

Organizational Theory

b)

Organizational Structure

c)

HRM

d)

HRD

73.

This occurs when an employee assumes more responsibility over their tasks.

a)

Job Enrichment

b)

Job Enlargement

c)

Job Rotation

d)

Job Crafting

74.

Which type of departmentalization allows an organization to handle regional issues more effectively and efficiently?

a)

Functional

b)

Product

c)

Geographic

d)

Customer

75.

Which of the following best helps employees answer questions such as “Who do I go to if I have a problem?” or “To whom am I responsible?”

a)

Delegation

b)

Span of Control

c)

Centralization

d)

Chain of command

76.

The degree to which decision-making power rests at the upper levels of the organizational hierarchy.

a)

Decentralization

b)

Centralization

c)

Focused

d)

Slanted

77.

This is the most common organizational structure in which employees are grouped, with every employee having one clear supervisor.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Functional

c)

Matrix

d)

Divisional

78.

A disadvantage of this organizational structure is the possibility of silos within the organization.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Functional

c)

Line

d)

Divisional

79.

There are usually two chains of command in this organizational structure.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Functional

c)

Network

d)

Matrix

80.

A flat organizational structure has a/an:

a)

Long chain of command & narrow span of control

b)

Long chain of command & wide span of control

c)

Short chain of command & wide span of control

d)

Short chain of command & narrow span of control

81.

One of the main forces pushing toward this kind of organizational structure is the recognition that an organization has only a few core competencies.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Matrix

c)

Network

d)

Divisional

82.

In this organizational structure, failure of one company does not threaten the existence of the others.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Matrix

c)

Network

d)

Divisional

83.

This refers to the utilization of individuals to achieve organizational objectives.

a)

Human Resources Development

b)

Human Resources Management

c)

Organizational Development

d)

Employee Training

84.

Who among the following performs tasks in a variety of HR-related areas?

a)

Executive

b)

Specialist

c)

Generalist

d)

Admin

85.

It is the process through which an organization ensures that it always has the proper number of employees with the appropriate skills in the right jobs, at the right time, to achieve organizational objectives.

a)

Job Analysis

b)

HR Planning

c)

Recruitment

d)

Staffing

86.

This refers to the systematic process of matching the internal and external supply of people with job openings anticipated in the organization over a specified period.

a)

Job Analysis

b)

HR Planning

c)

Recruitment

d)

Selection

87.

This refers to pay that a person receives in the form of wages, salaries, commissions, and bonuses.

a)

Benefits

b)

Indirect Financial Compensation

c)

Core Compensation

d)

Two of the options are correct

88.

This refers to how fair the job’s pay rate is when compared to other jobs within the same company.

a)

External Equity

b)

Internal Equity

c)

Individual Equity

d)

Procedural Equity

89.

A formal system of review and evaluation of individual or team task performance.

a)

Labor relations

b)

Performance Appraisal

c)

Performance Management

d)

Career Development

90.

These comprise the HRM activities associated with the movement of employees within the organization, such as promotions, demotions, terminations, and resignations.

a)

HR Planning

b)

Labor Relations

c)

Internal Employee Relations

d)

Performance Management

91.

This is a continuous development function that intends to improve the performance of people working in the organization.

a)

Human Resources Development

b)

Human Resources Management

c)

Organizational Development

d)

Employee Training

92.

This is designed to provide learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their present jobs.

a)

Development

b)

Training

c)

Career Planning

d)

Career Development

93.

A formal approach used by the organization to ensure that people with the proper qualifications and experiences are available when needed.

a)

Career Planning

b)

Career Development

c)

Organizational Development

d)

Employee Training

94.

People with this kind of occupational orientation are attracted to occupations that involve physical activities requiring skill, strength, and coordination.

a)

Realistic

b)

Investigative

c)

Artistic

d)

Conventional

95.

People with an enterprising occupational orientation are also known as:

a)

Thinkers

b)

Helpers

c)

Persuaders

d)

Organizers

96.

______ is a procedure for providing new employees with basic background information about the firm.

a)

Onboarding

b)

Orientation

c)

Training

d)

Two of the options are correct

97.

Which of the following is not a step in the ADDIE model?

a)

Analyzing

b)

Directing

c)

Developing

d)

Evaluating

98.

Who proposed the widely recognized stages of group development known as Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and later Adjourning?

a)

Lewin

b)

Tuckman

c)

Herzberg

d)

Maslow

99.

Flight attendants are an example of what type of work teams?

a)

Production Teams

b)

Advisory Teams

c)

Management Teams

d)

Service Teams

100.

What term describes actions in which a company alters a major component of its organization, such as structure, strategy, or processes?

a)

Organizational Development

b)

Organizational Change

c)

Organizational Transition

d)

Organizational Behavior

101.

Which type of change occurs when the individual is forced to respond to a change initiated by others rather than taking the initiative themselves?

a)

Self-Initiated Change

b)

Evolutionary Change

c)

Imposed Change

d)

Revolutionary Change

102.

The goal of this step is to reduce the forces that are striving to maintain the status quo.

a)

Unfreezing

b)

Moving

c)

Refreezing

d)

Defrosting

103.

This is a planned, organization-wide effort to increase organizational effectiveness through behavioral science knowledge and technology.

a)

Organizational Development

b)

Organizational Change

c)

Organizational Transition

d)

Human Resources Development

104.

In Carnall’s (2008) Five Stages of Major Organizational Change, which stage occurs when employees start to believe that change will actually happen and become defensive, justifying their previous ways of working?

a)

Denial

b)

Defense

c)

Discarding

d)

Exploration

105.

Which type of organizational change involves reducing the size of an organization?

a)

Downsizing change

b)

De-merger change

c)

Structural change

d)

Relocation change

106.

What type of organizational change involves making corrections or improvements to existing systems, processes, and structures to increase efficiency and effectiveness?

a)

Developmental Change

b)

Transformational Change

c)

Process and System Change

d)

Remedial Change

107.

______ is a procedure for providing new employees with basic background information about the firm.

a)

Onboarding

b)

Orientation

c)

Training

d)

Two of the options are correct

108.

A formal approach used by the organization to ensure that people with the proper qualifications and experiences are available when needed.

a)

Career Planning

b)

Career Development

c)

Organizational Development

d)

Employee Training

109.

It is the process through which an organization ensures that it always has the proper number of employees with the appropriate skills in the right jobs, at the right time, to achieve organizational objectives.

a)

Job Analysis

b)

HR Planning

c)

Recruitment

d)

Staffing

110.

In this organizational structure, failure of one company does not threaten the existence of the others.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Matrix

c)

Network

d)

Divisional

111.

This is the most common organizational structure in which employees are grouped, with every employee having one clear supervisor.

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Functional

c)

Matrix

d)

Divisional

112.

Cherry Fer, a growing company, is looking to expand its operations in a rapidly changing industry. Management is choosing an organizational model. Which option best represents the strategic approach derived from Modern Organizational Theory that is vital for the company's success in this environment?

a)

Prioritizing formal rules and hierarchical authority to ensure disciplined behavior and consistent application of standards.

b)

Standardizing and optimizing individual tasks to achieve maximum technical efficiency and predictable output consistency

c)

Maintaining internal flexibility and open systems thinking to adapt organizational structure and processes to environmental volatility and strategic growth needs.

d)

Centralizing all key planning and decision-making to reduce confusion and strengthen top-down control during the expansion phase

113.

A software development company is struggling with project delays, unclear *1/1 leadership, and declining team morale. The teams are composed of highly skilled professionals who value autonomy but still require occasional guidance to stay aligned with organizational goals. Management is exploring leadership approaches to enhance motivation and effectiveness. Which of the following best explains why empowering team members to lead collaboratively would be effective in this context?

a)

Because it allows leaders to adjust their approach based on team needs, offering the right mix of support and direction.

b)

Because it emphasizes employee well-being and growth, with leaders acting as mentors and facilitators.

c)

Because it enables team members to share leadership roles, use their expertise and maintain autonomy while staying aligned with goals.

d)

Because it matches the leader's natural style with the team's performance and relationship structure.

114.

After every session, the lecturer in your review center regularly asks for feedback and uses it to improve future sessions. Imagine that this lecturer is an organization, which organizational theory best describes this approach?

a)

Motivational Theory

b)

Scientific Management Theory

c)

Human Relations Theory

d)

Open Systems Theory

115.

According to Max Weber, which characteristic best reflects Bureaucracy within an organization?

a)

Frequent use of temporary project teams and flexible reporting lines

b)

A clearly defined hierarchy supported by formal, written rules and procedures

c)

Decentralized decision-making among autonomous work groups

d)

Employment and promotion based on personal connections and social standing

116.

Which of the following keywords best describes the focus of Classical Management Theory?

a)

Structure, hierarchy, and efficiency

b)

Employee satisfaction and motivation

c)

Adaptability and flexibility in changing environments

d)

Focus on the human belonging needs of employees

117.

Industrial-Organizational Psychology covers concepts such as motivation, leadership, and organizational structure. Which of the following best applies the principles of organizational theory?

a)

While most national agencies follow strict protocols, the National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC) adjusts its actions based on the situation.

b)

Topo, a member of the Philippine National Police, reports to two superiors-the Regional Director and the Director of the Intelligence Unit -as part of his assignment in the Cordillera region.

c)

In January 2021, Shopee faced issues with delivery riders complaining about delayed salaries, unpaid incentives, and the non-payment of accident insurance.

d)

When Vince Dizon served as head of the Bases Conversion and Development Authority (BCDA), he pushed for the development of New Clark City and the transfer of part of its operations from Metro Manila to Clark.

118.

Which of the following best differentiates the industrial side from the organizational side of I/0 Psychology?

a)

The industrial side focuses on improving employee well-being, while the organizational side deals with hiring and training.

b)

The industrial side focuses on individual performance and job analysis, while the organizational side deals with motivation, leadership, and culture.

c)

The industrial side studies group dynamics, while the organizational side measures employee performance.

d)

The industrial side is concerned with management, while the organizational side is about labor unions.

119.

What is considerably the purpose of I/O psychology?

a)

To enhance the dignity and performance of human beings

b)

To improve the worth and act of the organizations they work in

c)

To advance advancing the science and knowledge of human behavior

d)

All of the above

120.

A. I/O psychologisits observe behavior of employees at their workplace under well controlled and systematic conditions.
B. I/O psychologists apply the scientific method in their endeavor inside the boundaries of the workplace.

a)

Only A is TRUE

b)

Only B is TRUE

c)

Both A and B are TRUE

d)

Neither A nor B is TRUE

121.

Which of the following is NOT one of the major concerns of I/O psychology?

a)

Cultures and traditions

b)

Training and development

c)

Administration and legislation

d)

Leadership and management

122.

Work should be properly divided according to the worker's :

a)

abilities

b)

skills/aptitude

c)

personality

d)

all of the above

123.

A. Most of the problems aeise in the industries are connceted to human relation
B. If workers' feel at ease with their surroundings, then automatically they got motivated, and productivity will be higher

a)

Only A is TRUE

b)

Only B is TRUE

c)

Both A and B are TRUE

d)

Neither A nor B is TRUE

124.

How is industrial relations developed?

a)

By studying the attitudes of the workers and the employees

b)

By examining the thoughts, feelings, and behavior of the people at work

c)

By adopting different measures to solve problems relating to worker's experience

d)

None of the above

125.

Time and motions studies aim to:

a)

Identify the amount of time required to perform a single task

b)

Identify the amount of energy needed to perform a task in the quickest possible time

c)

Improve efficiency of manufacturing industries by improving productivity of workers

d)

All of the above

126.

Which of the following factors contributed to the development of I/O psychology as a science?

a)

Industrialization

b)

High Birthrate

c)

Education and urban growth

d)

All of the above

127.

Munsterberg was the author of which book that is highly influential to the development of I/O psychology as a science?

(a)  

128.

How does Hawthorne Effect apply in the industrial and organizational setting?

a)

Existence of informal employee work groups and their controls on production

b)

Importance of employee attitudes

c)

Value of having a symphatetic and understanding supervisor

d)

All of the above

129.

Olene was hired as a cashier in a company in spite of the fact that she has a bachelor's degree in psychology. Upon restructuring of the organization, her job was refesigned under the human resource office. This is what aspect of I/O psychology?

a)

Selection and placement

b)

Training and development

c)

Organizational development

d)

Performance appraisal

130.

How should a proper performance appraisal be done on the onset?

a)

Identify criteria or standards for determining performances

b)

Identify key persons that need to be evaluated and the ones who will evaluate

c)

Identify specific jobs and its requirements for evaluation

d)

All of the above

131.

Organizational development is highly important aspect of any workforce for what specific reason?

a)

Organizational structure analysis

b)

Satisfaction of the employees and its customers/clients

c)

Effectiveness of the entire organization itsself

d)

All of the above

132.

Which of the following is the study and practice of personnel psychology?

a)

Cultivating healthy organizational culture

b)

Job analysis

c)

Maintaining balance between work and personal life

d)

All of the above

133.

A. Research in I/O psychology showed that people who demonstrate success early in their career are more likely to be promoted than those who are less successful early in their career
B. There is also a positive relationship between the level of initial job challenge and later success for employees in a variety of occupations in many different organizations

a)

Only A is TRUE

b)

Only B is TRUE

c)

Both A and B are TRUE

d)

Neither A nor B is true

134.

Which of the following common preferences among employees arguably could lead to a more stable and productive job performance?

a)

challenging, interesting, and meaningful work

b)

high salary

c)

opportunities for advancement

d)

job security

135.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the recruitment process?

a)

It aims at developing and marinating adequate supply of labor force according to the need of the organization

b)

To provide sufficiently large group of qualified candidates, so that suitable candidates can be selected out of them

c)

Preparing the right kind of candidate on the right job

d)

It facilitates the maximum pool of candidate with minimum cost

136.

Which od the ff internal factors affect most significantly the manpower of the HR operations in terms of the recruitment process?

a)

Organizational strategy

b)

Organizational size

c)

Recruitment policy

d)

Cost incurred

137.

A certain company requires more prodessional to perfor various jobs to meet the demands of their clients. However, there is a very little supply in the market to meet their demand. How should the company deal with this?

a)

increase the production by extending work hours of the employees

b)

outsource manpower to meet the demand

c)

provide special training and development programs for the emplotees to meet the demands

d)

none of the above

138.

Which of the following factor can misleadingly confound the recruitment process; i.e., a recuiter based his/her initial impression of the applicant's look

a)

economic status

b)

personality style

c)

physical attractiveness

d)

overall being

139.

In performing job analysis, which of the following is NOT included?

a)

Information about the tools or equipments used

b)

The cost used by the organization during the recuirtment process

c)

The operations being performed

d)

The education and training required

140.

Which of the following is NOT true about the selection process

a)

it investigates the nature of the job

b)

it determines the most effective menas of identifying characteristics in potential employees

c)

it identify how potential employees are sourced

d)

it performs other recruitment decisions based on the organizational structure

141.

Mon's company selection process involves using a psychological test with a norm based from their satisfactory performing employees' scores on the said test. What selection technique is being described?

(a)  

142.

Jinji was hired in a company for the position she applied in despite of having a mismatched qualification. As a result, the production of her department deteriorated. This is an example of what selection?

(a)  

143.

You are conducting a job analysis for a specific position. You want to know how the work or job is being performed specifically by the employees holding such position. What technique is then deemed to be best in this situation?

(a)  

144.

What is a "true negative" selection process?

a)

Individuals who were correctly selected for hire because they became successful employees

b)

Individuals who were correctly rejected for employment because they would have been unsuccessful employees

c)

Individuals who were incorrectly rejected for employment because they would have successful employees

d)

Individuals who were incorrectly accepted for employement because they were unsuccessful employees

145.

It is a method of assessing individuals in which information pertaining to past activities, interests, and behaviors in their lives is recorded

a)

biodata

b)

application blank

c)

biographical inventory

d)

all of the above

146.

A. The nature of work in the twenty-first century has significant impact on the importance of organizational training programs.

B. Training programs must be related to job performance before their results can be applied to career decisions

a)

Only A is TRUE

b)

Only B is TRUE

c)

Both A and B are true

d)

Neither A nor B is true

147.

Which of the following is NOT true about training?

a)

To increase productivity

b)

Organizations whould improve the quality of work

c)

It helps in creating skill inventory by which a company fulfill its future personnel needs

d)

Inspiring junior executives to do better work

148.

Which of the ff is a TRUE difference between training and development?

a)

Training is a short-term process while development is long term in nature

b)

Training gives conceptual/theoretical knowledge while development give technical knowledge and skills

c)

Training involves only managerial personnel while development is designed for both managerial and non-manegerial personnel

d)

Training has a broader overview and consider general knowledge while development is specific and has job related purpose

149.

Which of the following is NOT an importance of training and development

a)

optimum utilization for workforce

b)

healthy administrative functions

c)

porductiviity and profitability

d)

team spirit

150.

Training and development helps building the positive perception and feeling about the organization. The empoyees get these feelings from leaders, subordinates, and peers. This is called?

(a)  

151.

What is considered to be the first step in formulating a training program?

a)

organizational analysis

b)

task analysis

c)

person analysis

d)

none of theseeee

152.

It refers to the degree of similarity between knowledge, skills, and abilities learned in training and the KSAs needed to perform the job

(a)  

153.

Which of the ff is NOT part of the pre-training environment?

a)

National and international policies

b)

Supervisor attitudes towards training

c)

Resources available for training

d)

Employee participation in needs assessment

154.

Who among the ff has arguably a decisive role in enhancing the training program?

a)

Managers

b)

Supervisors

c)

Trainees

d)

All of the above

155.

Which of the ff is an extrincis factor that affects the employee's participation in a training program?

a)

JOb involvement

b)

Self-efficacy

c)

Locus of control

d)

Pre-training expectations

156.

It is a new approach to management training that involves one-to-one training sessions in which a coach works with a manager to improve a particular aspect of manager's job performance.

(a)  

157.

In this stage, people may change in interests, values, and lifestyle which ultimately affect their career decision making.

(a)  

158.

Which of the ff is NOT true about Holland's typology?

a)

There are 6 basic types of work environments: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional

b)

People search for environments where they can use their skills and abilities and express their values and attitudes

c)

People who choose to work in an environment which is very challenging to their personality type are more likely to be succesful and satisfied.

d)

How one's act and feel at work depends to a large extent on one's workplace (or skul) environment.

159.

Performance management is done through which procedure?

a)

Appraisal

b)

Evaluation

c)

Assessment

d)

All of the above

160.

Which of the ff is NOT true about the objectives of performance management?

a)

To give feedback to the employees about their past performance

b)

To find out any gap between actual and the desired performance of the employees

c)

Provide clarity of the expectations and responsibilities of the functions to be performed by the employees

d)

To provide sanctions to the grieveances of the employees

161.

Which of the ff is NOT a purpose of performance appraisal?

a)

validation of employee selection techniques

b)

employee improvement

c)

administrative functions

d)

to supply information to management for personnel decisions

162.

A. Performance apprasial enhances the quality of organizational and individual decisions

B. Performance apprasial provides a rational, legally defensible basis for personnel decisions

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

163.

It aims to make the organization run more smoothly by contributing in ways that go beyond one's particular job. What component of Performance Appraisal is being described?

(a)  

164.

Which among the ff methods reduces supervisory biases?

a)

critical incident method

b)

group appraisal method

c)

field review

d)

graphic rating scale

165.

In this method the performance appraisal of the employees is judged in terms of cost and contribution of the employees.

(a)  

166.

Which of the ff is the main objectives of Management by Objectives (MBO)?

a)

participative goal setting

b)

alternative course of action

c)

informed decision-making

d)

all of the aboveeeee

167.

ASsessment center is a comprehensive performance appraisal method which includes what?

a)

psychological tests

b)

business games

c)

simulated exercies

d)

all of the above

168.

In this error, the rater assesses a disproportionately large number of rates as performing well (positive leniency) or poorly (negative leniency) in contrast to their true level of performance

(a)  

169.

Which of the ff is TRUE about improving performance evaluation?

a)

Employees should not be allowed to particiapte actively in the evaluation process

b)

The post-evaluation interviewer should adopt an evasive attitude so as not to taint the result

c)

The interviewer should focus on personal characteristics of the employees in order to further improve his/her task perforamance

d)

The employee and the supervisor should establish jointly specific goals to be achieved in the period before the next evaluation.

170.

Which of the ff is considered as intrinsic motivation in the workforce?

a)

financial security

b)

satisfaction from work

c)

fringe benefits

d)

promotion

171.

A. According to Acquired Needs Theory, the need to achieve as an adult is influenced by the reinforcement of behavior received as a child when a child is encouraged to do things independently.

B. According to the Hierarchy of Needs Theory, if a child is reinforced for warm, human relationships, then the need for affiliation as an adult develops.

a)

Only A is true

b)

Only B is true

c)

Both A and B are true

d)

Neither A nor B is true

172.

Which among the following is an example of a Hygiene Need based Motivator-Hygiene Theory?

a)

achievement

b)

recognition

c)

career advancement

d)

none of the above

173.

A. The assumptions of Theory X are that most poeple will avoid work because they don't like it and must be threatened or persuaded to put forth adequate effort.

B. The assumptions of Theory Y are that work is very natural to people and that most people are self-directed to achieve objectives to which they are committed.

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

174.

In Hackman and Oldham's Job-Characteristics Theory, which job characteristic has the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole, identifiable piece of work?

(a)  

175.

Which of the ff is NOT true about redesigning based on Job-Characteristic Theory?

a)

Combine small, specialized tasks to form larger work units to enhance skill variety and task identity

b)

Arrange tasks in natural, meaningful work units to promote worker responsibility - this will enhance task identity and task significance

c)

Allow workers to directly interact with clients or end users to enhance skill variety, autonomy and feedback

d)

Provide workers the opportunity to learn from performance evaluation results

176.

How would Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy (VIE) Theory explain human behavior in the workplace?

a)

worker's expectations about their ability to accomplish something will affect their success in accomplishing it

b)

expected use of work-related resources are important in determining improved performance among workers

c)

worker's aptitudes and abilities and their expectation from their work environment are significant element in performing one's job

d)

all of the above

177.

Expectancy theory as a specific component of VIE Theory is based on what?

a)

individual's effort

b)

actual performance

c)

the desirability of outcomes

d)

all of the above

178.

What is valence called in the context of VIE theory?

a)

the value of or preference for a particular outcome

b)

the amount of effort of an individual to achieve a goal

c)

the capacity of the individual to perform a task

d)

the degree of attractiveness of a task relative to the individual

179.

How does valence being determined as per VIE Theory?

a)

people will ask themselves whether or not they can accomplish a goal

b)

people's view of how important is the goal to them (in the immediate as well as the long term)

c)

perception of what course of action will provide the greatest reward

d)

all of the above

180.

Which of the ff can VIE theory be applied in the context of the work environment?

a)

incentive system

b)

stock ownership

c)

achievement recognition schemes

d)

all of the above

181.

What is "equity" in the workplace according to J. Stacy Adams?

a)

congruence between inputs and outputs

b)

lack of favoritism toward one side or another

c)

the practice of giving an employee what is their due

d)

all of the above

182.

Which of the ff is an example of Outputs based on Adam's Equity Theoy?

a)

benefits

b)

working conditions

c)

status symbols

d)

all of the above

183.

What is distributive justice?

a)

manifested by providing knowledge about procedures that demonstrate regard for people's concern

b)

the fairness wiht which people are treated within an organization and the timelines. completeness and accuracy of information received in an organization

c)

the fairness with which the outcomes or results are distributed among members of an organization

d)

none of the above

184.

Which of the ff is NOT TRUE about Locke and Latham's Goal-Setting Theory?

a)

easier goals lead to higher levels of job performance

b)

the more specific the goal, the more concentrated the person's effort in its pursuit and the more directed the behavior

c)

the more difficult and specific the goal, the greater is the motivation to attain it

d)

the theory assumes people set acceptable target objectives and then channel their efforts in pursuit of them

185.

A. B.F Skinner was a highly controversial cognitive psychologist known for his work in operant conditioning and behavior modification.

B. His reinforcement theories take into consideration both motivation and the environment, focusing on stimulus and response relationships

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

186.

A salesman who sometimes get paid after each sale and at other times, after two or three sales. What type of reinforcement schedule is being described?

(a)  

187.

Which of the following is an example of fixed ratio schedule?

a)

a virtual assisstant who gets paid on an hourly basis

b)

a hospital employee who gets flexible bonus

c)

a real estate agent who gets a commission after each sale

d)

none of the above

188.

Sayeed however, of the same company, believes that he must remain with the organization due to the time, expense and effort he has to put into it or the difficulty he would have in finding another job. What organizational commitment is it?

(a)  

189.

Which of the following factors significantly affect job satisfaction of an employee

a)

length of the job experience

b)

emotional stability

c)

social status

d)

all of the above

190.

A. Changes in job status (promotion), pay, working conditions, and relationships with coworkers are all very important factors to job satisfaction

B. Job satisfaction and life satisfaction are negatively correlated.

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

191.

A. Members in a team interact by exchanging information, sharing resources and coordinating with and reacting to one another in the cause of accomplishing the group task

B. There is always some degree of interdependence within the members of the team as well as interdependence among different teams in an organization

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

192.

Teams are one means of performing work and one way to differentiate teams is by their?

a)

objectives

b)

structure

c)

composition

d)

membership

193.

A type of team focused on executing a well-defined plan or objective

a)

problem-resolution team

b)

creative team

c)

tactical team

d)

ad hoe team

194.

A type of team focused on developing innovative possibilities or solutions

a)

ad hoe team

b)

problem-resolution team

c)

tactical team

d)

creative team

195.

What does a Parallel or Cross-Functional Team do?

a)

consists of representatives from various department within an organization

b)

formed to produce onetime outputs

c)

provides general directions and assisstance to other teams

d)

members interact through electronic communication and mat never meet face to face

196.

A. To form a group, there should be at least two ro more individuals involved

B. There is no maximum limit of the group

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

197.

In a very large group, which of the following could suffer significantly?

a)

communication

b)

organization

c)

structure

d)

relationships

198.

Which of the ff plays a major role in a formation of FORMAL TEAM or GROUP?

a)

company rules and regulations

b)

administrative requirements

c)

interactions among members

d)

merit system and membership

199.

Which of the ff plays a major role in a formation of an INFORMAL TEAM or GROUP?

a)

company rules and regulations

b)

administrative requirement

c)

interactions among members

d)

merit system and membership

200.

What is arguably the main purpose of making a team or group?

a)

improving individual performance

b)

increasing production

c)

ccultivating organizational dynamics

d)

achieving a set of objective

201.

What is considerably the most important criterion in selecting/designating a group leader?

a)

output

b)

performance

c)

experience in the company

d)

scope of connection

202.

Which of the ff is TRUE about team dynamics?

a)

Only selected members of the group forms collective identity

b)

All memebrs of the group should feel that they part of the group

c)

Privileged members should be made aware about their membership

d)

Groups are made to increase compnay production and sales

203.

What is the purpose of group norms?

a)

set of rules or guidelines of accepted behavior

b)

to monitor the behavior of its members

c)

to define how operation and transaction should work

d)

all of the above

204.

It is the degree to which group members are attached to each other and are motivated to reside in the group

a)

group cohesiveness

b)

group composition

c)

group structure

d)

group organization

205.

What is the ultimate goal of group membership?

a)

member's well defined self-identity

b)

member's sense of esteem

c)

member's ease in performing the job

d)

none of the above

206.

Differences in behalf can pose certain challenges in group membership. What source of diversity could this come from?

a)

ethnicity

b)

gender of diversity

c)

culture

d)

all of the above

207.

Since members of a group have a diverse background, what factor is considered most important when it comes to grouping methods?

a)

personality characteristics

b)

mental ability

c)

aptitude

d)

values

208.

Which of the ff is NOT a function of a leader?

a)

responsible for the overall perforamnce of the team

b)

ensure that the best use is made of each team member's potential

c)

corrects mistakes of the individual members to achieve the goal of the team

d)

influences the way in which team effort is applied

209.

A group leader seeks to impose some pattern on the outcome of team activities. This is a role of the leader as a:

a)

innovator

b)

shaper

c)

trend setter

d)

follower

210.

A team is designed to get things done by turning concepts and plans into practical working procedures. What function of a team is being described?

a)

creator

b)

finisher

c)

completer

d)

worker

211.

A team advances new ideas and strategies and looks for possible new ways to address problems. This is a function of a?

a)

creator

b)

finisher

c)

completer

d)

worker

212.

How does a leader perform its duties as a team facilitator?

a)

Supports members in their strengths

b)

Helps compensate for their weaknesses

c)

Improves team communication

d)

All of the above

213.

Which of the following is NOT included in Homan's Theory of Group Formation?

a)

activities

b)

dynamics

c)

interactions

d)

sentiments

214.

Which of the ff is NOT true about exchange theory?

a)

It is based upon the cost outcomes of interactions

b)

Individual in a group interact with one another not just in a physical propinquity sense, but also to achieve many group goals.

c)

Rewards from interactions gratify needs

d)

Cost incur anxiety, fatigue, frustration

215.

At this stage of group formation, the group generates critical information necessary to solve the problem at hand.

a)

latent

b)

adaptation

c)

integration

d)

goal attainment

216.

Balance theory of group formation states that person are attracted to one another on the basis of similar attitudes toward commodity, relevant object and:

a)

propinquity

b)

similarity

c)

goal

d)

value

217.

During the forming stage, which of the following is a major concern?

a)

decision making

b)

cohesiveness

c)

conflict resolution

d)

none of the above

218.

Janine's group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior. This is what stage of group development?

a)

forming

b)

storming

c)

norming

d)

performing

219.

A. Group development is complete after performing
B. Adjourning is not a formal stage of group development

a)

ONLY A IS TRUE

b)

ONLY B IS TRUE

c)

BOTH A AND B ARE TRUE

d)

NEITHER A NOR B IS TRUE

220.

Which of the ff is NOT a characteristic of an informal group?

a)

Created and maintained to fulfill specific needs or task of the organization

b)

Communications flow in all direction especially horizontal

c)

Authority is given by the group members

d)

Group members behavior are regulated by their own norms, values, and veliefb

221.

Task or command group are created in an organization to solve what kind of concern or issue?

a)

social loafing

b)

decreased in sales

c)

absenteeism

d)

all of the above

222.

Individuals joins a vocational group primarily to

a)

make a living

b)

satisfy the need for companionship of others

c)

gain prestige

d)

all of the above

223.

A group created for an organizational purpose also made its members feel the sense of belongingness. This most likely will make the group well formed. What factor does play in this scenario?

a)

security

b)

autonomy

c)

companionship

d)

personal development

224.

By joining a group, individuals can reduce the feeling of "standing alone". People feel stronger, have fewer self-doubts and are more resistant to threats when they are part of a group. Therefore, group provides:

a)

affiliation

b)

power

c)

security

d)

status

225.

Sarah primarily holds good working relationships among her colleagues as the source of her job satisfaction. Hence, it is very important for her to have what is her company?

a)

status

b)

affiliation

c)

self-esteem

d)

goal attainment

226.

A "power" in a group setting work through:

a)

collective action

b)

leadership balancing

c)

group think

d)

all of the above

227.

It gives a prescribed behavior which will be expected from the group members.

a)

norms

b)

organization

c)

dynamics

d)

structure

228.

A manufacturing company is experiencing high turnover rates among its production workers. The management believes that a redesign of the job roles might help improve job satisfaction and retention. What is the first step in the job analysis and design process?

a)

Conducting employee satisfaction surveys

b)

Identifying key job tasks and responsibilities

c)

Implementing a new compensation plan

d)

Hiring an external consultant

229.

A software development company is adopting a matrix organizational structure. What aspect of job analysis becomes particularly crucial in this context?

a)

Job Rotation

b)

Job Enrichment

c)

Job Specialization

d)

Role Ambiguity

230.

A retail company is considering implementing a flexible work arrangement for its sales representatives. What concept in job design is most relevant to accommodate this change?

a)

Job Rotation

b)

Flextime

c)

Job Enrichment

d)

Task Significance

231.

A human resources manager is conducting a job analysis for a position in a highly dynamic and fast-paced industry. Which job analysis method is most suitable in this context?

a)

Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)

b)

Task Inventory

c)

Critical Incident Technique (CIT)

d)

Observational methods

232.

A company is undergoing a restructuring process, and several positions are being combined to create a new role. What job analysis component is crucial in determining the necessary skills for the new position?

a)

Job context

b)

Job tasks

c)

Job requirements

d)

Job specifications

233.

Acompany is using the Job Components Inventory (JCI) to gather information about various jobs. What aspect of jobs does JCI primarily focus on?

a)

Job requirements

b)

Job context

c)

Job characteristics

d)

Job tasks

234.

A tech company is implementing job enrichment strategies to enhance employee motivation. What is a key feature of job enrichment?

a)

Increasing the number of tasks

b)

Reducing employee autonomy

c)

Simplifying job responsibilities

d)

Decrease skill variety