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Computer Networks & Security Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which OSI layer is responsible for logical addressing (IP)?

a)

Data Link

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Application

2.

A switch works mainly at which OSI layer?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 7

3.

Which device separates networks and controls traffic based on rules?

a)

Switch

b)

Firewall

c)

Hub

d)

Repeater

4.

Which of these is an example of a network segmentation technique?

a)

VLANs

b)

Using USBs

c)

Printing documents

d)

Disabling Wi-Fi

5.

The main purpose of AAA in security is:

a)

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

b)

Availability, Access, Application

c)

Admin, Audit, Access

d)

Advanced Automatic Analysis

6.

Encryption provides which of the following?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Printing speed

c)

Internet access

d)

Hardware security only

7.

Which protocol is secure for remote login?

a)

Telnet

b)

FTP

c)

SSH

d)

HTTP

8.

A “stateful firewall” means:

a)

It can remember active sessions and connections

b)

It only filters based on static rules

c)

It never logs activity

d)

It blocks all traffic

9.

A virus differs from a worm because:

a)

A virus spreads without human action

b)

A worm needs a host file

c)

A virus needs a host file while a worm spreads standalone

d)

Both are exactly the same

10.

A Trojan horse usually:

a)

Disguises as legitimate software but hides malicious code

b)

Only infects USB drives

c)

Self-replicates

d)

Encrypts files automatically

11.

Which malware type locks your files until ransom is paid?

a)

Spyware

b)

Adware

c)

Ransomware

d)

Worm

12.

Keyloggers are used to:

a)

Monitor network bandwidth

b)

Record user keystrokes

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Delete cookies

13.

A common phishing attack method is:

a)

Sending fake emails pretending to be banks

b)

Brute-forcing passwords

c)

Launching DDoS

d)

Changing IP addresses

14.

Spear phishing is:

a)

Targeted phishing against a specific person or company

b)

Sending to all people randomly

c)

Physical spear attacks

d)

Brute-forcing login

15.

Whaling phishing targets:

a)

Ordinary users

b)

CEOs and executives

c)

Hackers

d)

Students

16.

Which attack tricks users into clicking malicious ads?

a)

Adware

b)

Pharming

c)

Typosquatting

d)

SQL Injection

17.

A vulnerability is best defined as:

a)

A hacker tool

b)

A weakness in a system that can be exploited

c)

A virus infection

d)

A firewall rule

18.

Which tool is used for network vulnerability scanning?

a)

OpenVAS

b)

Paint

c)

Excel

d)

Word

19.

XSS allows an attacker to:

a)

Inject malicious scripts into web pages

b)

Steal network packets

c)

Crash servers via DoS

d)

Enumerate DNS records only

20.

SQL Injection happens when:

a)

SQL queries are constructed with unvalidated user input

b)

DNS servers are misconfigured

c)

Users forget their passwords

d)

A firewall is blocking ports

21.

Which vulnerability lets attackers access files outside the web root folder?

a)

Path Traversal (../)

b)

SQL Injection

c)

XSS

d)

CSRF

22.

CSRF stands for:

a)

Client-Side Request Function

b)

Cross-Site Request Forgery

c)

Central Security Risk Factor

d)

Cyber Security Routing Feature

23.

The goal of vulnerability assessment methodology is:

a)

Systematically identify, analyze, and prioritize vulnerabilities

b)

Launch ransomware

c)

Block phishing emails

d)

Train employees only

24.

Which step comes before “Exploitation” in PTES but overlaps with VA?

a)

Threat Modeling

b)

Vulnerability Analysis

c)

Reporting

d)

Post-exploitation

25.

Which project maintains the OWASP Top 10 list?

a)

Cisco

b)

Microsoft

c)

OWASP Foundation

d)

Google

26.

The OWASP Top 10 focuses on:

a)

Most critical web application security risks

b)

Firewall configurations

c)

Network speed

d)

Software licenses

27.

SQL Injection is part of OWASP Top 10. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which tool is popular for intercepting and modifying HTTP requests?

a)

Burp Suite

b)

Excel

c)

Photoshop

d)

Telnet

29.

Which scanning tool is open-source and similar to Burp?

a)

OWASP ZAP

b)

Wireshark

c)

Hydra

d)

Nmap

30.

A web vulnerability scanner does what?

a)

Finds misconfigurations and injection points in web apps

b)

Cleans malware

c)

Encrypts files

d)

Designs websites

31.

Broken Authentication means:

a)

Weak login mechanisms allow account takeover

b)

System crash

c)

Server hardening

d)

Certificate expired

32.

Sensitive Data Exposure in OWASP refers to:

a)

Unencrypted or poorly protected sensitive data (passwords, credit cards)

b)

Only showing error pages

c)

Bandwidth overuse

d)

File compression

33.

A common WordPress risk comes from:

a)

Weak plugins

b)

USB attacks

c)

Cloud backups

d)

MAC spoofing

34.

Why are outdated themes dangerous?

a)

They use more disk space

b)

They may contain vulnerable code

c)

They make the site look old

d)

They slow internet speed

35.

Brute-force login attack in WordPress means:

a)

Repeatedly guessing username/password until success

b)

Deleting user accounts

c)

Uploading images

d)

Changing domain records

36.

Misconfigurations in WordPress include:

a)

Default admin username, weak permissions

b)

Using a custom theme

c)

Using caching plugins

d)

Hosting multiple sites

37.

A good hardening practice is:

a)

Keep WordPress core, plugins, themes updated

b)

Never update plugins

c)

Use “admin” as default user

d)

Disable HTTPS

38.

Which plugin type often introduces supply chain risks?

a)

Downloaded from untrusted third-party sites

b)

Official WordPress repository

c)

Browser extensions

d)

Antivirus

39.

Limiting login attempts is an example of:

a)

Brute-force protection

b)

SQL Injection protection

c)

Adware removal

d)

Encryption

40.

Disabling directory listing prevents:

a)

Attackers from browsing your file structure

b)

Emails from being sent

c)

Password reuse

d)

SSL certificates from working

41.

PTES stands for:

a)

Penetration Testing Execution Standard

b)

Private Testing Evaluation System

c)

Public Test Encryption Service

d)

Pentest Evaluation Suite

42.

Which phase is about collecting information about the target?

a)

Intelligence Gathering

b)

Exploitation

c)

Post-exploitation

d)

Reporting

43.

Threat modeling helps identify:

a)

High-value assets and possible attackers

b)

The report template

c)

The fastest scanning tool

d)

Backup solutions

44.

Vulnerability Analysis phase uses:

a)

Scanners + manual verification

b)

Only screenshots

c)

Only passwords

d)

Only Burp Suite

45.

Exploitation must be:

a)

Controlled and non-destructive

b)

Always destructive

c)

Skipped completely

d)

Random

46.

Post-exploitation includes:

a)

Privilege escalation and lateral movement

b)

Printing logs only

c)

Writing the report

d)

Cleaning cookies

47.

Which section of the report is for managers, non-technical people?

a)

Executive Summary

b)

Technical Findings

c)

Appendices

d)

Raw logs

48.

CVSS score tells:

a)

Severity of a vulnerability

b)

Number of logins

c)

The scope

d)

The size of the report

49.

A retest after fixes is important because:

a)

To confirm vulnerabilities are patched

b)

To waste time

c)

To change scope

d)

To train new staff

50.

The most important legal step before any pentest is:

a)

Written authorization from the client

b)

Using a fast laptop

c)

Updating Burp Suite

d)

Using multiple testers