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Worksheets

Exam One Practice

Total questions: 27

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The total magnification of a compound light microscope is:

a)

The magnification of the objective lens only

b)

The magnification of the ocular lens only

c)

The sum of the objective and ocular magnifications

d)

The product of the objective and ocular magnifications

2.

What does resolving power of a microscope refer to?

a)

The maximum light intensity

b)

The ability to distinguish two closely spaced objects as separate

c)

The maximum magnification possible

d)

The clarity of the ocular lens

3.

Numerical Aperture (NA) of a microscope objective is:

a)

A measure of magnification power

b)

An index of resolving power and light-gathering ability

c)

The distance between object and lens

d)

The type of light source used

4.

Which part of the microscope directs and focuses light onto the specimen?

a)

Ocular lens

b)

Condenser

c)

Stage

d)

Objective

5.

The iris diaphragm of a microscope is used to:

a)

Change magnification

b)

Adjust the amount of light entering the field of view

c)

Hold the specimen slide

d)

Adjust fine focus

6.

Oil-immersion objectives are primarily used for:

a)

Low-power viewing

b)

High-resolution viewing of very small specimens

c)

Increasing field of view

d)

Digital imaging

7.

In brightfield microscopy, objects appear:

a)

Dark on a bright background

b)

Bright on a dark background

c)

Fluorescent under UV light

d)

Three-dimensional

8.

Which microscope provides the highest magnification and resolution?

a)

Brightfield

b)

Darkfield

c)

Electron microscope

d)

Phase-contrast microscope

9.

Which microscope is most useful for identifying crystals in synovial fluid?

a)

Fluorescence microscope

b)

Polarized microscope

c)

Phase-contrast microscope

d)

Darkfield microscope

10.

Digital microscopy systems are capable of:

a)

Preclassifying blood cells using artificial neural networks

b)

Storing up to 20,000 slides in a database

c)

Remote review of smears

d)

All of the above

11.

According to studies, what percentage of laboratory errors occur in the preanalytical phase?

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

90%

d)

98%

12.

The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals require patient identification using:

a)

Patient’s initials only

b)

Patient’s name and birth date

c)

Medical record number only

d)

Room number

13.

Which of the following is not one of the six goals of the U.S. Institute of Medicine for health care delivery?

a)

Safety

b)

Timeliness

c)

Profitability

d)

Patient-centered focus

14.

Which agency enforces workplace safety standards for laboratories in the U.S.?

a)

CDC

b)

CAP

c)

OSHA

d)

TJC

15.

Which of the following is required under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard?

a)

PPE use only when handling blood

b)

Chemical manufacturers must provide Safety Data Sheets (SDS) in a standardized format

c)

Recapping of all needles after use

d)

Annual TB skin tests for all laboratory staff

16.

HIPAA was enacted in 1996 to ensure:

a)

Patient informed consent

b)

Patient confidentiality of health information

c)

National licensure of laboratory personnel

d)

Accreditation of laboratories

17.

Which laboratory department specializes in testing related to immune responses and antigen-antibody reactions?

a)

Hematology

b)

Immunology/Serology

c)

Toxicology

d)

Flow Cytometry

18.

Which of the following describes the “chain of custody”?

a)

The process of accrediting laboratories

b)

Documenting each step of specimen handling in medicolegal cases

c)

The order of blood draw tubes

d)

The system for maintaining quality control records

19.

Which of the following best describes standard precautions?

a)

Wearing gloves only when handling blood

b)

Using PPE based on the patient’s diagnosis

c)

Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious

d)

Only applying precautions to patients known to be HIV positive

20.

A patient faints during venipuncture. What is the first action the MLA should take?

a)

Continue drawing blood quickly to finish the procedure

b)

Lay the patient flat and protect them from injury

c)

Call the physician immediately

d)

Loosen the tourniquet and remove the needle, then provide support

21.

Which laboratory department primarily performs tests such as CBC, WBC differential, and hemoglobin?

a)

Hematology

b)

Chemistry

c)

Microbiology

d)

Immunology

22.

Which specimen requires protection from light during transport?

a)

Serum potassium

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Calcium

d)

Sodium

23.
What is part 1?
a)
eye piece
b)
body tube
c)
arm
d)
coarse adjust
24.
What part is 5?
a)
coarse adjustment
b)
fine adjustment
c)
diaphragm
d)
stage
25.
What part is 3?
a)
eye piece
b)
base
c)
arm 
d)
coarse adjust
26.
What is the name of the structure labeled #10?
a)
objective lens
b)
ocular lens
c)
aperture
d)
nosepeice
27.

What part is AB?

a)

Stage

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Light Source

d)

base