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Immunisations

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

At what age is the 6-in-1 vaccine (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B) first given according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

8 weeks (2 months)

b)

4 weeks (1 month)

c)

12 weeks (3 months)

d)

16 weeks (4 months)

2.

Which vaccine is given at 8 weeks (2 months) to protect against rotavirus according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

Rotavirus vaccine

b)

BCG vaccine

c)

MMR vaccine

d)

Hepatitis B vaccine

3.

Which vaccine is given at 8 weeks (2 months) to protect against meningococcal B according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

Men B vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

Rotavirus vaccine

d)

DTaP/IPV/Hib/HepB vaccine

4.

At what age is the pneumococcal vaccine first given according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

12 weeks (3 months)

b)

6 weeks (1.5 months)

c)

6 months

d)

9 months

5.

Which of the following vaccines is NOT given at 12 weeks (3 months)?

a)

6-in-1 vaccine

b)

Pneumococcal vaccine

c)

MMR

d)

Rotavirus vaccine

6.

At what age is the Hib/Men C booster given according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

1 year

b)

6 months

c)

18 months

d)

2 years

7.

Which vaccine is given annually to high-risk groups between 2-11 years according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

Annual flu vaccine (inactive form)

b)

BCG vaccine

c)

MMR vaccine

d)

Hepatitis B vaccine

8.

Which diseases does the 4-in-1 booster given at 3 years 4 months protect against according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio

b)

Measles, mumps, rubella, chickenpox

c)

Hepatitis B, rotavirus, meningitis, influenza

d)

Tuberculosis, HPV, hepatitis A, rabies

9.

At what age is the MMR booster typically given according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

The MMR booster is typically given before 12-13 years of age.

b)

The MMR booster is typically given at birth.

c)

The MMR booster is typically given at 18 years of age.

d)

The MMR booster is typically given after 20 years of age.

10.

Which vaccine is recommended at 12-13 years of age according to the childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

HPV vaccine

b)

BCG vaccine

c)

Rotavirus vaccine

d)

Oral Polio Vaccine

11.

Which of the following is included in the 3-in-1 booster given at 14 years of age?

a)

Diphtheria, tetanus, polio

b)

Measles, mumps, rubella

c)

Hepatitis B, HPV, rotavirus

d)

Influenza, pneumococcal, pertussis

12.

What is the major cause of cervical cancer according to the additional vaccine information?

a)

HPV (types 16,18)

b)

Hepatitis B virus

c)

Epstein-Barr virus

d)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

13.

Which disease is associated with Koplik's spots and maculopapular rash?

a)

Measles

b)

Chickenpox

c)

Rubella

d)

Scarlet fever

14.

Mumps is characterized by which of the following features?

a)

Unilateral parotid swelling

b)

Muscle stiffness

c)

Low-grade fever

d)

Deafness

15.

Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to cardiac abnormalities and microcephaly in the fetus.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which disease is described as a highly contagious GI infection affecting children aged 1 month to 4 years?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Measles

c)

Chickenpox

d)

Mumps

17.

What is the usual antibiotic prophylaxis for Diphtheria?

a)

Macrolides (ok in pregnancy) or Ben-pen

b)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Vancomycin

18.

According to the definition, who requires additional immunisations beyond the standard childhood immunisation schedule?

a)

All children

b)

Only adults

c)

Specific high-risk groups (e.g., asplenia, cochlear implants, chronic cardiac issues, DM, immunosuppressed, haematological issues)

d)

Only elderly

19.

Which of the following groups are eligible for the Pneumococcal Vaccination additional doses?

a)

Over 65s

b)

High-risk groups (e.g. asplenia, CKD)

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

20.

Which of the following is NOT an eligible group for the Seasonal Influenza Vaccination?

a)

Pregnant women (any stage)

b)

2-3 year olds

c)

30-40 year olds with no risk factors

d)

Main carers for the elderly

21.

Fill in the blank: Antibiotic prophylaxis for pneumococcal infection in asplenic or in patients with SSD is Pen V or ________ if pen allergic.

a)

erythromycin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

clindamycin

d)

cephalexin

22.

Travel immunisations are required for protection against endemic diseases in specific ________ regions.

a)

geographical

b)

seasonal

c)

nutritional

d)

cultural

23.

Tetanus is prevalent worldwide.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Which disease is prevalent in South Asia?

a)

Tetanus

b)

Typhoid

c)

Yellow fever

d)

Japanese encephalitis

25.

International certificates are required for Hajj/Umrah pilgrims for which of the following vaccines?

a)

MMR

b)

Polio

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

All of the above

26.

Which of the following is a free vaccine according to the extra information provided?

a)

Rabies

b)

Typhoid

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Yellow fever

27.

Which of the following is a paid vaccine according to the extra information provided?

a)

Cholera

b)

Polio

c)

Japanese encephalitis

d)

Hepatitis A

28.

Fill in the blank: According to the accelerated vaccination schedule, Rabies should be given ____ week(s) before travel.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

29.

Fill in the blank: According to the accelerated vaccination schedule, Hepatitis B should be given ____ weeks before travel.

a)

3

b)

1

c)

6

d)

8

30.

Which vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymyxin B?

a)

Tetanus/Polio

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Measles

d)

Rabies

31.

Which vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an anaphylactic reaction to eggs?

a)

Tick-borne encephalitis

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Rabies

d)

Japanese encephalitis

32.

Which vaccine is contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals, those under 6 months of age, or those with an anaphylactic reaction to eggs or thymus disorder?

a)

Yellow fever

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Tetanus

d)

Polio

33.

Some vaccines require specific timing before travel.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

True or False: All vaccines are free on the NHS.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

One health risk to consider during travel is:

a)

Malaria

b)

Broken bone

c)

Tooth whitening

d)

Increased height

36.

What is the definition of live vaccines according to the information provided?

a)

Live vaccines: vaccines containing weakened but living microorganisms

b)

Live vaccines: vaccines containing dead microorganisms

c)

Live vaccines: vaccines containing only toxins produced by microorganisms

d)

Live vaccines: vaccines containing only genetic material of microorganisms

37.

Which vaccine is used to prevent rotavirus infection?

a)

Rotavirus vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

Varicella vaccine

d)

BCG vaccine

38.

Which vaccine is used to prevent measles, mumps, and rubella?

a)

Rotavirus vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

Varicella vaccine

d)

Yellow fever vaccine

39.

Which vaccine is used to prevent chickenpox?

a)

Varicella vaccine

b)

BCG vaccine

c)

Rotavirus vaccine

d)

Yellow fever vaccine

40.

Which vaccine is used to prevent yellow fever?

a)

Yellow fever vaccine

b)

MMR vaccine

c)

BCG vaccine

d)

Varicella vaccine

41.

Which vaccine is used to prevent tuberculosis?

a)

BCG vaccine

b)

Rotavirus vaccine

c)

Varicella vaccine

d)

Yellow fever vaccine

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