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Elevator Systems Quiz

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An architect is designing a 30-story office tower where tenants demand short waiting times. The client insists on minimizing shaft space while still ensuring smooth, rapid service. Which design factor is MOST critical in achieving this?

a)

Increasing the number of escalators in the building

b)

Installing wider elevator cars to carry more people per trip

c)

Selecting appropriate car speed and control system for traffic handling

d)

Reducing door opening width to save shaft space

e)

Using freight elevators as backup for passenger use

2.

A 25-story office building spends almost 10% of its construction cost on elevators. The developer asks why elevators are so critical to leasing. What is the BEST explanation?

a)

Tenants focus only on rental cost, not on elevators.

b)

Elevator service quality directly influences tenant choice.

c)

Escalators are more cost-effective in tall buildings.

d)

Freight elevators can substitute for passenger cars.

e)

Tenants rarely notice vertical transport in building selection.

3.

A 90-story mixed-use tower considers a sky lobby system. What is its MAIN advantage over conventional zoning?

a)

Shortens vertical trip length

b)

Eliminates the need for elevators entirely

c)

Reduces blind shaft space and improves efficiency

d)

Provides only decorative observation floors

e)

Requires fewer lobby levels

4.

An architect proposes double-deck elevators in a 60-story office tower. What benefit do they provide?

a)

Reduce machine room size

b)

Increase shaft capacity and rentable floor area

c)

Eliminate the need for fire stairs

d)

Allow emergency evacuation through cars

e)

Lower construction cost per shaft

5.

A 12-storey hospital requires vertical movement of beds and large medical equipment. Which elevator is MOST appropriate?

a)

Observation elevator

b)

Passenger elevator

c)

Freight elevator

d)

Hydraulic elevator

e)

Machine Roomless Elevator

6.

Why was a rack and pinion elevator usually chosen in construction of midrise and high-rise buildings?

a)

It allows panoramic views for visitors

b)

It has unlimited rise, low maintenance, and space efficiency

c)

It avoids the use of counterweights

d)

It reduces installation costs compared to freight elevators

e)

It provides high speed at low cost

7.

A retail mall chooses escalators over elevators between 3 floors. What MAIN advantage supports this?

a)

Lower shaft construction cost

b)

Continuous passenger flow without waiting

c)

Ability to move freight carts safely

d)

Reduced fire egress requirements

e)

Lower decorative costs

8.

An architect selects center-opening doors for office building elevators. What is the MAIN advantage of this choice?

a)

Lower cost than single-slide

b)

Faster closing under higher pressure

c)

Faster and safer passenger transfer with wide opening

d)

Requires no electronic sensors

e)

Provides smaller shaft dimensions

9.

Which component balances the car weight plus 40% of rated load, reducing motor size and power demand?

a)

Sheave

b)

Counterweight

c)

Governor

d)

Buffer

e)

Deflector pulley

10.

An elevator stops automatically when overspeed is detected. Which device first acts to cut power and set the brake?

a)

Counterweight

b)

Centrifugal governor / electronic sensor

c)

Door interlock

d)

Car buffer

e)

Plunger

11.

Why are hydraulic elevators sometimes preferred for malls and showrooms with glass observation cars?

a)

They require no penthouse or counterweight

b)

They are faster than traction

c)

They are cheaper to maintain

d)

They can travel 2000 fpm

e)

They never need oil pumps

12.

Which is a major disadvantage of conventional hydraulic elevators compared to traction elevators?

a)

Cannot be glass-walled

b)

Limited to low-rise and higher energy use

c)

No need for a machine room

d)

Cannot be installed in residences

e)

Require counterweights

13.

Why are hole-less hydraulic elevators developed?

a)

To reduce counterweight loads

b)

To avoid deep drilling where pits are difficult

c)

To increase speed above traction systems

d)

To allow double-deck cabins

e)

To meet ASME A17.1 codes

14.

A mall developer wants low-rise elevators that are cheap to install. The mechanical engineer warns about long-term energy use and rise limits. What system is being described?

a)

Gearless traction

b)

Hydraulic

c)

Rack and pinion

d)

Pneumatic tube

e)

Double-deck traction

15.

Why are buffers required in the pit of passenger elevators?

a)

To cushion over-travel at terminal landings

b)

To stop cars in free fall from any height

c)

To balance rope tension

d)

To equalize counterweight load

e)

To act as governor clamp

16.

For a 60-story corporate tower, which car speed range is most appropriate for traction elevators?

a)

50-100 fpm

b)

100-200 fpm

c)

350-2000 fpm

d)

2000-5000 fpm

e)

Unlimited

17.

In a 70-story tower, why are express elevators often required?

a)

To reduce shaft fire rating requirements

b)

To skip low-rise stops and reduce passenger travel time

c)

To reduce elevator speed to safe levels

d)

To replace freight elevators during peak hours

e)

To increase decorative lobby finishes

18.

In a 110-story tower, the owner asks how to avoid an excessive number of shafts. Which system would be most effective?

a)

Multiple gearless elevators

b)

Double-deck elevators with sky lobby transfers

c)

Freight-only cars

d)

Escalators for upper floors

e)

Multi-zone elevators

19.

Which special elevator type generally has the HIGHEST maintenance cost due to complexity?

a)

Double-deck elevators

b)

Hydraulic elevators

c)

Escalators

d)

Dumbwaiters

e)

Inclined elevators

20.

What is the maximum inclination of moving walks in airport terminals?

a)

3 degrees

b)

5 degrees

c)

7 degrees

d)

10 degrees

e)

12 degrees

21.

Some escalators in airports slow down or stop when no passengers are detected. What is this system called?

a)

Step synchronization

b)

Variable frequency drive (VFD) control with automatic start/stop

c)

Counterweight adjustment

d)

Comb plate sensor

e)

Passive braking

22.

Which component is MOST responsible for excessive noise in an escalator?

a)

Step chain wear

b)

Comb plate

c)

Handrail

d)

Landing plate

e)

Balustrade panel

23.

Where are most escalator drive motors located in modern designs?

4 lines
24.

What is the MAIN advantage of gearless traction elevators over geared systems?

a)

Lower installation cost

b)

Higher efficiency, smoother ride, suitable for high-rise buildings

c)

Simpler design for short-rise applications

d)

Elimination of safety brakes

e)

Reduced shaft size

25.

Which elevator type is MOST appropriate for a 3-story office building?

a)

Hydraulic elevator

b)

Gearless traction

c)

Double-deck

d)

Rack and pinion

e)

Pneumatic

26.

What is the typical target average waiting time for passenger elevators in commercial office buildings?

a)

15-20 seconds

b)

25-35 seconds

c)

45-60 seconds

d)

70-90 seconds

e)

Over 2 minutes

27.

Which device ensures the elevator car does not overshoot its upper terminal?

a)

Final limit switch

b)

Rope tensioner

c)

Skirt deflector

d)

Comb plate

e)

Balustrade

28.

In the design of a 40-story commercial tower, the architect proposes grouping 6 elevators in a single continuous bank to minimize shaft space. During peer review, the consultant objects, stating that standard practice usually limits the number of elevators per bank to 4. What is the MOST critical reason for this limitation?

a)

To reduce initial construction cost of elevator equipment

b)

To minimize passenger walking distance and improve traffic handling efficiency

c)

To comply with fire code requirements for smoke-proof lobbies

d)

To allow easier decorative treatment of elevator lobbies

e)

To reduce the total number of shafts required in the building

29.

An architect is organizing the service core of a proposed 25-story office tower. The consultant reminds the team that certain functions are always included in the core (e.g., elevators, stairs, mechanical/electrical risers), while others are optional or less commonly centralized. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in the building service core?

a)

Passenger elevators and fire exit stairs

b)

Electrical and plumbing risers

c)

Restrooms

d)

Firefighter standpipe and HVAC shafts

e)

Service/freight elevator

30.

In planning the service core of a 30-story office tower, the architect identifies the elevator shafts as the dominant space-planning element. According to building code and safety principles, which component is considered the NEXT most critical element of the core?

a)

Fire exit stairwells

b)

Public restrooms stacked vertically

c)

HVAC Plenum shaft

d)

Electrical panel rooms

e)

Plumbing pipe chase

31.

A design team is tasked with selecting a boiler for a hospital that requires both space heating and sterilization steam. The facility prioritizes efficiency and reliability. Which type of boiler would be most appropriate?

a)

Warm-air furnace

b)

Fire-tube boiler

c)

Infrared heater

d)

Evaporative cooler

e)

Absorption chiller

32.

(HVAC). In the vapor-compression refrigeration cycle, which component is responsible for raising the pressure and temperature of the refrigerant vapor?

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Compressor

d)

Expansion valve

e)

Heat pipe

33.

A commercial office is replacing its old CFC-based chiller. The engineer must select a refrigerant with zero ozone depletion potential (ODP) and relatively low global warming potential (GWP). Which option is most environmentally appropriate?

a)

CFC-12

b)

HCFC-22

c)

HFC-134a

d)

Ammonia (R-717)

e)

HCFC-123

34.

In a split-type air conditioning system, warm indoor air is cooled as it passes over a coil filled with refrigerant. At this stage, what is happening to the refrigerant inside the coil?

a)

It is compressed into high-pressure vapor.

b)

It evaporates, absorbing latent heat from indoor air.

c)

It condenses, releasing latent heat.

d)

It expands, reducing pressure and temperature.

e)

It circulates without phase change.

35.

A high-rise building in Makati uses a chilled water system for cooling. During operation, heat from the condenser water loop must be rejected to the atmosphere. Which equipment performs this function?

a)

Air handling unit

b)

Cooling tower

c)

Evaporator

d)

Boiler

e)

Heat recovery ventilator

36.

1.     An architect is designing a mid-rise office and specifies a rooftop HVAC unit (RTU) instead of a split system. What is the main reason for selecting an RTU?

a)

Lower indoor noise compared to split systems

b)

Ability to serve multiple zones from a single packaged unit

c)

No requirement for roof structural support

d)

Lower outdoor air intake capability

e)

Eliminates the need for filters and dampers

37.

An architect is designing a mid-rise office and specifies a rooftop HVAC unit (RTU) instead of a split system. What is the main reason for selecting an RTU?

a)

Lower indoor noise compared to split systems

b)

Ability to serve multiple zones from a single packaged unit

c)

No requirement for roof structural support

d)

Lower outdoor air intake capability

e)

Eliminates the need for filters and dampers

38.

During the commissioning of a school's heating system, the inspector emphasizes the importance of a device that prevents catastrophic explosions by releasing excess steam when pressure gets too high. Which component is this?

a)

Expansion tank

b)

Flow control valve

c)

Relief valve

d)

Automatic filler valve

e)

Circulating pump

39.

An architect is comparing a direct expansion (DX) system and a chilled water system for a 40-story office tower. Which factor most strongly supports the selection of a chilled water system?

a)

Lower first cost and simple installation

b)

Best suited for small buildings with single zones

c)

Ability to serve multiple floors and large zones efficiently

d)

Requires no pumps or piping distribution

e)

Avoids the need for cooling towers entirely

40.

A mixed-use high-rise is designed in a dense urban district. The cooling tower must be located to maximize performance. Which site condition is most critical?

a)

Roof deck

b)

Open Space Set backs

c)

Should be placed not directed to solar exposure

d)

Avoiding placement above mechanical rooms

e)

Minimum distance from stairwells

41.

An industrial facility in dry climate (low humidity) wants to cut cooling energy costs. The engineer proposes direct evaporative coolers. What is the main limitation of this system?

a)

Cannot lower air temperature below wet-bulb temperature

b)

Requires refrigerants with high GWP

c)

Increases indoor air pollution

d)

Incompatible with high ceilings

e)

Does not work with outside air ventilation

42.

An architect is addressing noise issues in a classroom where a through-the-wall packaged HVAC unit is specified. What design adjustment best reduces noise transmission into the space?

a)

Relocating the unit to a mechanical penthouse

b)

Adding duct silencers and vibration isolators

c)

Change HVAC unit to Split type System

d)

Decreasing supply air velocity

e)

Removing return air grilles

43.

An office tower specifies a VAV system for cooling. What is the primary energy-saving advantage of VAV compared to constant volume systems?

a)

Eliminates the need for chillers

b)

Adjusts airflow to match zone cooling demand

c)

Requires no ductwork in distribution

d)

Operates without compressors

e)

Removes the need for thermostats

44.

A university building has a dual-duct system with hot and cold air supplied separately. What is the biggest drawback of this design compared to VAV?

a)

Inability to provide simultaneous heating and cooling

b)

High energy consumption due to mixing of hot and cold air

c)

Lack of flexibility for multiple zones

d)

Poor indoor air quality from no fresh air supply

e)

Difficulty maintaining constant supply temperature

45.

An IT office reports employee discomfort due to dry air during air-conditioned operation. What is the most likely HVAC design oversight?

a)

Lack of economizer cycle

b)

Oversized cooling coils

c)

Absence of humidification equipment

d)

Excessive duct insulation

e)

Too many diffusers per zone

46.

In a variable refrigerant flow (VRF) system serving multiple office zones, what is the key benefit of using refrigerant piping instead of chilled water distribution?

a)

Easier long-distance distribution with lower losses

b)

Eliminates compressors at outdoor units

c)

Eliminates the risk of refrigerant leaks

d)

Lower installed cost for very large buildings

e)

Provides independent simultaneous heating and cooling in zones

47.

A hotel specifies fan coil units in guest rooms. Which control feature ensures maximum guest comfort and energy efficiency?

a)

Centralized humidifier only

b)

Variable speed fan with room thermostat

c)

Constant fan speed regardless of load

d)

Manual on/off switches only

e)

Shared control between multiple rooms

48.

A commercial office tower is being designed with long horizontal duct runs. The architect suggests minimizing duct sizes to save ceiling height. The engineer warns this could increase long-term energy costs. What is the MOST likely technical reason for the engineer's concern?

a)

Smaller ducts increase static pressure losses, leading to higher fan energy consumption.

b)

Smaller ducts cause air leakage, which requires additional insulation.

c)

Smaller ducts reduce heat gain/loss through duct walls, lowering system efficiency.

d)

Smaller ducts require more diffusers, leading to excessive noise in the occupied space.

e)

Smaller ducts increase the chance of condensation, requiring larger drain pans.

49.

In a retail store renovation, the contractor proposes using flexible ducts for all main trunk runs to save cost. As the architect, what is the BEST response?

a)

Approve, since flexible ducts provide lower static pressure than metal ducts.

b)

Reject, since flexible ducts should only be used for short connections to diffusers, not main trunks.

c)

Approve, since flexible ducts are self-insulated and do not require additional wrapping.

d)

Reject, since flexible ducts cannot be used in any commercial projects.

e)

Approve, provided the flexible ducts are oversized to reduce noise.

50.

During design review, the fire protection engineer insists on including fire dampers in specific duct penetrations. Where are fire dampers MOST critically required?

a)

Where ducts pass through any exterior wall.

b)

Where ducts pass through fire-rated walls or partitions.

c)

At every air diffuser outlet in occupied spaces.

d)

At all return air grills located above ceilings.

e)

At supply ducts connected to variable air volume (VAV) boxes.

51.

An office building uses VAV boxes for zoning. What is the PRIMARY function of a VAV box?

a)

To regulate duct pressure in the main trunk line.

b)

To adjust supply air volume to match thermal load in each zone.

c)

To filter dust before air enters the occupied zone.

d)

To reheat supply air for perimeter zones only.

e)

To provide humidity control independent of central AHU.

52.

Tenants complain of 'hissing noise' near diffusers in a new office. What is the MOST probable cause?

a)

Ducts are undersized, leading to excessive air velocity at outlets.

b)

VAV boxes are missing silencers.

c)

Diffusers were located too close to the exterior windows.

d)

Fire dampers are incorrectly placed at supply branches.

e)

The AHU filter has too high a MERV rating.

53.

A luxury hotel ballroom requires diffusers that deliver large volumes of conditioned air without creating drafts or noise, while maintaining uniform air distribution. Which diffuser type is MOST appropriate?

a)

Sidewall grilles

b)

Ceiling slot diffusers

c)

Floor-mounted registers

d)

Perforated ceiling diffusers

e)

Jet nozzles

54.

For a high-rise office, the mechanical engineer proposes locating AHUs on intermediate mechanical floors instead of only at the roof. What is the MOST important benefit of this approach?

a)

Reduces structural load on the roof slab.

b)

Improves duct distribution efficiency and reduces fan energy.

c)

Eliminates need for fire-rated shafts.

d)

Provides easier access for routine maintenance.

e)

Reduces the need for acoustic insulation in the ducts.

55.

An engineer is asked to reduce the diameter of chilled water supply pipes to save installation cost. What is the MOST likely impact on system operation?

a)

Increased pipe velocity → higher friction losses → larger pump energy demand.

b)

Increased pipe diameter → lower friction losses → lower pump cost.

c)

Smaller pipes reduce risk of condensation, improving efficiency.

d)

Smaller pipes increase thermal mass, reducing system lag.

e)

Reduced pipe size increases heat transfer rate to surrounding spaces.

56.

In a tall building, chilled water pumps are located at the basement mechanical room. Which technical factor MOST influences this choice?

a)

Pumps must always be at the lowest point to prevent air binding.

b)

Pumps should be placed near chillers to minimize suction lift and cavitation risk.

c)

Pumps require gravity drainage for maintenance.

d)

Pumps need proximity to cooling towers on the roof.

e)

Pumps must be located centrally to balance piping runs.

57.

An architect proposes using a constant air volume (CAV) system for a mid-rise office building to simplify controls. The engineer objects and recommends variable air volume (VAV) instead. What is the MAIN technical advantage of VAV over CAV in such a building?

a)

VAV reduces duct size, making ceiling design easier.

b)

VAV maintains constant air velocity at diffusers, improving comfort.

c)

VAV reduces fan energy use by lowering airflow during part-load conditions.

d)

VAV eliminates the need for terminal units.

e)

VAV requires fewer sensors, making it more economical.

58.

A hotel is being designed with individual zone control in each guest room. The owner wants relatively low first cost and independent operation. Which system is MOST suitable?

a)

Central VAV system

b)

Fan-coil unit (FCU) system

c)

Induction system

d)

Underfloor air distribution system

e)

CAV terminal reheat system

59.

A hospital requires strict air quality, filtration, and flexibility for pressurization control (positive for ORs, negative for isolation rooms). Which system is MOST appropriate?

a)

Fan-coil units in each room

b)

Induction units with central AHU

c)

Central all-air VAV system

d)

UFAD system with raised floor plenums

e)

Split type AC units

60.

In which of the following scenarios Where Underfloor Air Distribution AC is it least practical?

a)

A call center floor with modular cubicles

b)

A research laboratory with humid sensitive equipment

c)

A control center with dense cabling and heat loads

d)

A high-tech server room with raised floors

e)

A convention hall with high ceilings

61.

A large atrium is conditioned with ceiling-mounted diffusers. Occupants complain of poor comfort at lower levels. What is the MOST likely cause?

4 lines
62.

A large atrium is conditioned with ceiling-mounted diffusers. Occupants complain of poor comfort at lower levels. What is the MOST likely cause?

a)

Short-circuiting between supply and return air.

b)

Cold air remains trapped at the ceiling due to low density.

c)

Warm air rises and stays aloft, while cool supply air never effectively reaches the occupied zone.

d)

Excessive duct leakage before air reaches diffusers.

e)

Low humidity levels cause uneven air mixing.

63.

In an open-plan office with modular partitions, which diffuser type provides the MOST flexibility for future layout changes?

a)

Ceiling slot diffusers

b)

Sidewall grilles

c)

Jet nozzles

d)

Floor registers

e)

Perforated ceiling diffusers

64.

Tenants complain of noise at return air grilles. Which design factor is MOST likely responsible?

a)

Grilles are undersized, causing high velocity and turbulence.

b)

Return air is not cooled before entering the plenum.

c)

Filters at the AHU have too high a rating.

d)

Balancing dampers are installed too close to the grilles.

e)

Duct insulation was omitted.

65.

Why do perimeter zones in office buildings typically require separate control and larger volume flow from interior zones?

a)

Perimeter zones have more air leakage from windows and walls.

b)

Perimeter zones experience variable solar heat gain and conduction losses.

c)

Interior zones always remain cooler than perimeter zones.

d)

Perimeter zones require lower ventilation rates.

e)

Interior zones have no cooling load.

66.

A research lab requires negative pressure relative to adjacent corridors. What is the MOST important air distribution design strategy?

a)

Oversize supply diffusers for maximum dilution.

b)

Provide ducted return or exhaust directly to the outside.

c)

Use displacement ventilation to stratify air.

d)

Provide operable windows to increase natural ventilation.

e)

Supply more outdoor air to the corridor than to the lab.

67.

A performing arts theater requires silent airflow and minimal drafts over the audience. Which air distribution method is MOST suitable?

a)

Ceiling slot diffusers

b)

Floor displacement ventilation

c)

Jet nozzles

d)

Sidewall grilles with high velocity

e)

Overhead perforated ceiling diffusers

68.

In designing ductwork for a high-end residential project, the architect notes that ducts run above a suspended ceiling where space is limited. Which duct configuration is most likely to minimize height without drastically affecting airflow?

a)

Square ducts with aspect ratio 1.0

b)

Rectangular ducts with high aspect ratio (wider than tall)

c)

Round ducts only

d)

Flexible ducts throughout

e)

Radial system with individual branch runs

69.

In duct sizing, why must air velocity be kept below certain limits?

a)

To avoid condensation inside ducts

b)

To reduce turbulence and prevent noise

c)

To improve fuel efficiency of boilers

d)

To increase economizer effectiveness

e)

To prevent return air mixing with supply air

70.

During a site inspection, the architect notices return air grilles are placed very close to supply diffusers in a residential installation. What problem could this create?

a)

Excessive static pressure in ducts

b)

Short-circuiting of conditioned air

c)

Reduced economizer efficiency

d)

Backflow into combustion appliances

e)

Increase in bonnet pressure

71.

In a duct system, a 16-inch round duct is required, but ceiling space only permits rectangular ducts. Which principle ensures equivalent airflow?

a)

Equal duct perimeter

b)

Equal duct area

c)

Equal duct length

d)

Equal duct aspect ratio

e)

Equal duct velocity

72.

A shopping mall requires large ducts running across open spaces. Why might engineers choose round ducts over rectangular ones here?

a)

Round ducts require less insulation

b)

Round ducts minimize leakage

c)

Round ducts can carry more air per unit length

d)

Round ducts eliminate the need for diffusers

e)

Round ducts reduce friction losses regardless of velocity

73.

In a duct system with varying aspect ratios, why are extremely flat rectangular ducts (e.g., 30:1) avoided?

a)

They are too expensive to fabricate

b)

They encourage excessive condensation

c)

They have higher friction loss than more compact shapes

d)

They cannot be connected to fire dampers

e)

They cannot carry return air

74.

A retailer wants to protect a small server room that contains delicate equipment. Which sprinkler system type best balances rapid detection and minimizes accidental water damage?

a)

Standard wet-pipe systems.

b)

Dry-pipe systems.

c)

Deluge systems.

d)

Preaction systems.

e)

Open-sprinkler manifold with constant flow.

75.

A contractor proposes CPVC pipe for a light-commercial sprinkler branch in a small office. Which statement best captures suitability?

a)

CPVC is never approved for sprinkler systems.

b)

CPVC is commonly approved for residential and many light commercial applications when listed for sprinklers.

c)

CPVC is required for all high-rise sprinkler mains.

d)

CPVC is acceptable only if painted orange.

e)

CPVC can be used outdoors without protection.

76.

A manufacturing plant stores flammable liquids in a single large room. If a designer expects extremely rapid fire spread, which sprinkler approach is most appropriate?

a)

Wet-pipe with standard heads only.

b)

Dry-pipe system because liquids are present.

c)

Deluge system that floods all open heads simultaneously.

d)

Residential wet system.

e)

No sprinkler system - rely on portable extinguishers.

77.

A building's emergency lighting must keep exit routes lit after a power failure. The design team asks what minimum backup duration is commonly required. Which is the correct guidance from Chapter 21?

a)

5 minutes is sufficient.

b)

15 minutes only during daytime.

c)

Typically more than one hour of backup is provided for emergency lighting.

d)

No backup is needed if portable torches are available.

e)

24 hours is the code minimum.

78.

Which of the following most accurately describes the "flashover" stage of fire progression?

a)

The first spark that ignites the fuel.

b)

Slow smoldering of upholstery only.

c)

The stage when volatile gases mix and ignite the room simultaneously, producing near-instantaneous full-room involvement.

d)

Final cooling stage after extinguishment.

e)

When water applied by sprinklers causes steam.

79.

A property manager asks why automatic sprinklers typically only operate at heads near a fire rather than all at once. What is the correct technical explanation?

a)

Only the sprinkler heads with a direct temperature rise open - each head is individually heat-sensitive.

b)

The system is designed to sense fire by smoke and open only nearest heads.

c)

The alarm panel decides which heads to open.

d)

A remote switch activates select sprinklers.

e)

Sprinklers are manually activated by occupants.

80.

In a new multi-storey building, the fire engineer requires a secondary way to supply the sprinkler riser if municipal pressure is insufficient. Which is the most appropriate supplemental source?

a)

Increase the size of branch piping only.

b)

Add a gravity storage tank and an automatic fire pump.

c)

Add only more sprinkler heads.

d)

Use potable domestic water for pressure without modifications.

e)

Rely solely on fire department hoses.

81.

A building's standpipe system is designed for occupant use for initial firefighting before the fire department arrives. What class and hose diameter would you expect?

a)

Class I - 2½ in diameter for occupant use.

b)

Class II - 1½ in diameter intended for occupant use.

c)

Class III - 3 in diameter for occupants only.

d)

Class I - ½ in diameter for occupants.

e)

Class II - 2½ in diameter for professional firefighters.

82.

During design review, a consultant recommends installing a Siamese connection. What purpose does this serve?

a)

Provide potable water to tenants.

b)

Fire department pumpers can supplement building sprinkler/standpipe water via Siamese inlets.

c)

Electrical grounding for fire pumps.

d)

Shelter for fire hydrant valves.

e)

Serves as an alternate gravity tank inlet.

83.

True or False: Fire occurs and a sprinkler head fuses; the water keeps flowing until the main is shut off

4 lines
84.

Which sprinkler-head activation temperature/color pairing from the chapter is correct for a common light-hazard (residential/office) bulb?

a)

Blue bulb ~286°F

b)

Red/orange bulb ~155°F

c)

Green bulb ~155°F.

d)

Purple bulb ~155°F.

e)

All colors correspond to the same temperature.

85.

For a museum gallery with priceless artifacts, the owner prefers a suppression agent that minimizes water damage and extinguishes without residue. Which alternative suppression type (not water) does as appropriate for such special hazards?

a)

Use only higher water pressure.

b)

Gas-based agents or foam systems (select engineered clean agents) can be used to avoid water damage where appropriate and listed.

c)

Deluge water only.

d)

Powder residue only.

e)

Sand-filled sprinklers.

86.

True or False: Fire occurs and a sprinkler head fuses; Sprinkler heads are reusable.

4 lines
87.

A client wants to protect a museum archive room containing rare manuscripts. Which sprinkler system balances protection with minimal accidental water damage?

a)

Wet-pipe system.

b)

Dry-pipe system.

c)

Deluge system.

d)

Preaction system.

e)

Open sprinkler manifold.

88.

A laboratory with critical electronic equipment asks for a suppression agent that avoids water damage. What system type is most appropriate?

a)

High-pressure wet-pipe system.

b)

Dry-pipe system.

c)

Deluge water system.

d)

Clean agent (gas-based) suppression system.

e)

Foam sprinkler system.

89.

An architect is asked why manual pull stations are still required in a sprinklered building. Correct answer?

a)

To reduce sprinkler water use.

b)

To allow occupants to initiate alarm manually if detection fails.

c)

To silence alarms when sprinklers activate.

d)

To replace detectors entirely.

e)

To serve only as decoration.

90.

In a hospital the fire alarm must activate several functions simultaneously. Which combination is correct?

a)

activate evacuation public address system

b)

Release magnetic door locks, recall elevators and start smoke-control fans.

c)

automatic call attention of local fire respondent unit

d)

activate emergency lighting